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  • c++ class member functions instatiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched stackoverflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state info was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (vc++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • embed a jquery script after jquery is loaded by widget

    - by matthew k
    http://stackoverflow.com/a/6065421 was helpful to see how to confirm jquery has been loaded. my widget will need a class that was written using jquery. may i have some assistance on embedding this other class built using jquery? thank you, below is the snippet from the above link with my code added in the final portion as noted in the code comments: (function(window, document, version, callback) { var j, d; var loaded = false; if (!(j = window.jQuery) || version > j.fn.jquery || callback(j, loaded)) { var script = document.createElement("script"); script.type = "text/javascript"; script.src = "/media/jquery.js"; script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = function() { if (!loaded && (!(d = this.readyState) || d == "loaded" || d == "complete")) { callback((j = window.jQuery).noConflict(1), loaded = true); j(script).remove(); } }; document.documentElement.childNodes[0].appendChild(script) } })(window, document, "1.3", function($, jquery_loaded) { //my code added below var script_tag = document.createElement('script'); script_tag.setAttribute("type","text/javascript"); script_tag.setAttribute("src", "http://mysite.com/widget/slides.jquery.js"); (document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0] || document.documentElement).appendChild(script_tag); $('#slides').slides({}); //this line gives an error. }); right now, i am trying the following based on the response(s) provided to this question (line that throws error is noted with a comment): //this function is called after jquery being embedded has been confirmed. {mysite} placeholder is nonexistent in actual code. function main() { jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var css_link = $("<link>", { rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: "http://mysite/widget/widget.css" }); css_link.appendTo('head'); $('#crf_widget').after('<div id="crf_widget_container"></div>'); /******* Load HTML *******/ var jsonp_url = "http://mysite/widget.php?callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonp_url, function(data) { $('#crf_widget_container').html(data); $('#category_sel').change(function(){ alert(this.value); }); $.getScript("http://mysite/widget/slides.jquery.js", function(data, textStatus, jqxhr) { alert(1); //fires ok $('#slides').slides({}); //errors }); }); }); }

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  • How to discover classes with [Authorize] attributes using Reflection in C#? (or How to build Dynamic

    - by Pretzel
    Maybe I should back-up and widen the scope before diving into the title question... I'm currently writing a web app in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 (although I do have MVC 2.0 installed on my PC, so I'm not exactly restricted to 1.0) -- I've started with the standard MVC project which has your basic "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC" and shows both the [Home] tab and [About] tab in the upper-right corner. Pretty standard, right? I've added 4 new Controller classes, let's call them "Astronomer", "Biologist", "Chemist", and "Physicist". Attached to each new controller class is the [Authorize] attribute. For example, for the BiologistController.cs [Authorize(Roles = "Biologist,Admin")] public class BiologistController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } } These [Authorize] tags naturally limit which user can access different controllers depending on Roles, but I want to dynamically build a Menu at the top of my website in the Site.Master Page based on the Roles the user is a part of. So for example, if JoeUser was a member of Roles "Astronomer" and "Physicist", the navigation menu would say: [Home] [Astronomer] [Physicist] [About] And naturally, it would not list links to "Biologist" or "Chemist" controller Index page. Or if "JohnAdmin" was a member of Role "Admin", links to all 4 controllers would show up in the navigation bar. Ok, you prolly get the idea... Starting with the answer from this StackOverflow topic about Dynamic Menu building in ASP.NET, I'm trying to understand how I would fully implement this. (I'm a newbie and need a little more guidance, so please bare with me.) The answer proposes Extending the Controller class (call it "ExtController") and then have each new WhateverController inherit from ExtController. My conclusion is that I would need to use Reflection in this ExtController Constructor to determine which Classes and Methods have [Authorize] attributes attached to them to determine the Roles. Then using a Static Dictionary, store the Roles and Controllers/Methods in key-value pairs. I imagine it something like this: public class ExtController : Controller { protected static Dictionary<Type,List<string>> ControllerRolesDictionary; protected override void OnActionExecuted(ActionExecutedContext filterContext) { // build list of menu items based on user's permissions, and add it to ViewData IEnumerable<MenuItem> menu = BuildMenu(); ViewData["Menu"] = menu; } private IEnumerable<MenuItem> BuildMenu() { // Code to build a menu SomeRoleProvider rp = new SomeRoleProvider(); foreach (var role in rp.GetRolesForUser(HttpContext.User.Identity.Name)) { } } public ExtController() { // Use this.GetType() to determine if this Controller is already in the Dictionary if (!ControllerRolesDictionary.ContainsKey(this.GetType())) { // If not, use Reflection to add List of Roles to Dictionary // associating with Controller } } } Is this doable? If so, how do I perform Reflection in the ExtController constructor to discover the [Authorize] attribute and related Roles (if any) ALSO! Feel free to go out-of-scope on this question and suggest an alternate way of solving this "Dynamic Site.Master Menu based on Roles" problem. I'm the first to admit that this may not be the best approach.

