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• DataGridView: Scroll bar does not refreshed

  - by David.Chu.ca

  I am working (fixing bugs) on a project which was written in VS 2005. There is one DataGridView control on a form. When it is first time loaded, the control's data grid is populated with rows of data from a collection manually or in codes. Actually, there is method PopulateDataGrid() do the job. There is also another control on the form. When control is changed, the data grid will be cleared first and then rows are repopulated again through PopulateDataGrid(). The problem is that when the grid is refreshed, the vertical scroll bar does not get reset correctly. I thought it should be. Since the scroll bar is not reset, when I tried to click on grid and move down, I got exception: the max value of scroll bar was exceeded. All the settings for grid control are default values. For example, the ScrollBars is Both. The following is the only related place to set row auto size property: poDataGridView.AutoSizeRowsMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeRowsMode.DisplayedCellsExceptHeaders; I am not sure if there is any property I have to set in designer?

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• Don't serealize a especific data member , but DESEREALIZE, any chance???

  - by CrazyJoe

  Im using DataContractJsonSerializer to serealize this class: public class User { public string id { get; set; } public string name { get; set; } public string password { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public bool is_broker { get; set; } public string branch_id { get; set; } public string created_at { get; set; } public string updated_at { get; set; } public UserGroup UserGroup {get;set;} public UserAddress UserAddress { get; set; } public List<UserContact> UserContact {get; set;} public User() { UserGroup = new UserGroup(); UserAddress = new UserAddress(); UserContact = new List<UserContact>(); } } The question is when i serealize to json , the property UserGroup is serealized, but i dont need this, i like to serealize to json whitout UserGroup property. Obs: When Deserealize it´s all fine to have UserGroup, i need that!! Any Trick ?????? Thanks!!!

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• navigate all items in a wpf tree view

  - by Brian Leahy

  I want to be able to traverse the visual ui tree looking for an element with an ID bound to the visual element's Tag property. I'm wondering how i do this. Controls don't have children to traverse. I started using LogicalTreeHelper.GetChildren, which seems to work as intended, up until i hit a TreeView control... then LogicalTreeHelper.GetChildren doesnt return any children. Note: the purpose is to find the visual UI element that corresponds to the data item. That is, given an ID of the item, Go find the UI element displaying it. Edit: I am apparently am not explaining this well enough. I am binding some data objects to a TreeView control and then wanting to select a specific item programaticly given that business object's ID. I dont see why it's so hard to travers the visual tree and find the element i want, as the data object's ID is in the Tag property of the appropriate visual element. I'm using Mole and I am able to find the UI element with the appropriate ID in it's Tag. I just cannot find the visual element in code. LogicalTreeHelper does not traverse any items in the tree. Neither does ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem retrieve anything for items in the tree view.

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• Stuggling with webkit-transition in javascript

  - by Mungbeans

  I've tried a few variations of using webkit-transition that I've found from googling but I've not been able to get any to work. I have some audio controls that I make appear on a click event, they appear suddenly and jerky so I want to fade them in. The target browser is iOS so I am trying webkit extensions. This is what I currently have: <div id = "controls"> <audio id = "audio" controls></audio> </div> #controls { position:absolute; top: 35px; left:73px; height: 20px; width: 180px; display:none; } #audio { opacity:0.0; } audio.src = clip; audio.addEventListener('pause', onPauseOrStop, false); audio.addEventListener('ended', onPauseOrStop, false); audio.play(); audioControls.style.display = 'block'; audio.style.setProperty("-webkit-transition", "opacity 0.4s"); audio.style.opacity = 0.7; The documentation for webkit-transition says it takes effect on a change in the property, so I was assuming changing style.opacity in the last line would kick it off. The controls appear with an opacity of 0.7 but I want it to fade in and that animation isn't happening. I also tried this: #audio { opacity:0.0; -webkit-transition-property: opacity; -webkit-transition-duration: 1s; -webkit-timing-function: ease-in; } Also tried audio.style.webkitTransition = "opacity 1.4s"; from this posting How to set CSS3 transition using javascript? I can't get anything to work, I'm testing on iOS, Safari desktop and Chrome. Same non result on all of them.

