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  • Debugging PHP in Aptana 2.0

    - by Nick Lowman
    I'm a real newbie when it comes to PHP debugging so forgive my stupidity. I have a simple html form that submits to a PHP script and I want to debug that script and see what's being sent from the form. My Aptana has two two PHP interpreters installed; Zend Debugger on port 10001 and XDebug on 9000 I have the Firefox Aptana Addon installed I have my HTML page on the following url, running locally; http://3i/latest.html In the IDE I open the PHP script and add some breakpoints, I then open the latest.html and I click on the debug button. It launches the HTML page in a local webserver running at; http://127.0.0.1:8000/3i/latest.html I then fill out the form and submit at which point the debugger tells me the JS Debugger has terminated but it doesn't stop at my break points. I've had a good read around and I can't find anything which helps me, which makes me think it's something pretty easy and I'm being a bit dumb.

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  • Best data recovery tools?

    - by Nonick
    So due to a recent act of stupidity and bravado, I uttered the words "backups! who needs backups?!" and what followed was the tragic loss of 260gb of data. This scenario in particular is requiring me to recover a repartitioned hard disk, but I was wondering what tools people here use in general to recover lost data. I'm sure everyone has been there, either accidentally rewriting files, resaving an old version, computer crash, hard disk death, user deletes an important document etc. So was thinking it might be an interesting point of discussion as to what you guys use to recover lost data. I appologise if this is considered irrelevant, but considering there has been a few recovery questions, I think this might be interesting.

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  • What do you do when you encounter an idiotic interview question?

    - by Senthil
    I was interviewing with a "too proud of my java skills"-looking person. He asked me "What is your knowledge on Java IO classes.. say.. hash maps?" He asked me to write a piece of java code on paper - instantiate a class and call one of the instance's methods. When I was done, he said my program wouldn't run. After 5 minutes of serious thinking, I gave up and asked why. He said I didn't write a main function so it wouldn't run. ON PAPER. [I am too furious to continue with the stupidity...] Believe me it wasn't trick questions or a psychic or anger management evaluation thing. I can tell from his face, he was proud of these questions. That "developer" was supposed to "judge" the candidates. I can think of several things: Hit him with a chair (which I so desperately wanted to) and walk out. Simply walk out. Ridicule him saying he didn't make sense. Politely let him know that he didn't make sense and go on to try and answer the questions. Don't tell him anything, but simply go on to try and answer the questions. So far, I have tried just 4 and 5. It hasn't helped. Unfortunately many candidates seem to do the same and remain polite but this lets these kind of "developers" just keep ascending up the corporate ladder, gradually getting the capacity to pi** off more and more people. How do you handle these interviewers without bursting your veins? What is the proper way to handle this, yet maintain your reputation if other potential employers were to ever get to know what happened here? Is there anything you can do or should you even try to fix this? P.S. Let me admit that my anger has been amplified many times by the facts: He was smiling like you wouldn't believe. I got so many (20 or so) calls from that company the day before, asking me to come to the interview, that I couldn't do any work that day. I wasted a paid day off.

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  • Nginx unknown limit_req_zone

    - by Kayle
    Nginx currently will not start due to the error mentioned in the title. Here's the actual error I'm getting: $ sudo /etc/init.d/nginx restart Restarting nginx: nginx: [emerg] unknown limit_req_zone "one" in /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/www.myhashimotosthyroiditis.com:15 nginx: configuration file /etc/nginx/nginx.conf test failed And this is immediately following creating the VM in question (www.myhashimotosthyroiditis.com), using a template I found here that was supposedly the "out-of-the-box-for-lazy-people" templates. I'm very new to Nginx and I could not find any helpful information via google or searching here, so I beg my pardon if this is a product of stupidity. Here is the entirety of the VM file: server { listen 80; server_name myhashimotosthyroiditis.com www.myhashimotosthyroiditis.com; root /var/www/myhashimotosthyroiditis; access_log /var/log/nginx/myhashimotosthyroiditis.access.log; error_log /var/log/nginx/myhashimotosthyroiditis.error.log; location / { try_files $uri $uri/ /index.php; } location /search { limit_req zone=one burst=3 nodelay; rewrite ^ /index.php; } fastcgi_intercept_errors off; location ~* \.(?:ico|css|js|gif|jpe?g|png)$ { expires max; add_header Pragma public; add_header Cache-Control "public, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate"; } include php.conf; # You may want to remove the robots line from drop to use a virtual robots.txt # or create a drop_wp.conf tailored to the needs of the wordpress configuration include drop.conf; }

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  • Should I keep my ex-employer's data?