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  • What's the C strategy to "imitate" a C++ template ?

    - by Andrei Ciobanu
    After reading some examples on stackoverflow, and following some of the answers for my previous questions (1), I've eventually come with a "strategy" for this. I've come to this: 1) Have a declare section in the .h file. Here I will define the data-structure, and the accesing interface. Eg.: /** * LIST DECLARATION. (DOUBLE LINKED LIST) */ #define NM_TEMPLATE_DECLARE_LIST(type) \ typedef struct nm_list_elem_##type##_s { \ type data; \ struct nm_list_elem_##type##_s *next; \ struct nm_list_elem_##type##_s *prev; \ } nm_list_elem_##type ; \ typedef struct nm_list_##type##_s { \ unsigned int size; \ nm_list_elem_##type *head; \ nm_list_elem_##type *tail; \ int (*cmp)(const type e1, const type e2); \ } nm_list_##type ; \ \ nm_list_##type *nm_list_new_##type##_(int (*cmp)(const type e1, \ const type e2)); \ \ (...other functions ...) 2) Wrap the functions in the interface inside MACROS: /** * LIST INTERFACE */ #define nm_list(type) \ nm_list_##type #define nm_list_elem(type) \ nm_list_elem_##type #define nm_list_new(type,cmp) \ nm_list_new_##type##_(cmp) #define nm_list_delete(type, list, dst) \ nm_list_delete_##type##_(list, dst) #define nm_list_ins_next(type,list, elem, data) \ nm_list_ins_next_##type##_(list, elem, data) (...others...) 3) Implement the functions: /** * LIST FUNCTION DEFINITIONS */ #define NM_TEMPLATE_DEFINE_LIST(type) \ nm_list_##type *nm_list_new_##type##_(int (*cmp)(const type e1, \ const type e2)) \ {\ nm_list_##type *list = NULL; \ list = nm_alloc(sizeof(*list)); \ list->size = 0; \ list->head = NULL; \ list->tail = NULL; \ list->cmp = cmp; \ }\ void nm_list_delete_##type##_(nm_list_##type *list, \ void (*destructor)(nm_list_elem_##type elem)) \ { \ type data; \ while(nm_list_size(list)){ \ data = nm_list_rem_##type(list, tail); \ if(destructor){ \ destructor(data); \ } \ } \ nm_free(list); \ } \ (...others...) In order to use those constructs, I have to create two files (let's call them templates.c and templates.h) . In templates.h I will have to NM_TEMPLATE_DECLARE_LIST(int), NM_TEMPLATE_DECLARE_LIST(double) , while in templates.c I will need to NM_TEMPLATE_DEFINE_LIST(int) , NM_TEMPLATE_DEFINE_LIST(double) , in order to have the code behind a list of ints, doubles and so on, generated. By following this strategy I will have to keep all my "template" declarations in two files, and in the same time, I will need to include templates.h whenever I need the data structures. It's a very "centralized" solution. Do you know other strategy in order to "imitate" (at some point) templates in C++ ? Do you know a way to improve this strategy, in order to keep things in more decentralized manner, so that I won't need the two files: templates.c and templates.h ?