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• How to avoid hard-coded credentials in Sharepoint webpart?

  - by Bryan

  I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users, but can only be modified by admins. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, the source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credentials. In normal ASP.net applications, credentials can be written into web.config and encrypted. A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. There is a application-level .config file for the whole sharepoint site, but I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve the credential problem? Say we provide a WebBrowsable property of that web part so that privileged users can modify credentials. If this is desirable, how should I make the property displayed in a password ("*") rather than in plain text? Thanks.

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• Facebook SSO authorize in safari but not in facebook app

  - by Pedro Calero

  My problem: I has developed an app with Facebook SSO in my iPhone/iPad. It was working OK. But I have changed the certificate of my app (so now it has new app ID). I also have changed the "iOS pack ID" property in Facebook: I deleted the old app ID and I added the new one. But now my app doesn't do the Facebook SSO when Facebook app is installed. It does it OK when Facebook app is not installed and it uses Safari. I have read this question and this question that say the problem is the "iOS pack ID" and app ID don't match. I have checked it a lot of times, and it is the same. I have put the old app ID in the "iOS pack ID" property of Facebook, but it still doesn't work. I don't know if Facebook take a time to check if my app ID is valid, and how they show the result. I have been a lot of time with this issue. It seem like the problem is the iOS pack ID is not exactly the app ID, but it is not the problem: they are exactly the same. Thank you very much.

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• Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

  - by Tyrel Van Niekerk

  I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

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• How do I correcly handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous?

  - by RWC

  In my code I try to handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous. The line unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; throws an InvalidOperationException with message "EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type Ambiguous". I have no clue how I should handle it. Can you give me an example? This is what my code looks like: public Instant getInstant(int year, int month, int day, int hour, int minute) { var localDateTime = new LocalDateTime(year, month, day, hour, minute); //invalidated, might be not existing var timezone = DateTimeZone.ForId(TimeZoneId); //TimeZone is set elsewhere, example "Brazil/East" var localDateTimeMapping = timezone.MapLocalDateTime(localDateTime); ZonedDateTime unambiguousLocalDateTime; switch (localDateTimeMapping.Type) { case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Unambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.UnambiguousMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Skipped: unambiguousLocalDateTime = new ZonedDateTime(localDateTimeMapping.ZoneIntervalAfterTransition.Start, timezone); break; default: throw new InvalidOperationException(string.Format("Unexpected mapping result type: {0}", localDateTimeMapping.Type)); } return unambiguousLocalDateTime.ToInstant(); } If I look at class ZoneLocalMapping I see the following code: /// <summary> /// In an ambiguous mapping, returns the earlier of the two ZonedDateTimes which map to the original LocalDateTime. /// </summary> /// <exception cref="InvalidOperationException">The mapping isn't ambiguous.</exception> public virtual ZonedDateTime EarlierMapping { get { throw new InvalidOperationException("EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type " + type); } } That's why I am receiving the exception, but what should I do to get the EarlierMapping?

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• shell script filter du and find by a string inside a file in a subfolder

  - by Jason

  I have the following command that I run on cygwin: find /cygdrive/d/tmp/* -maxdepth 0 -mtime -150 -type d | xargs du --max-depth=0 > foldersizesreport.csv I intended to do the following with this command: for each folder under /d/tmp/ that was modified in last 150 days, check its total size including files within it and report it to file foldersizesreport.csv however that is now not good enough for me, as it turns out inside each /d/tmp/subfolder1/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder2/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder3/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder4/somefile.properties so as you see inside each subfolderX there is a file named somefile.properties inside it there is a property SOMEPROPKEY=3808612800100 (among other properties) this is the time in millisecond, i need to change the command so that instead of -mtime -150 it will include in the whole calculation only subfolderX that has a file inside them somefile.properties where the SOMEPROPKEY=3808612800100 is the time in millisecond in future, if the value SOMEPROPKEY=23948948 is in past then dont at all include the folder in the foldersizesreport.csv because its not relevant to me. so the result report should be looking like: /d/tmp/,subfolder1,<itssizein KB> /d/tmp/,subfolder2,<itssizein KB> and if subfolder3 had a SOMEPROPKEY=34243234 (time in ms in past) then it would not be in that csv file. so basically I'm looking for: find /cygdrive/d/tmp/* -maxdepth 0 -mtime -150 -type d | <only subfolders that have in them property in file SOMEPROPKEY=28374874827 - time in ms in future and not in past | xargs du --max-depth=0 > foldersizesreport.csv

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• DDSteps date question.