    - by Jurily
    Following my brief reign as System Monkey, I am now faced with a dilemma: I did successfully create a backup and a test VM, both on my laptop, as no computer at work had enough free disk space. I didn't delete the backup yet, as it's still the only one of its kind in the company's history. The original is running on a hard drive in continuous use since 2006. There is now only one person left at the company, who knows what a backup is, and they're unlikely to hire someone else, for reasons very closely related to my departure. Last time I tried to talk to them about the importance of backups, they thought I was threatening them. Should I keep it? Pros: I get to save people from their own stupidity (the unofficial sysadmin motto, as far as I know) I get to say "I told you so" when they come begging for help, and feel good about it I get to say nice things about myself on my next job interview Nice clean conscience Bonus rep with the appropriate deities Cons: Legal problems: even if I do help them out with it, they might just sue me for keeping it anyway, although given the circumstances I think I have a good case Legal problems: given the nature of the job and their security, if something leaks, I'm a likely target for retaliation Legal problems: whatever else I didn't think about I need more space for porn. Legal problems. What would you do?

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  • Deploy our own software using Puppet?

    - by Ken
    (Apologies in advance for the stupidity in this question. I'm normally a programmer, not a sysadmin, but I've taken it upon myself to automate some things, and clean up some other things which are automated but not in the prettiest way. :-) I've been looking around at various tools for automation of software deployment to a bunch of servers, like cfengine, Puppet, and Chef. So far, Puppet looks the most appealing, but I've certainly not committed to anything yet. These tools all look like they can do a great job of keeping a bunch of servers up-to-date with prepackaged software. What I don't get is: how does one use a tool (like Puppet) to manage deployments of our own internal software? I think I'm at a loss because I've seen a thousand tutorials showing how to keep Apache ensure => latest (which is pretty cool), but nothing that quite corresponds to my use-case today, which is something more like: when a human being pushes The Button, pull branch A from the version-control repository B run command C to compile it copy the binaries D to servers E1 through E10 on each server, run command F to make all changes take effect Puppet sounds great, and I totally see the advantage of declarative, idempotent configuration over some shell scripts, but I've not seen any tutorials for "you want to update your shell scripts to Puppet (or Chef, or cfengine) so here's what you should do". Is there such a thing? Is it obvious to other people how to take the things provided in the Puppet docs and replicate the behavior I want? Am I just not getting it? What it's sounding like to me, so far, is that the human being (#1) would manually package the software (#2 and #3) external to Puppet, manually update the Puppet config, which would trigger Puppet to update the servers ... maybe? (I'm a little confused here, as I'm sure you can tell.) Thanks!

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  • Recover file from NTFS after it was formatted twice

    - by Phil
    I'm running Linux Mint and have a 2TB drive that I formatted as NTFS. I copied ~120GB of files from another computer to the 2TB drive, removing the files from the other computer as I did so. When they were all on the 2TB drive, I zipped them up as file "Gold.tar.gz". Then I reformatted the 2TB drive as ext3 in a moment of absolute stupidity. I formatted the 2TB back to NTFS, but of course everything is gone. Here is what I have tried: TestDisk -- won't find any lost partitions or undelete files, just the current empty one PhotoRec -- seems to only find some broken text files and misidentify their extensions. It never finds the 100's of avi files I had (before the 120GB copy, I already had 750GB on the drive full of avi files) or anything else that would show me it's working properly. Using dd I recovered the first 512MB of the drive and went hunting through it. I found all of the file as MFT entries, including the file "Gold.tar.gz" in a 2048 byte MFT record. I'm looking now for some way of either (1) telling PhotoRec to look at that record, or (2) analyze the MFT record myself and discover the sectors holding the data; I can piece it all together using dd and join the binary output if it's fragmented. One last thing - from the moment I got this drive a few days ago to the incident, there were only file copies made to it and no deletes. I formatted as NTFS, then copied thousands of files, then made a tar.gz, then reformatted to ext3, then reformatted to NTFS again. I'm hoping that the size of the drive and fact that there was no file modification/deleting happening makes for minimal file fragmentation.