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  • how to update an Android ListActivity on changing data of the connected SimpleCursorAdapter

    - by 4485670
    I have the following code. What I want to achieve is to update the shown list when I click an entry so I can traverse through the list. I found the two uncommented ways to do it here on stackoverflow, but neither works. I also got the advice to create a new ListActivity on the data update, but that sounds like wasting resources? EDIT: I found the solution myself. All you need to do is call "SimpleCursorAdapter.changeCursor(new Cursor);". No notifying, no things in UI-Thread or whatever. import android.app.ListActivity; import android.database.Cursor; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ListView; import android.widget.SimpleCursorAdapter; public class MyActivity extends ListActivity { private DepartmentDbAdapter mDbHelper; private Cursor cursor; private String[] from = new String[] { DepartmentDbAdapter.KEY_NAME }; private int[] to = new int[] { R.id.text1 }; private SimpleCursorAdapter notes; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.departments_list); mDbHelper = new DepartmentDbAdapter(this); mDbHelper.open(); // Get all of the departments from the database and create the item list cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(1); this.startManagingCursor(cursor); // Now create an array adapter and set it to display using our row notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.department_row, cursor, from, to); this.setListAdapter(notes); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); // get new data and update the list this.updateData(safeLongToInt(id)); } /** * update data for the list * * @param int departmentId id of the parent department */ private void updateData(int departmentId) { // close the old one, get a new one cursor.close(); cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(departmentId); // change the cursor of the adapter to the new one notes.changeCursor(cursor); } /** * safely convert long to in to save memory * * @param long l the long variable * * @return integer */ public static int safeLongToInt(long l) { if (l < Integer.MIN_VALUE || l > Integer.MAX_VALUE) { throw new IllegalArgumentException (l + " cannot be cast to int without changing its value."); } return (int) l; } }

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  • Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

    - by rhtx
    I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

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  • disable dates using jquery inside gridview control

    - by bladerunner
    Hi there, I have a gridview which contains a textbox control. I need to show the calendar for the user to pick the date and certain dates are to be disabled using jquery. I found a post on stackoverflow that talked about how to disable certain dates. I am done with that part, except not sure how to pass the textbox control to this jquery function. Here is the code. <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function pageLoad(sender, args) { var enabledDays = ['09/21/2011', '10/05/2011', '10/19/2011', '11/02/2011', '11/16/2011']; /* utility functions */ function editDays(date) { for (var i = 0; i < enabledDays.length; i++) { if (new Date(enabledDays[i]).toString() == date.toString()) { return [true]; } } return [false]; } /* create datepicker */ $(document).ready(function() { $('#<%= txtInHomeDate.ClientID %>').datepicker({ beforeShow: springDate, beforeShowDay: editDays, dateFormat: 'mm/dd/yy', buttonImage: 'images/cal.gif', buttonText: 'Choose date', firstDay: 1, buttonImageOnly: true, showOn: 'both', showAnim: 'fadeIn', onSelect: function() { $(this).trigger("onchange", null); } }); function springDate() { var defaultMin = new Date(); var defaultMax = new Date(); var Min = defaultMin; var Max = defaultMax; // make valid date from hiddenfied value format is MM/dd/yyyy dateMin = $('#<%= hfStDate.ClientID %>').val(); dateMin = new Date(dateMin); dateMax = $('#<%= hfEndDate.ClientID %>').val(); dateMax = new Date(dateMax); if (dateMin && dateMax) { Min = new Date(dateMin.getFullYear(), dateMin.getMonth(), dateMin.getDate()); Max = new Date(dateMax.getFullYear(), dateMax.getMonth(), dateMax.getDate()); } return { minDate: Min, maxDate: Max }; } }); } <.... <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="In-Home Date"> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfStDate" runat="server" Value="09/01/2011" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfEndDate" runat="server" Value="11/30/2011" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtInHomeDate" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> Currently, it errors out since the jquery function won't find the txtInHomeDate. Could I get some help as I am pretty close to get this done? Thanks!!