  - by Srini

  DDStep Date Question: Currently trying to pass just the date from excel. But getting the below error while doing it. Failed to convert property value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [java.util.Date] for property ...no matching editors or conversion strategy found spring for date conversion I even tried to add customEditorConfigurer in the ddsteps-context file. Still getting error. But in their pet store example looks like it works fine. Any help is appreciated. <entry key="java.util.Date"> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.propertyeditors.CustomDateEditor"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="java.text.SimpleDateFormat"> <constructor-arg value="yyyy-MM-dd" /> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg value="false" /> </bean> </entry>

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• Best way to transfer an Entity Framework object over the web and back via JSON

  - by AVH

  I've got some MVC code that serializes an EF 3.5 object into an anonymous type for return as a JSON result to an AJAX call on my page. The hurdle I have is that when I send the object back to the server via JSON, (and let the ModelBinder deserialize it for me into my EF type), I have to update it in my Entity Framework context manually. Or at least that's what I'm doing now. It has no EntityKey, so attaching it fails. I end up having to look up the old object and update it property by property. Any ideas around this? Is the solution to pass the EntityKey around with my object? Here's what I have: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { var albumToUpdate = db.Album.First(x => x.ID == album.ID); albumToUpdate.AlbumTitle = album.AlbumTitle; albumToUpdate.Description = album.Description; albumToUpdate.ReleaseYear = album.ReleaseYear; albumToUpdate.ImageURL = album.ImageURL; albumToUpdate.OtherURL = album.OtherURL; db.SaveChanges(); } } And here's what I'd like to do, or something similar: public void Update(Album album) { using (var db = new BandSitesMasterEntities()) { db.Attach(album) db.SaveChanges(); } }

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• Strange JPA one-to-many behavior when trying to set the "many" on the "one" entity

  - by errr

  I've mapped two entities using JPA (specifically Hibernate). Those entities have a one-to-many relationship (I've simplified for presentation): @Entity public class A { @ManyToOne public B getB() { return b; } } @Entity public Class B { @OneToMany(mappedBy="b") public Set<A> getAs() { return as; } } Now, I'm trying to create a relationship between two instances of these entities by using the setter of the one-side/not-owner-side of the relationship (i.e the table being referenced to): em.getTransaction().begin(); A a = new A(); B b = new B(); Set<A> as = new HashSet<A>(); as.add(a); b.setAs(as); em.persist(a); em.persist(b); em.getTransaction().commit(); But then, the relationship isn't persisted to the DB (the row created for entity A isn't referencing the row created for entity B). Why is it so? I'd excpect it to work. Also, if I remove the "mappedBy" property from the @OneToMany annotation it will work. Again - why is it so? and what are the possible effects for removing the "mappedBy" property?

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• Using EhCache for session.createCriteria(...).list()

  - by James Smith

  I'm benchmarking the performance gains from using a 2nd level cache in Hibernate (enabling EhCache), but it doesn't seem to improve performance. In fact, the time to perform the query slightly increases. The query is: session.createCriteria(MyEntity.class).list(); The entity is: @Entity @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.NONSTRICT_READ_WRITE) public class MyEntity { @Id @GeneratedValue private long id; @Column(length=5000) private String data; //---SNIP getters and setters--- } My hibernate.cfg.xml is: <!-- all the normal stuff to get it to connect & map the entities plus:--> <property name="hibernate.cache.region.factory_class"> net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheRegionFactory </property> The MyEntity table contains about 2000 rows. The problem is that before adding in the cache, the query above to list all entities took an average of 65 ms. After the cache, they take an average of 74 ms. Is there something I'm missing? Is there something extra that needs to be done that will increase performance?