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  • and the winner is Google Chrome

    - by anirudha
    Browser war really still uncompleted but here i tell that Why Google chrome better. 1. Easy to install:- as IE 9 Google chrome not force user to purchase a new OS. the chrome have a facelity that they install in minutes then less then other just like Firefox a another competitor or bloody fool  IE 9. 2. Easy to test: if you want to test their beta that’s no problem as well as Firefox. if user use Firefox 4 beta that they found that they can’t use many good plugin such as a big list the Web Developer tool and many other are one of them. in Chrome beta they provide you more then the last official release of chrome. 3. Google chrome Sync:-  i myself used  sync inside Firefox but nothing i found good and from a long time i feel nothing good and any feature in Firefox sync. but in google chrome their sync system is much better. When user login for sync in chrome they install everything and get back the user every settings they set the last time such as apps, autofill, bookmark ,extensions preference and theme. if you want to check bookmark from other browser that you can use google docs because google provided their bookmark backup in their docs account they have. performance:- after testing a website i found that a website open in 36 seconds in Firefox that Google chrome open them in 10 seconds. i found a interesting thing that when i test offline in IE 8 they show me in one or two seconds. i wonder how it’s possible after a long puzzle i found that IE was integrated software from Microsoft that the both software Visual studio and IE was integrated with windows. if user  test javascript in IE that the error they find show in visual studio not in IE as well as other software like chrome and IE. chrome not have a vast range of plugin as well as firefox so developer spent less time on chrome that would be a problem of future of chrome. interface comparison : the chrome have a common but user friendly interface then the user easily can use them. are you watching menu in Firefox 4. they make them complex as well as whole software IE 9. IE developer team thing that they can make everything fool by making a slogan HTML 5 inside IE. if anyone want to open a page in IE 9 that they show after some second. some time they show page not found even site is not gone wrong. when anyone want to use IE 9 developer tool that they thing that “ are this really  a developer tool ? ”. yeah they not make them for human as well as Firebug working team make firebug inside Firefox. they thing that how they can make public fool. Are you see that if you want to install Visual studio they force you to install sql server even you use other database system. a big stupidity of their tool can be found here today we hear that they Microsoft launched silverlight 5. are you know how Microsoft make silverlight yeah he copycat the idea of Adobe and their product Adobe Flash. that’s a other matter we can use .Net language instead of actionscript , lingo or shockwave.

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  • Delphi SAPI Text-To-Speech

    - by Andreas Rejbrand
    First of all: this is not a duplicate of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1021490/delphi-and-sapi. I have a specific problem with the "SAPI in Delphi" subject. I have used the excellent Import Type-Library guide in Delphi 2009 to get a TSpVoice component in the component palette. This works great. With var SpVoice: TSpVoice; I can write SpVoice.Speak('This is an example.', 1); to get asynchronous audio output. First question According to the documentation, I would be able to write SpVoice.Speak('This is an example.', 0); to get synchronous audio output, but instead I get an EZeroDivide exception. Why's that? Second question But more importantly, I would like to be able to create the SpVoice object dynamically (I think this is called to "late-bound" the SpVoice object), partly because only a very small fraction of all sessions of my app will use it, and partly because I do not want to assume the existance of the SAPI server on the end-user's system. To this end, I tried procedure TForm1.FormClick(Sender: TObject); var SpVoice: Variant; begin SpVoice := CreateOleObject('SAPI.SpVoice'); SpVoice.Speak('this is a test', 0); end; which apparently does nothing at all! (Replacing the 0 with 1 gives me the EZeroDivide exception.) Disclaimer I am rather new to COM/OLE automation. I am sorry for any ignorance or stupidity shown by me in this post...

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  • Trying to build a Drupal-like CMS in ASP.NET MVC - Newbie Questions

    - by user252160
    I am new to ASP.NET MVC, and the ASP.NET technology in general, so, please, excuse the stupidity of my questions. I have a lot of experience with php development and CMS customization (Drupal and Wordpress mainly), and I wanted to know whether some techniques could be applied in asp.net mvc. I want to know what exactly could be modified without recompiling an already built application Can I edit the views without recompiling the app. Can I create custom themes ? Can I add plugins compiled as dlls and use them at runtime. Can I "mark" the assembly in such a way that the web application will check on the next request and will reference it, without me manually adding it to the project and recompiling. I've heard that this is possible. I will make sure to add more when something comes up. The reason I am asking is because I'd like to try and develop a Drupal-like CMS (custom types, views, etc) in asp.net mvc. The dynamism of php will be quite a challenge to replicate in a compiled technology, yet I am ready to try.