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  • .NET Extension Objects with XSLT -- how to iterate over a collection?

    - by Pandincus
    Help me, Stackoverflow! I have a simple .NET 3.5 console app that reads some data and sends emails. I'm representing the email format in an XSLT stylesheet so that we can easily change the wording of the email without needing to recompile the app. We're using Extension Objects to pass data to the XSLT when we apply the transformation: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:EmailNotification="ext:EmailNotification"> -- this way, we can have statements like: <p> Dear <xsl:value-of select="EmailNotification:get_FullName()" />: </p> The above works fine. I pass the object via code like this (some irrelevant code omitted for brevity): // purely an example structure public struct EmailNotification { public string FullName { get; set; } } // Somewhere in some method ... var notification = new Notification("John Smith"); // ... XsltArgumentList xslArgs = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArgs.AddExtensionObject("ext:EmailNotification", notification); // ... // The part where it breaks! (This is where we do the transformation) xslt.Transform(fakeXMLDocument.CreateNavigator(), xslArgs, XmlWriter.Create(transformedXMLString)); So, all of the above code works. However, I wanted to get a little fancy (always my downfall) and pass a collection, so that I could do something like this: <p>The following accounts need to be verified:</p> <xsl:for-each select="EmailNotification:get_SomeCollection()"> <ul> <li> <xsl:value-of select="@SomeAttribute" /> </li> </ul> <xsl:for-each> When I pass the collection in the extension object and attempt to transform, I get the following error: "Extension function parameters or return values which have Clr type 'String[]' are not supported." or List, or IEnumerable, or whatever I try to pass in. So, my questions are: How can I pass in a collection to my XSLT? What do I put for the xsl:value-of select="" inside the xsl:for-each ? Is what I am trying to do impossible?

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  • go programming POST FormValue can't be printed

    - by poor_programmer
    Before I being a bit of background, I am very new to go programming language. I am running go on Win 7, latest go package installer for windows. I'm not good at coding but I do like some challenge of learning a new language. I wanted to start learn Erlang but found go very interesting based on the GO I/O videos in youtube. I'm having problem with capturing POST form values in GO. I spend three hours yesterday to get go to print a POST form value in the browser and failed miserably. I don't know what I'm doing wrong, can anyone point me to the right direction? I can easily do this in another language like C#, PHP, VB, ASP, Rails etc. I have search the entire interweb and haven't found a working sample. Below is my sample code. Here is Index.html page {{ define "title" }}Homepage{{ end }} {{ define "content" }} <h1>My Homepage</h1> <p>Hello, and welcome to my homepage!</p> <form method="POST" action="/"> <p> Enter your name : <input type="text" name="username"> </P> <p> <button>Go</button> </form> <br /><br /> {{ end }} Here is the base page <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>{{ template "title" . }}</title> </head> <body> <section id="contents"> {{ template "content" . }} </section> <footer id="footer"> My homepage 2012 copy </footer> </body> </html> now some go code package main import ( "fmt" "http" "strings" "html/template" ) var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func GeneralHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { index.Execute(w, nil) if r.Method == "POST" { a := r.FormValue("username") fmt.Fprintf(w, "hi %s!",a); //<-- this variable does not rendered in the browser!!! } } func helloHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { remPartOfURL := r.URL.Path[len("/hello/"):] fmt.Fprintf(w, "Hello %s!", remPartOfURL) } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", GeneralHandler) http.HandleFunc("/hello/", helloHandler) http.ListenAndServe("localhost:81", nil) } Thanks! PS: Very tedious to add four space before every line of code in stackoverflow especially when you are copy pasting. Didn't find it very user friendly or is there an easier way?