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• Dependency Properties, change notification and setting values in the constructor

  - by stefan.at.wpf

  Hello, I have a clas with 3 dependency properties A,B,C. The values of these properties are set by the constructor and every time one of the properties A, B or C changes, the method recalculate() is called. Now during execution of the constructor these method is called 3 times, because the 3 properties A, B, C are changed. Hoewever this isn't necessary as the method recalculate() can't do anything really useful without all 3 properties set. So what's the best way for property change notification but circumventing this change notification in the constructor? I thought about adding the property changed notification in the constructor, but then each object of the DPChangeSample class would always add more and more change notifications. Thanks for any hint! class DPChangeSample : DependencyObject { public static DependencyProperty AProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("A", typeof(int), typeof(DPChangeSample), new PropertyMetadata(propertyChanged)); public static DependencyProperty BProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("B", typeof(int), typeof(DPChangeSample), new PropertyMetadata(propertyChanged)); public static DependencyProperty CProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("C", typeof(int), typeof(DPChangeSample), new PropertyMetadata(propertyChanged)); private static void propertyChanged(DependencyObject d, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { ((DPChangeSample)d).recalculate(); } private void recalculate() { // Using A, B, C do some cpu intensive caluclations } public DPChangeSample(int a, int b, int c) { SetValue(AProperty, a); SetValue(BProperty, b); SetValue(CProperty, c); } }

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• C++ converting back and forth from derived and base classes

  - by user127817

  I was wondering if there is a way in C++ to accomplish the following: I have a base class called ResultBase and two class that are Derived from it, Variable and Expression. I have a few methods that do work on vector<ResultBase> . I want to be able to pass in vectors of Variable and Expression into these methods. I can achieve this by creating a vector<ResultBase> and using static_cast to fill it with the members from my vector of Variable/Expression. However, once the vector has run through the methods, I want to be able to get it back as the vector of Result/Expression. I'll know for sure which one I want back. static_cast won't work here as there isn't a method to reconstruct a Variable/Expression from a ResultBase, and more importantly I wouldn't have the original properties of the Variables/Expressions The methods modify some of the properties of the ResultBase and I need those changes to be reflected in the original vectors. (i.e. ResultBase has a property called IsLive, and one of the methods will modify this property. I want this IsLive value to be reflected in the derived class used to create the ResultBase Whats the easiest way to accomplish this?

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• Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

  - by pancake

  I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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• Regarding the ViewModel

  - by mizipzor

  Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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• I need help understanding how this jQuery filter function works, line-by-line, if possible

  - by user717236

  Here is the HTML: <div> <h3>text</h3> </div> <div> <h3>moretext</h3> </div> <div> <h3>123</h3> </div>?????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????? Here is the JS: var rv1_wlength = $("div").filter(function() { return $(this).find("h3").filter(function () { return $(this).text() != "123"; }).length; }); var rv1_wolength = $("div").filter(function() { return $(this).find("h3").filter(function () { return $(this).text() != "123"; }); }); var rv2 = $("div").find("h3").filter(function() { return $(this).text() != "123"; }); alert(rv1_wlength.text()); // text // moretext alert(rv1_wolength.text()); // text // moretext // 123 alert(rv2.text());? // textmoretext I don't understand why the first two methods print the elements on each line, whereas the second method concatenates them. "rv2" is a jQuery object. Then, what are the first two (rv1_wlength and rv1_wolength)? Furthermore, I don't understand why the inclusion of the length property makes all the difference in filtering the elements. The second method does nothing, since it returns all the elements. The first method, with the only change being the addition of the length property, correctly filters the elements. I would very much like a line-by-line explanation. I would sincerely appreciate any feedback. Thank you.

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• HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

  - by Steven Huwig

  I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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• How do I make custom functions chain-able with jQuery's?

  - by sergio

  I need a "callfront" or "precall" (the opposite of "callback" ¿?) to add in MANY places before an animation occurs in an existing plugin, To be used like e.g. $(some_unpredictable_obj).preFunct().animate(… The problem is, as I said they are MANY places, and all of them are different animations, on different objects. I can TELL where all of them occur, but I don't want to add over and over the same code. I actually have to add both a function before and after those animations, but I think I can use the callback for all of them. In a perfect world, I'd like to replace every animate(property, duration) by preFunct().animate(property,duration).postFunct() preFunct and postFunct don't need parameters, since they are always the same action, on the same object. This could be an amazing addition to "jQuery" (an easy way to jQuerize custom functions to be added to the normal chain (without messing with queues) I found this example but it will act on the applied element, and I don't want that because, as I said above, all the original animations to be added to are on different elements. I also found jQuery.timing, but it looks cooler the chain-able function :) Thanks.