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  • C++ Swig Python (Embedded Python in C++) works in Release but not in Debug

    - by sambha
    Platform: Windows 7, 64 bit (x64), Visual Studio 2008 I chose Python & Swig binding as the scripting environment of the application. As a prototype, created a simple VS solution with main() which initializes Python (Py_Initalize, Py_setPyHome, etc) & executes test.py. In the same solution created another project which is a DLL of a simple class. Used SWIG to wrap this class. This DLL is the _MyClasses.pyd. test.py creates the objects of my class & calls its member functions. All this works like a charm in the Release mode. But does not work in Debug mode (even tried banging my head on the laptop ;-) ). Output of my work looks like this (in both release & debug): x64 -debug - _MyClasses.pyd - MyClasses.py - test.exe - test.py - python26.dll - python26_d.dll Note that the debug version is linked against python26_d.lib. Had to build python myself for this! test.py import MyClasses print "ello" m = MyClasses.Male("John Doe", 25) print m.getType() Male is the C++ class. The problem: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 6, in <module> import MyClasses File "...\x64\Debug\MyClasses.py", line 25, in <module> _MyClasses = swig_import_helper() File "...\x64\Debug\MyClasses.py", line 17, in swig_imp ort_helper import _MyClasses ImportError: No module named _MyClasses [15454 refs] I am used to Makefiles & am new to Visual Studio. I dont know who the culprit is here: Swig, The debug build of Python, Visual Studio, my stupidity. Thank you in advance. It will be a great help.

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  • F# Class with Generics : 'constructor deprecated' error

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to create a a class that will store a time series of data - organized by groups, but I had some compile errors so I stripped down to the basics (just a simple instantiation) and still can't overcome the compile error. I was hoping some one may have seen this issue before. Clas is defined as: type TimeSeriesQueue<'V, 'K when 'K: comparison> = class val private m_daysInCache: int val private m_cache: Map<'K, 'V list ref > ref; val private m_getKey: ('V -> 'K) ; private new(getKey) = { m_cache = ref Map.empty m_daysInCache = 7 ; m_getKey = getKey ; } end So that looks OK to me (it may not be, but doesnt have any errors or warnings) - the instantiation gets the error: type tempRec = { someKey: string ; someVal1: int ; someVal2: int ; } let keyFunc r:tempRec = r.someKey // error occurs on the following line let q = new TimeSeriesQueue<tempRec, string> keyFunc This construct is deprecated: The use of the type syntax 'int C' and 'C ' is not permitted here. Consider adjusting this type to be written in the form 'C' NOTE This may be simple stupidity - I am just getting back from holiday and my brain is still on time zone lag...

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  • Setting routes in application.ini in Zend Framework

    - by Paul Watson
    I'm a Zend Framework newbie, and I'm trying to work out how to add another route to my application.ini file. I currently have my routes set up as follows: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = display ...so that /artists/joe-bloggs uses the "display" action of the "artists" controller to dipslay the profile the artist in question - that works fine. What I want to do now is to set up another route so that /artists/joe-bloggs/random-gallery-name goes to the "galleries" action of the "artists" controller. I tried adding an additional block to the application.ini file (beneath the block above) like so: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub/:gallery resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = galleries ...but when I do that the page at /artists/joe-bloggs no longer works (Zend tries to route it to the "joe-bloggs" controller). How do I set up the routes in application.ini so that I can change the action of the "artists" controller depending on whether "/:gallery" exists? I realise I'm probably making a really stupid mistake, so please point out my stupidity and set me on the right path (no pun intended).

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  • Minimal assembler program for CP/M 3.1 (z80)

    - by Andrew J. Brehm
    I seem to be losing the battle against my stupidity. This site explains the system calls under various versions of CP/M. However, when I try to use call 2 (C_WRITE, console output), nothing much happens. I have the following code. ORG 100h LD E,'a' LD C,2 CALL 5 CALL 0 I recite this here from memory. If there are typos, rest assured they were not in the original since the file did compile and I had a COM file to start. I am thinking the lines mean the following: Make sure this gets loaded at address 100h (0h to FFh being the zero page). Load ASCII 'a' into E register for system call 2. Load integer 2 into C register for system call 2. Make system call (JMP to system call is at address 5 in zero page). End program (Exit command is at address 0 in zero page). The program starts and exits with no problems. If I remove the last command, it hangs the computer (which I guess is also expected and shows that CALL 0 works). However, it does not print the ASCII character. (But it does print an extra new line, but the system might have done that.) How can I get my CP/M program to do what the system call is supposed to do? What am I doing wrong?