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  • Linker Issues with boost::thread under linux using Eclipse and CMake

    - by OcularProgrammer
    I'm in the process of attempting to port some code across from PC to Ubuntu, and am having some issues due to limited experience developing under linux. We use CMake to generate all our build stuff. Under windows I'm making VS2010 projects, and under Linux I'm making Eclipse projects. I've managed to get my OpenCV stuff ported across successfully, but am having major headaches trying to port my threaded boost apps. Just so we're clear, the steps I have followed so-far on a clean Ubuntu 12 installation. (I've done 2 clean re-installs to try and fix potential library cock-ups, now I'm just giving up and asking): Install Eclipse and Eclipse CDT using my package manager Install CMake and CMake Gui using my package manager Install libboost-all-dev using my package manager So-far that's all I've done. I can create the eclipse project using CMake with no errors, so CMake is successfully finding my boost install. When I try and build through eclipse is when I get issues; The app I'm attempting to build uses boost::asio for some UDP I/O and boost::thread to create worker threads for the asio I/O services. I can successfully compile each module, but when I come to link I get spammed with errors such as: /usr/bin/c++ CMakeFiles/RE05DevelopmentDemo.dir/main.cpp.o CMakeFiles/RE05DevelopmentDemo.dir/RE05FusionListener/RE05FusionListener.cpp.o CMakeFiles/RE05DevelopmentDemo.dir/NewEye/NewEye.cpp.o -o RE05DevelopmentDemo -rdynamic -Wl,-Bstatic -lboost_system-mt -lboost_date_time-mt -lboost_regex-mt -lboost_thread-mt -Wl,-Bdynamic /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `void boost::call_once<void (*)()>(boost::once_flag&, void (*)()) [clone .constprop.98]': make[2]: Leaving directory `/home/david/Code/Build/Support/RE05DevDemo' (.text+0xc8): undefined reference to `pthread_key_create' /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `boost::this_thread::interruption_enabled()': (.text+0x540): undefined reference to `pthread_getspecific' make[1]: Leaving directory `/home/david/Code/Build/Support/RE05DevDemo' /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `boost::this_thread::disable_interruption::disable_interruption()': (.text+0x570): undefined reference to `pthread_getspecific' /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `boost::this_thread::disable_interruption::disable_interruption()': (.text+0x59f): undefined reference to `pthread_getspecific' Some Gotchas that I have collected from other StackOverflow posts and have already checked: The boost libs are all present at /usr/lib I am not getting any compile errors for inability to find the boost headers, so they must be getting found. I am trying to link statically, but I believe eclipse should be passing the correct arguments to make that happen since my CMakeLists.txt includes SET(Boost_USE_STATIC_LIBS ON) I'm officially out of ideas here, I have tried doing local builds of boost and a bunch of other stuff with no more success. I even re-installed Ubuntu to ensure I haven't completely fracked the libs directories and links with multiple weird versions or anything else. Any help would be muchly appreciated.

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  • c++ global operator not playing well with template class

    - by John
    ok, i found some similar posts on stackoverflow, but I couldn't find any that pertained to my exact situation and I was confused with some of the answers given. Ok, so here is my problem: I have a template matrix class as follows: template <typename T, size_t ROWS, size_t COLS> class Matrix { public: template<typename, size_t, size_t> friend class Matrix; Matrix( T init = T() ) : _matrix(ROWS, vector<T>(COLS, init)) { /*for( int i = 0; i < ROWS; i++ ) { _matrix[i] = new vector<T>( COLS, init ); }*/ } Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & operator+=( const T & value ) { for( vector<T>::size_type i = 0; i < this->_matrix.size(); i++ ) { for( vector<T>::size_type j = 0; j < this->_matrix[i].size(); j++ ) { this->_matrix[i][j] += value; } } return *this; } private: vector< vector<T> > _matrix; }; and I have the following global function template: template<typename T, size_t ROWS, size_t COLS> Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> operator+( const Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & lhs, const Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & rhs ) { Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> returnValue = lhs; return returnValue += lhs; } To me, this seems to be right. However, when I try to compile the code, I get the following error (thrown from the operator+ function): binary '+=' : no operator found which takes a right-hand operand of type 'const matrix::Matrix<T,ROWS,COLS>' (or there is no acceptable conversion) I can't figure out what to make of this. Any help if greatly appreciated!

