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  • Can not access response.body inside after filter block in Sinatra 1.0

    - by Petr Vostrel
    I'm struggling with a strange issue. According to http://github.com/sinatra/sinatra (secion Filters) a response object is available in after filter blocks in Sinatra 1.0. However the response.status is correctly accessible, I can not see non-empty response.body from my routes inside after filter. I have this rackup file: config.ru require 'app' run TestApp Then Sinatra 1.0.b gem installed using: gem install --pre sinatra And this is my tiny app with a single route: app.rb require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra/base' class TestApp < Sinatra::Base set :root, File.dirname(__FILE__) get '/test' do 'Some response' end after do halt 500 if response.empty? # used 500 just for illustation end end And now, I would like to access the response inside the after filter. When I run this app and access /test URL, I got a 500 response as if the response is empty, but the response clearly is 'Some response'. Along with my request to /test, a separate request to /favicon.ico is issued by the browser and that returns 404 as there is no route nor a static file. But I would expect the 500 status to be returned as the response should be empty. In console, I can see that within the after filter, the response to /favicon.ico is something like 'Not found' and response to /test really is empty even though there is response returned by the route. What do I miss?

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  • Redirect with .htacess - URL with regex to URL

    - by nicorellius
    I have a temporary need to redirect some installer files on my web site. The redirects that are working now look something like this: Redirect 301 /installer_1.0.0.zip http://www.example.com/download/installer_1.0.3.zip Redirect 301 /installer_1.0.1.zip http://www.example.com/download/installer_1.0.3.zip Redirect 301 /installer_1.0.2.zip http://www.example.com/download/installer_1.0.3.zip I would like to use a regex instead of having multiple lines for each version I need to redirect. I have tried these options with no success: Redirect 301 /installer_(.*).zip http://www.example.com/download/installer_1.0.3.zip Redirect 301 /installer_([0-9+]\.[0-9+]\.[0-9+]).zip http://www.example.com/download/installer_1.0.3.zip Should these work or am I doing something wrong? Thanks.

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  • How could I insert a string into the response stream anywhere I want?

    - by DM
    There may be an easy way to do this but I can't see it... I created a simple Http Module that starts a timer on the PreRequestHandler and stops the timer on the PostRequestHandler to calculate the time it took the page to load. I then create some simple html and write my results to Response.Write. Since I'm doing this in the PostRequestHandler it's adding my results after the </html> tag. That's fine for testing but I need in a scenario where the page needs to validate. I can't seem to figure out how I could manipulate the Response object to insert my results before the </body> tag. Response.Write and Response.Output.Write don't have that flexibility and I couldn't see a way to work with the Response as a string. Am I missing something easy?

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  • How to propagate http response code from back-end to client