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  • Treating differential operator as algebraic entity

    - by chappar
    I know that this question is offtopic and don't belong here. But i didn't know somewhere else to ask. So here is the question. I was reading e:the story of a number by Eli Maor, where he treats differential operator as just like any algebraic entity. For example if we have a differential equation like y’’ + 5y’ - 6y = 0. This can be treaed as (D^2 + 5D – 6)y = 0. So, either y = 0 (trivial solution) or (D^2 + 5D – 6) = 0. Factoring out above equation we get (D-1)(D+6)= 0 with solutions as D = 1 and D = -6. Since D does not have any meaning on its own, multiplying by y on both the sides we get Dy = y and Dy = -6y for which the solutions are Ae^x and Be^-6x. Combining these 2 solutions we get Ae^x + Be^-6x. Now my doubt is this approach break when we have an equation like D^2y = 0. Which means y = 0 (again trivial) or D^2 = 0 which means D = 0. Now Dy = y*0 = 0. That means y = C ( a constant). The actual answer should be Cx. I know that it is stupidity to treat D^2 = 0 as D = 0, it led me to doubt the entire process of treating differential equation as algebraic equation. Can someone throw light on this? Or any other site where i might get answer?

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  • useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

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  • How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

    - by Yeodave
    Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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  • Varnish + Plesk : vhost broken

    - by Raphaël
    I have an e-commerce site with 300,000 products and 20,000 categories. It is slow and currently in production. I decided to install Varnish to speed up. The trouble is that during installation, I got a Guru Meditation. Since the site is in production, I am not allowed to leave this error more than a second, thinking to have made an enormous stupidity. I followed the following tutorial: http://www.euperia.com/linux/setting-up-varnish-with-apache-tutorial I'm sure I followed all without error. I say that there may be a specific configuration with plesk. Has anyone already installed Varnish on a ubuntu 11.04 server with plesk 10? Does anyone have a better resource? I know it is "very vague" as an error, but maybe some of you have had this problem. edit 24/11/2011 I continued to work on Varnish + Plesk ... but it still does not work. 1) I changed the port for apache in plesk General # mysql -uadmin -p`cat /etc/psa/.psa.shadow` -D psa -e'replace into misc (param, val) values ("http_port", 8008)' 1.1) I rebuild the server conf # /usr/local/psa/admin/bin/httpdmng --reconfigure-all 2) I changed the apache conf files (if those were not taking full plesk top) vim /etc/apache2/ports.conf NameVirtualHost *:8008 Listen 8008 2.1) I do the same with /etc/apache2/sites-enables/000-default 3) I changed the port of my vhost (a single server) vim /var/www/vhosts/MYDOMAIN.COM/conf/XXXXXXXXX.http.include Replace the port 80 by this I want. Rebuild the vhost conf /usr/local/psa/admin/sbin/websrvmng --reconfigure-vhost --vhost-name=<domain_name> with without www (See my issue in serverfault: Edit vhost port in plesk 10.3 ) 4) I installed varnish by following this tutorial : http://www.euperia.com/linux/setting-up-varnish-with-apache-tutorial 5) I restart apache 2 + varnish service apache2 restart service varnish restart When I go to my site, I come across a page of apache It works! This is the default web page for this server. The web server software is running but no content has been added, yet. Can somebody help me ? This means that my vhost does not point to the right place. Why? What to do? How?

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  • Detecting 'stealth' web-crawlers