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • JQuery Validation - Wrap offending field in a div.

    - by Samuurai
    Hi, It's my first time using StackOverFlow and first time trying to set up jQuery Validation. It's displaying <label> tags with the error messages as default behaviour, however the way my CSS is set up I need a div to wrap around the offending element and a message display in <p> tags. Without errors, my html looks like this: <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> And with Errors, it needs to look like this - Note the div with class "error" and the <p> tag. <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <div class="error"> <p>Please write your real name</p> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> </div> My Validation code is very basic. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#contact_form").validate({ rules:{ name: { required: true } } }); }); This is my first venture into jQuery and form validation, so I'll be the first to say "I'm lost!" any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • AnimationDrawable, when does it end?

    - by Syb
    I know there have been several people with the same question. Which is: How do i know when a frame by frame animation has ended? I have not had any useful answer on fora i visited. So i thought, let's see if they know at stackoverflow. But I could not sit still in the mean time, so i made a work around of this, but it does not really work the way i would like it to. here is the code: public class Main extends Activity { AnimationDrawable sybAnimation; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView imageView = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); imageView.setBackgroundResource(R.anim.testanimation); sybAnimation = (AnimationDrawable) imageView.getBackground(); imageView.post(new Starter()); } class Starter implements Runnable { public void run() { sybAnimation.start(); long totalDuration = 0; for(int i = 0; i< sybAnimation.getNumberOfFrames();i++){ totalDuration += sybAnimation.getDuration(i); } Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new AnimationFollowUpTimerTask(R.id.ImageView01, R.anim.testanimation_reverse),totalDuration); } } class AnimationFollowUpTimerTask extends TimerTask { private int id; private int animationToRunId; public AnimationFollowUpTimerTask(int idOfImageView, int animationXML){ id = idOfImageView; animationToRunId = animationXML; } @Override public void run() { ImageView imageView = (ImageView)findViewById(id); imageView.setBackgroundResource(animationToRunId); AnimationDrawable anim = (AnimationDrawable) imageView.getBackground(); anim.start(); } } basically I make a timertask which is scheduled with the same time as the animation to take. In that run() I want to load a new animation into the imageView and start that animation, this however does not work. Does anyone know how to get this to work, or even better, have a better way to find out when an AnimationDrawable has ended its animation?

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  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • Adding Insert Row in tableView

    - by user333624
    Hello everyone, I have a tableView that loads its data directly from a Core Data table with a NSFetchedResultsController. I'm not using an intermediate NSMutableArray to store the objects from the fetch results; I basically implemented inside my UITableViewController the protocol method numberOfRowsInSection and it returns the numberOfObjects inside a NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo. id <NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo> sectionInfo = [[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section]; and then I configure the cell content by implementing configureCell:atIndexPath and retrieving object info from the fetchedResultController but right now I have a generic configuration for any object (to avoid complications) cell.textLabel.text = @"categoria"; I also have a NavigationBar with a custom edit button at the right that loads my own selector called customSetEditing. What I'm trying to accomplish is to load an "Insert Cell" at the beginning of the tableView so when I tap it, it creates a new record. This last part is easy to implement the problem is that I dont's seem to be able to load the insert row or any row when I tap on the navigation bar edit button. this is the code for my customSetEditing: - (void) customSetEditing { [super setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [self.tableView setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [[self tableView] beginUpdates]; //[[self tableView] beginUpdates]; UIBarButtonItem *customDoneButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(customDone)]; [self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem release]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = customDoneButtonItem; //[categoriasArray insertObject:[NSNull null] atIndex:0]; NSMutableArray *indexPaths = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0],nil ]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:indexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; //[indexPaths release]; [self.tableView reloadData];} Before adding the:[self.tableView reloadData]; I was getting an out of bounds error plus a program crash and although the program is not crashing it is not loading anything. I have seen many examples of similar situations in stackoverflow (by the way is an excellent forum with very helpful and nice people) none of the examples seems to work for me. Any ideas?