    - by Manoj Neelapu
    Oracle service bus can be used as for pass through casses. Some use cases require propagating the http-response code back to the caller. http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=4326052&#4326052 is one such example we will try to accomplish in this tutorial.We will try to demonstrate this feature using Oracle Service Bus (11.1.1.3.0. We will also use commons-logging-1.1.1, httpcomponents-client-4.0.1, httpcomponents-core-4.0.1 for writing the client to demonstrate.First we create a simple JSP which will always set response code to 304.The JSP snippet will look like <%@ page language="java"     contentType="text/xml;     charset=UTF-8"        pageEncoding="UTF-8" %><%      System.out.println("Servlet setting Responsecode=304");    response.setStatus(304);    response.flushBuffer();%>We will now deploy this JSP on weblogic server with URI=http://localhost:7021/reponsecode/For this JSP we will create a simple Any XML BS We will also create proxy service as shown below Once the proxy is created we configure pipeline for the proxy to use route node, which invokes the BS(JSPCaller) created in the first place. So now we will create a error handler for route node and will add a stage. When a HTTP BS sends a request, the JSP sends the response back. If the response code is not 200, then the http BS will consider that as error and the above configured error handler is invoked. We will print $outbound to show the response code sent by the JSP. The next actions. To test this I had create a simple clientimport org.apache.http.Header;import org.apache.http.HttpEntity;import org.apache.http.HttpHost;import org.apache.http.HttpResponse;import org.apache.http.HttpVersion;import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpGet;import org.apache.http.conn.ClientConnectionManager;import org.apache.http.conn.scheme.PlainSocketFactory;import org.apache.http.conn.scheme.Scheme;import org.apache.http.conn.scheme.SchemeRegistry;import org.apache.http.impl.client.DefaultHttpClient;import org.apache.http.impl.conn.tsccm.ThreadSafeClientConnManager;import org.apache.http.params.BasicHttpParams;import org.apache.http.params.HttpParams;import org.apache.http.params.HttpProtocolParams;import org.apache.http.util.EntityUtils;/** * @author MNEELAPU * */public class TestProxy304{    public static void main(String arg[]) throws Exception{     HttpHost target = new HttpHost("localhost", 7021, "http");     // general setup     SchemeRegistry supportedSchemes = new SchemeRegistry();     // Register the "http" protocol scheme, it is required     // by the default operator to look up socket factories.     supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("http",              PlainSocketFactory.getSocketFactory(), 7021));     // prepare parameters     HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams();     HttpProtocolParams.setVersion(params, HttpVersion.HTTP_1_1);     HttpProtocolParams.setContentCharset(params, "UTF-8");     HttpProtocolParams.setUseExpectContinue(params, true);     ClientConnectionManager connMgr = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(params,              supportedSchemes);     DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(connMgr, params);     HttpGet req = new HttpGet("/HttpResponseCode/ProxyExposed");     System.out.println("executing request to " + target);     HttpResponse rsp = httpclient.execute(target, req);     HttpEntity entity = rsp.getEntity();     System.out.println("----------------------------------------");     System.out.println(rsp.getStatusLine());     Header[] headers = rsp.getAllHeaders();     for (int i = 0; i < headers.length; i++) {         System.out.println(headers[i]);     }     System.out.println("----------------------------------------");     if (entity != null) {         System.out.println(EntityUtils.toString(entity));     }     // When HttpClient instance is no longer needed,      // shut down the connection manager to ensure     // immediate deallocation of all system resources     httpclient.getConnectionManager().shutdown();     }}On compiling and executing this we see the below output in STDOUT which clearly indicates the response code was propagated from Business Service to Proxy serviceexecuting request to http://localhost:7021----------------------------------------HTTP/1.1 304 Not ModifiedDate: Tue, 08 Jun 2010 16:13:42 GMTContent-Type: text/xml; charset=UTF-8X-Powered-By: Servlet/2.5 JSP/2.1----------------------------------------  

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  • Set-Cookie Headers getting stripped in ASP.NET HttpHandlers