    - by Jacco
    What options are there to detect web-crawlers that do not want to be detected? (I know that listing detection techniques will allow the smart stealth-crawler programmer to make a better spider, but I do not think that we will ever be able to block smart stealth-crawlers anyway, only the ones that make mistakes.) I'm not talking about the nice crawlers such as googlebot and Yahoo! Slurp. I consider a bot nice if it: identifies itself as a bot in the user agent string reads robots.txt (and obeys it) I'm talking about the bad crawlers, hiding behind common user agents, using my bandwidth and never giving me anything in return. There are some trapdoors that can be constructed updated list (thanks Chris, gs): Adding a directory only listed (marked as disallow) in the robots.txt, Adding invisible links (possibly marked as rel="nofollow"?), style="display: none;" on link or parent container placed underneath another element with higher z-index detect who doesn't understand CaPiTaLiSaTioN, detect who tries to post replies but always fail the Captcha. detect GET requests to POST-only resources detect interval between requests detect order of pages requested detect who (consistently) requests https resources over http detect who does not request image file (this in combination with a list of user-agents of known image capable browsers works surprisingly nice) Some traps would be triggered by both 'good' and 'bad' bots. you could combine those with a whitelist: It trigger a trap It request robots.txt? It doest not trigger another trap because it obeyed robots.txt One other important thing here is: Please consider blind people using a screen readers: give people a way to contact you, or solve a (non-image) Captcha to continue browsing. What methods are there to automatically detect the web crawlers trying to mask themselves as normal human visitors. Update The question is not: How do I catch every crawler. The question is: How can I maximize the chance of detecting a crawler. Some spiders are really good, and actually parse and understand html, xhtml, css javascript, VB script etc... I have no illusions: I won't be able to beat them. You would however be surprised how stupid some crawlers are. With the best example of stupidity (in my opinion) being: cast all URLs to lower case before requesting them. And then there is a whole bunch of crawlers that are just 'not good enough' to avoid the various trapdoors.

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  • Spring AOP pointcut that matches annotation on interface

    - by seanizer
    Hello, this is my first post here, so I apologize in advance for any stupidity on my side. I have a service class implemented in Java 6 / Spring 3 that needs an annotation to restrict access by role. I have defined an annotation called RequiredPermission that has as its value attribute one or more values from an enum called OperationType: public @interface RequiredPermission { /** * One or more {@link OperationType}s that map to the permissions required * to execute this method. * * @return */ OperationType[] value();} public enum OperationType { TYPE1, TYPE2; } package com.mycompany.myservice; public interface MyService{ @RequiredPermission(OperationType.TYPE1) void myMethod( MyParameterObject obj ); } package com.mycompany.myserviceimpl; public class MyServiceImpl implements MyService{ public myMethod( MyParameterObject obj ){ // do stuff here } } I also have the following aspect definition: /** * Security advice around methods that are annotated with * {@link RequiredPermission}. * * @param pjp * @param param * @param requiredPermission * @return * @throws Throwable */ @Around(value = "execution(public *" + " com.mycompany.myserviceimpl.*(..))" + " && args(param)" + // parameter object " && @annotation( requiredPermission )" // permission annotation , argNames = "param,requiredPermission") public Object processRequest(final ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, final MyParameterObject param, final RequiredPermission requiredPermission) throws Throwable { if(userService.userHasRoles(param.getUsername(),requiredPermission.values()){ return pjp.proceed(); }else{ throw new SorryButYouAreNotAllowedToDoThatException( param.getUsername(),requiredPermission.value()); } } The parameter object contains a user name and I want to look up the required role for the user before allowing access to the method. When I put the annotation on the method in MyServiceImpl, everything works just fine, the pointcut is matched and the aspect kicks in. However, I believe the annotation is part of the service contract and should be published with the interface in a separate API package. And obviously, I would not like to put the annotation on both service definition and implementation (DRY). I know there are cases in Spring AOP where aspects are triggered by annotations one interface methods (e.g. Transactional). Is there a special syntax here or is it just plain impossible out of the box. PS: I have not posted my spring config, as it seems to be working just fine. And no, those are neither my original class nor method names. Thanks in advance, Sean PPS: Actually, here is the relevant part of my spring config: <aop:aspectj-autoproxy proxy-target-class="false" /> <bean class="com.mycompany.aspect.MyAspect"> <property name="userService" ref="userService" /> </bean>

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  • Constraint Satisfaction Problem