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  • Struts2 form elements UI too rigid

    - by jscoot
    Hello, i found a similar problem like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2314296/struts2-form-elements but no answer is given until now. So here i post my difficulties with a vengeance. I am using Struts2 with version 2.1.6. When I leave the input elements such as <s:textfield>, <s:textarea>, etc. of a <s:form> with the default theme, the elements are rendered as: <tr> <td class="tdLabel"><label for="firstname" class="label">Firstname:</label></td> <td><input type="text" name="firstname" id="firstname"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="tdLabel"><label for="lastname" class="label">Lastname:</label></td> <td><input type="text" name="lastname" id="lastname"/></td> </tr> Now if i want to add something, say an html label, between the two elements, the result gets messed up as described in the related question above. Another problem is: for the <s:checkbox> item, it is just not possible to add an extra title. For example, this tag <s:checkbox id="defaultprinter" name="defaultprinter" key="lbl.defaultprinter"/> is rendered as: <tr> <td valign="top" align="right"></td> <td valign="top" align="left"> <input type="checkbox" name="defaultprinter" value="true" checked="checked" id="defaultprinter"/> <label for="defaultprinter" class="checkboxLabel">Default Printer</label> </td> </tr> By only setting the attributes of <s:checkbox>, i can't add any text to the first <td> shown above (here it is empty!). I don't know if the above rigid UI problems can be solved or there is any workarounds somewhere. Thanks in advance.

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS when simply casting a pointer in Obj-C

    - by AlexChilcott
    Hi all, Frequent visitor but first post here on StackOverflow, I'm hoping that you guys might be able to help me out with this. I'm fairly new to Obj-C and XCode, and I'm faced with this really... weird... problem. Googling hasn't turned up anything whatsoever. Basically, I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal on a line that doesn't do any dereferencing or anything like that that I can see. Wondering if you guys have any idea where to look for this. I've found a work around, but no idea why this works... The line the broken version barfs out on is the line: LevelEntity *le = entity; where I get my bad access signal. Here goes: THIS VERSION WORKS NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (PhysicsContact *contact in contacts) { PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } THIS VERSION DOESNT WORK NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < [contacts count]; i++) { PhysicsContact *contact = [contacts objectAtIndex:i]; PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } Here, the only difference between the two examples is the way I enumerate through my array. In the first version (which works) I use for (... in ...), where as in the second I use for (...; ...; ...). As far as I can see, these should be the same. This is seriously weirding me out. Anyone have any similar experience or idea whats going on here? Would be really great :) Cheers, Alex

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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • to write log files in two different files