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• Deserialize xml which uses attribute name/value pairs

  - by Bodyloss

  My application receives a constant stream of xml files which are more or less a direct copy of the database record <record type="update"> <field name="id">987654321</field> <field name="user_id">4321</field> <field name="updated">2011-11-24 13:43:23</field> </record> And I need to deserialize this into a class which provides nullable property's for all columns class Record { public long? Id { get; set; } public long? UserId { get; set; } public DateTime? Updated { get; set; } } I just cant seem to work out a method of doing this without having to parse the xml file manually and switch on the field's name attribute to store the values. Is their a way this can be achieved quickly using an XmlSerializer? And if not is their a more efficient way of parsing it manually? Regards and thanks My main problem is that the attribute name needs to have its value set to a property name and its value as the contents of a <field>..</field> element

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• How to implement conditional render in JS?

  - by mare

  Below is the JS (jQuery) code of autocomplete's result function. You can see there's some lines where I print out <li>s containing some data properties (that come in as a result of automcomplete's AJAX call). How could I rewrite this so that <li> would be conditionally rendered based on whether the property contains any value being either int or string (not empty string or whitespace) or something else that can be represented as string? $(".clients-dropdown").result(function (event, data, formatted) { if (data) { // set the hidden input that we need for Client entity rematerialize $(".client-id").val(data.client_id); if (data.ClientName && data.Address1 && data.postalcode && data.postname) { $(".client-address").html( "<li>" + data.ClientName + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Address1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.postalcode + " " + data.postname + "</li>" ); $(".client-details").html( "<li>" + data.PrettyId + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.VatNo + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Phone + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Mobile + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Email1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Contact + "</li>" ); } } Also, for the AJAX call, should my server side action return null when there's a null for a property in the database or empty string?

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• Exception when retrieving record using Nhibernate

  - by Muhammad Akhtar

  I am new to NHibernate and have just started right now. I have very simple table contain Id(Int primary key and auto incremented), Name(varchar(100)), Description(varchar(100)) Here is my XML <class name="DevelopmentStep" table="DevelopmentSteps" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> <property name="Description" column="Description" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> here is how I want to get all the record public List<DevelopmentStep> getDevelopmentSteps() { List<DevelopmentStep> developmentStep; developmentStep = Repository.FindAll<DevelopmentStep>(new OrderBy("Name", Order.Asc)); return developmentStep; } But I am getting exception The element 'id' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has incomplete content. List of possible elements expected: 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:meta urn:nhibernate-mapping- 2.2:column urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:generator'. Please Advise me --- Thanks

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• What Getters and Setters should and shouldn't do.

  - by cyclotis04

  I've run into a lot of differing opinions on Getters and Setters lately, so I figured I should make it into it's own question. A previous question of mine received an immediate comment (later deleted) that stated setters shouldn't have any side effects, and a SetProperty method would be a better choice. Indeed, this seems to be Microsoft's opinion as well. However, their properties often raise events, such as Resized when a form's Width or Height property is set. OwenP also states "you shouldn't let a property throw exceptions, properties shouldn't have side effects, order shouldn't matter, and properties should return relatively quickly." Yet Michael Stum states that exceptions should be thrown while validating data within a setter. If your setter doesn't throw an exception, how could you effectively validate data, as so many of the answers to this question suggest? What about when you need to raise an event, like nearly all of Microsoft's Control's do? Aren't you then at the mercy of whomever subscribed to your event? If their handler performs a massive amount of information, or throws an error itself, what happens to your setter? Finally, what about lazy loading within the getter? This too could violate the previous guidelines. What is acceptable to place in a getter or setter, and what should be kept in only accessor methods?

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• WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

  - by Marks

  Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

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