    - by Carl Smotricz
    I'm struggling my way through Artificial Intelligence: A Modern Approach in order to alleviate my natural stupidity. In trying to solve some of the exercises, I've come up against the "Who Owns the Zebra" problem, Exercise 5.13 in Chapter 5. This has been a topic here on SO but the responses mostly addressed the question "how would you solve this if you had a free choice of problem solving software available?" I accept that Prolog is a very appropriate programming language for this kind of problem, and there are some fine packages available, e.g. in Python as shown by the top-ranked answer and also standalone. Alas, none of this is helping me "tough it out" in a way as outlined by the book. The book appears to suggest building a set of dual or perhaps global constraints, and then implementing some of the algorithms mentioned to find a solution. I'm having a lot of trouble coming up with a set of constraints suitable for modelling the problem. I'm studying this on my own so I don't have access to a professor or TA to get me over the hump - this is where I'm asking for your help. I see little similarity to the examples in the chapter. I was eager to build dual constraints and started out by creating (the logical equivalent of) 25 variables: nationality1, nationality2, nationality3, ... nationality5, pet1, pet2, pet3, ... pet5, drink1 ... drink5 and so on, where the number was indicative of the house's position. This is fine for building the unary constraints, e.g. The Norwegian lives in the first house: nationality1 = { :norway }. But most of the constraints are a combination of two such variables through a common house number, e.g. The Swede has a dog: nationality[n] = { :sweden } AND pet[n] = { :dog } where n can range from 1 to 5, obviously. Or stated another way: nationality1 = { :sweden } AND pet1 = { :dog } XOR nationality2 = { :sweden } AND pet2 = { :dog } XOR nationality3 = { :sweden } AND pet3 = { :dog } XOR nationality4 = { :sweden } AND pet4 = { :dog } XOR nationality5 = { :sweden } AND pet5 = { :dog } ...which has a decidedly different feel to it than the "list of tuples" advocated by the book: ( X1, X2, X3 = { val1, val2, val3 }, { val4, val5, val6 }, ... ) I'm not looking for a solution per se; I'm looking for a start on how to model this problem in a way that's compatible with the book's approach. Any help appreciated.

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  • user defined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programmers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D EDIT : more info : typedef ParticleId unsigned int; Particle has no user defined copyctor, but has a member of type : Particle { .... Resource<Texture> tex_res; ... } Resource is a smart-pointer class, and has all ctor's defined (also asignment operator) and it seems that Resource is copied bitwise. EDIT : henrik solved it... data(data) is stupid of course ! it should of course be rhs.data !!! sorry for huge amount of code, with a very little bug in it !!! (Guess you shouldn't code at 1 in the morning :D )

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  • A NSMutableArray is destroying my life!

    - by camilo
    EDITED to show the relevant part of the code Hi. There's a strange problem with an NSMutableArray which I'm just not understanding... Explaining: I have a NSMutableArray, defined as a property (nonatomic, retain), synthesized, and initialized with 29 elements. realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; After the initialization, I can insert elements as I wish and everything seems to be working fine. While I'm running the application, however, if I insert a new element in the array, I can print the array in the function where I inserted the element, and everything seems ok. However, when I select a row in the table, and I need to read that array, my application crashes. In fact, it cannot even print the array anymore. Is there any "magical and logical trick" everybody should know when using a NSMutableArray that a beginner like myself can be missing? Thanks a lot. I declare my array as realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; I insert objects in my array with [realSectionNames addObject:[category categoryFirstLetter]]; although I know i can also insert it with [realSectionNames insertObject:[category categoryFirstLetter] atIndex:i]; where the "i" is the first non-occupied position. After the insertion, I reload the data of my tableView. Printing the array before or after reloading the data shows it has the desired information. After that, selecting a row at the table makes the application crash. This realSectionNames is used in several UITableViewDelegate functions, but for the case it doesn't matter. What truly matters is that printing the array in the beginning of the didSelectRowAtIndexPath function crashes everything (and of course, doesn't print anything). I'm pretty sure it's in that line, for printing anything he line before works (example): NSLog(@"Anything"); NSLog(@"%@", realSectionNames); gives the output: 2010-03-24 15:16:04.146 myApplicationExperience[3527:207] Anything [Session started at 2010-03-24 15:16:04 +0000.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-967) (Tue Jul 14 02:11:58 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i386-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 3527. Still not understanding what kind of stupidity I've done this time... maybe it's not too late to follow the career of brain surgeon?

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  • Blending pixels from Two Bitmaps