    - by Sun
    my application run on customized client framework,the client framework used log4net to log their own log files. we are(our application) has to use the same log4net to log our log files in our own path(say our customized path). currently the our log files are created but log are not writing in that file.it is writting in the client framework log file. searched lot of sites the link http://stackoverflow.com/questions/308436/log4net-programmatcially-specify-multiple-loggers-with-multiple-file-appenders helped me to configure the log4net config programatically, still im log statemets are not written in my log file.the code used as below public class TraceLog { private string message = string.Empty; private static ILog ILogger = null; private static TraceLog instance = new TraceLog(); private TraceLog() { SetLevel("Log4net.MainForm", "ALL"); AddAppender("Log4net.MainForm", CreateFileAppender("FileAppender", "C:\\mylog.log")); } public static TraceLog Instance { get { return instance; } } public void Debug(string logMessage) { message = PrepareLog(logMessage); ILogger.Debug(message); } protected string PrepareLog(string logMessage) { string message = GetFileMethodLineNumberInfo(); message += logMessage; return message; } protected string GetFileMethodLineNumberInfo() { StackTrace stackTrace = new StackTrace(true); // The position 3 is relative to the index of the specified method StackFrame stackFrame = stackTrace.GetFrame(3); return (stackFrame.GetMethod().DeclaringType.Name + "/" + stackFrame.GetMethod().Name + "/" + stackFrame.GetFileLineNumber() + ":"); } private static void SetLevel(string loggerName, string levelName) { ILogger = LogManager.GetLogger(loggerName); log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger l = (log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger)ILogger.Logger; l.Level = l.Hierarchy.LevelMap[levelName]; } private static void AddAppender(string loggerName, IAppender appender) { ILogger = LogManager.GetLogger(loggerName); log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger l = (log4net.Repository.Hierarchy.Logger)ILogger.Logger; l.AddAppender(appender); } private static IAppender CreateFileAppender(string name, string fileName) { FileAppender appender = new FileAppender(); appender.Name = name; appender.File = fileName; appender.AppendToFile = true; //PatternLayout layout = new PatternLayout(); //layout.ConversionPattern = "%d [%t] %-5p %c [%x] - %m%n"; //layout.ActivateOptions(); //appender.Layout = layout; appender.ActivateOptions(); return appender; } } } anyone pls help how to solve this

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • Validate dependent model validation and show error message.

    - by piemesons
    Just taking a simple example. We have a question on stackoverflow and while posting a question we want to validate title_of_question, description_of_question that they should be present. Now we have a another model tag having habtm relationshio with question model. How to validate that while saving the question. Means question must have some tags. here the code:-- Models:-- class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_and_belongs_to_many :tags has_many :comments, :as => :commentable has_many :answers, :dependent => :destroy validates_presence_of :title, :content, :user_id end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :questions validates_presence_of :tag end Form for entering question and tag <div class="form"> <% form_for :question ,@question, :url => {:action => "create" } do |f| %> <fieldset> <%= f.error_messages %> <legend>Post a question</legend> <div> <%= f.label :title %>: <%= f.text_field :title, :size => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= f.label :content ,'Question' %>: <%= f.text_area :content, :rows => 10, :cols => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= label_tag 'tags' %>: <%= text_field_tag 'tag' ,'',:size=> 60 %> add multiple tag using comma </div> <div> <%= submit_tag "Post question" %> </div> </fieldset> <% end %> </div> From Controller.. (Right now question will be saved without validating tag) def create @question = Question.new(params[:question]) @question.user_id=session[:user_id] if @question.save flash[:notice] = "Question has been posted." redirect_to question_index_path else render :action => "new" end end questions_tags table has been created. One approach is creating a virtual column using attribute accessors. another approach is validate associated. right now assuming new tags can be created.(but not duplicate).

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  • IE7 and IE8: Float clearing without adding empty elements

    - by tk-421
    Hello, I'm having a problem similar to the one described here (without a resolution): http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2467745/ie7-float-and-clear-on-the-same-element The following HTML renders as intended in Firefox but not in (both) IE7 and IE8: <html> <head> <style> ul { list-style-type: none; } li { clear: both; padding: 5px; } .left { clear: left; float: left; } .middle { clear: none; float: left; } .right { clear: right; float: left; } </style> </head> <body> <ul> <li>1</li> <li class="left">2</li> <li class="right">3</li> <li class="left">4</li> <li class="middle">5</li> <li class="right">6</li> <li>7</li> </ul> </body> </html> This is a form layout, and in Firefox the results appear like: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 That's what I'm going for. In IE7 and IE8 however, the results are: 1 2 3 5 6 4 7 [Note: I don't want to float anything to the right because I want the fields on my form to left-align correctly, without a giant space in-between the floated fields to account for the parent container's width.] Apparently I need a full clear, and can probably add an empty list-item element to the list to force clearing, but that seems like a dumb solution and sort of defeats the purpose. Any ideas? I've spent a few hours reading and trying different options without success.

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