    - by MarkPowell
    I'm beating my head against a wall here, and I'm fairly certain I'm doing something stupid, so time to make my stupidity public. I'm trying to take two images, blend them together into a third image using standard blending algorithms (Hardlight, softlight, overlay, multiply, etc). Because Android does not have such blend properties build in, I've gone down the path of taking each pixel and combine them using an algorithm. However, the results are garbage. Any help would be appreciated. Below is the code, which I've tried to strip out all the "junk", but some may have made it through. I'll clean it up if something isn't clear. Bitmap src = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.base, options); Bitmap mutableBitmap = src.copy(Bitmap.Config.RGB_565, true); int imageId = getResources().getIdentifier("drawable/" + filter, null, getPackageName()); Bitmap filterBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), imageId, options); float scaleWidth = ((float) mutableBitmap.getWidth()) / filterBitmap.getWidth(); float scaleHeight = ((float) mutableBitmap.getHeight()) / filterBitmap.getHeight(); IntBuffer buffSrc = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffSrc); buffSrc.rewind(); IntBuffer buffFilter = IntBuffer.allocate(resizedFilterBitmap.getWidth() * resizedFilterBitmap.getHeight()); resizedFilterBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffFilter); buffFilter.rewind(); IntBuffer buffOut = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); buffOut.rewind(); while (buffOut.position() < buffOut.limit()) { int filterInt = buffFilter.get(); int srcInt = buffSrc.get(); int alphaValueFilter = Color.alpha(filterInt); int redValueFilter = Color.red(filterInt); int greenValueFilter = Color.green(filterInt); int blueValueFilter = Color.blue(filterInt); int alphaValueSrc = Color.alpha(srcInt); int redValueSrc = Color.red(srcInt); int greenValueSrc = Color.green(srcInt); int blueValueSrc = Color.blue(srcInt); int alphaValueFinal = convert(alphaValueFilter, alphaValueSrc); int redValueFinal = convert(redValueFilter, redValueSrc); int greenValueFinal = convert(greenValueFilter, greenValueSrc); int blueValueFinal = convert(blueValueFilter, blueValueSrc); int pixel = Color.argb(alphaValueFinal, redValueFinal, greenValueFinal, blueValueFinal); buffOut.put(pixel); } buffOut.rewind(); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer(buffOut); BitmapDrawable drawable = new BitmapDrawable(getResources(), mutableBitmap); imageView.setImageDrawable(drawable); } int convert (int in1, int in2) { //simple multiply for example return in1 * in2 / 255; }

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  • Update transaction in SQL Server 2008 R2 from ASP.Net not working

    - by Amarus
    Hello! Even though I've been a stalker here for ages, this is the first post I'm making. Hopefully, it won't end here and more optimistically future posts might actually be me trying to give a hand to someone else, I do owe this community that much and more. Now, what I'm trying to do is simple and most probably the reason behind it not working is my own stupidity. However, I'm stumped here. I'm working on an ASP.Net website that interacts with an SQL Server 2008 R2 database. So far everything has been going okay but updating a row (or more) just won't work. I even tried copying and pasting code from this site and others but it's always the same thing. In short: No exception or errors are shown when the update command executes (it even gives the correct count of affected rows) but no changes are actually made on the database. Here's a simplified version of my code (the original had more commands and tons of parameters each, but even when it's like this it doesn't work): protected void btSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ApplicationServices"].ConnectionString)) { string commandString = "UPDATE [impoundLotAlpha].[dbo].[Vehicle]" + "SET [VehicleMake] = @VehicleMake" + " WHERE [ComplaintID] = @ComplaintID"; using (SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(commandString, connection)) { SqlTransaction transaction = null; try { command.Connection.Open(); transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); command.Transaction = transaction; SqlParameter complaintID = new SqlParameter("@complaintID", SqlDbType.Int); complaintID.Value = HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString["complaintID"]; command.Parameters.Add(complaintID); SqlParameter VehicleMake = new SqlParameter("@VehicleMake", SqlDbType.VarChar, 20); VehicleMake.Value = tbVehicleMake.Text; command.Parameters.Add(VehicleMake); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); transaction.Commit(); } catch { transaction.Rollback(); throw; } finally { connection.Close(); } } } } I've tried this with the "SqlTransaction" stuff and without it and nothing changes. Also, since I'm doing multiple updates at once, I want to have them act as a single transaction. I've found that it can be either done like this or by use of the classes included in the System.Transactions namespace (CommittableTransaction, TransactionScope...). I tried all I could find but didn't get any different results. The connection string in web.config is as follows: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=ImpoundLotAlpha;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> So, tldr; version: What is the mistake that I did with that record update attempt? (Figured it out, check below if you're having a similar issue.) What is the best method to gather multiple update commands as a single transaction? Thanks in advance for any kind of help and/or suggestions! Edit: It seems that I was lacking some sleep yesterday cause this time it only took me 5 minutes to figure out my mistake. Apparently the update was working properly but I failed to notice that the textbox values were being overwritten in Page_Load. For some reason I had this part commented: if (IsPostBack) return; The second part of the question still stands. But should I post this as an answer to my own question or keep it like this?

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