    - by Rick Strahl
    Yikes, I ran into a real bummer of an edge case yesterday in one of my older low level handler implementations (for West Wind Web Connection in this case). Basically this handler is a connector for a backend Web framework that creates self contained HTTP output. An ASP.NET Handler captures the full output, and then shoves the result down the ASP.NET Response object pipeline writing out the content into the Response.OutputStream and seperately sending the HttpHeaders in the Response.Headers collection. The headers turned out to be the problem and specifically Http Cookies, which for some reason ended up getting stripped out in some scenarios. My handler works like this: Basically the HTTP response from the backend app would return a full set of HTTP headers plus the content. The ASP.NET handler would read the headers one at a time and then dump them out via Response.AppendHeader(). But I found that in some situations Set-Cookie headers sent along were simply stripped inside of the Http Handler. After a bunch of back and forth with some folks from Microsoft (thanks Damien and Levi!) I managed to pin this down to a very narrow edge scenario. It's easiest to demonstrate the problem with a simple example HttpHandler implementation. The following simulates the very much simplified output generation process that fails in my handler. Specifically I have a couple of headers including a Set-Cookie header and some output that gets written into the Response object.using System.Web; namespace wwThreads { public class Handler : IHttpHandler { /* NOTE: * * Run as a web.config set handler (see entry below) * * Best way is to look at the HTTP Headers in Fiddler * or Chrome/FireBug/IE tools and look for the * WWHTREADSID cookie in the outgoing Response headers * ( If the cookie is not there you see the problem! ) */ public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { HttpRequest request = context.Request; HttpResponse response = context.Response; // If ClearHeaders is used Set-Cookie header gets removed! // if commented header is sent... response.ClearHeaders(); response.ClearContent(); // Demonstrate that other headers make it response.AppendHeader("RequestId", "asdasdasd"); // This cookie gets removed when ClearHeaders above is called // When ClearHEaders is omitted above the cookie renders response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); // *** This always works, even when explicit // Set-Cookie above fails and ClearHeaders is called //response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie("WWTHREADSID", "ThisIsTheValue")); response.Write(@"Output was created.<hr/> Check output with Fiddler or HTTP Proxy to see whether cookie was sent."); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } } In order to see the problem behavior this code has to be inside of an HttpHandler, and specifically in a handler defined in web.config with: <add name=".ck_handler" path="handler.ck" verb="*" type="wwThreads.Handler" preCondition="integratedMode" /> Note: Oddly enough this problem manifests only when configured through web.config, not in an ASHX handler, nor if you paste that same code into an ASPX page or MVC controller. What's the problem exactly? The code above simulates the more complex code in my live handler that picks up the HTTP response from the backend application and then peels out the headers and sends them one at a time via Response.AppendHeader. One of the headers in my app can be one or more Set-Cookie. I found that the Set-Cookie headers were not making it into the Response headers output. Here's the Chrome Http Inspector trace: Notice, no Set-Cookie header in the Response headers! Now, running the very same request after removing the call to Response.ClearHeaders() command, the cookie header shows up just fine: As you might expect it took a while to track this down. At first I thought my backend was not sending the headers but after closer checks I found that indeed the headers were set in the backend HTTP response, and they were indeed getting set via Response.AppendHeader() in the handler code. Yet, no cookie in the output. In the simulated example the problem is this line:response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); which in my live code is more dynamic ( ie. AppendHeader(token[0],token[1[]) )as it parses through the headers. Bizzaro Land: Response.ClearHeaders() causes Cookie to get stripped Now, here is where it really gets bizarre: The problem occurs only if: Response.ClearHeaders() was called before headers are added It only occurs in Http Handlers declared in web.config Clearly this is an edge of an edge case but of course - knowing my relationship with Mr. Murphy - I ended up running smack into this problem. So in the code above if you remove the call to ClearHeaders(), the cookie gets set!  Add it back in and the cookie is not there. If I run the above code in an ASHX handler it works. If I paste the same code (with a Response.End()) into an ASPX page, or MVC controller it all works. Only in the HttpHandler configured through Web.config does it fail! Cue the Twilight Zone Music. Workarounds As is often the case the fix for this once you know the problem is not too difficult. The difficulty lies in tracking inconsistencies like this down. Luckily there are a few simple workarounds for the Cookie issue. Don't use AppendHeader for Cookies The easiest and obvious solution to this problem is simply not use Response.AppendHeader() to set Cookies. Duh! Under normal circumstances in application level code there's rarely a reason to write out a cookie like this:response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); but rather create the cookie using the Response.Cookies collection:response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie("WWTHREADSID", "ThisIsTheValue")); Unfortunately, in my case where I dynamically read headers from the original output and then dynamically  write header key value pairs back  programmatically into the Response.Headers collection, I actually don't look at each header specifically so in my case the cookie is just another header. My first thought was to simply trap for the Set-Cookie header and then parse out the cookie and create a Cookie object instead. But given that cookies can have a lot of different options this is not exactly trivial, plus I don't really want to fuck around with cookie values which can be notoriously brittle. Don't use Response.ClearHeaders() The real mystery in all this is why calling Response.ClearHeaders() prevents a cookie value later written with Response.AppendHeader() to fail. I fired up Reflector and took a quick look at System.Web and HttpResponse.ClearHeaders. There's all sorts of resetting going on but nothing that seems to indicate that headers should be removed later on in the request. The code in ClearHeaders() does access the HttpWorkerRequest, which is the low level interface directly into IIS, and so I suspect it's actually IIS that's stripping the headers and not ASP.NET, but it's hard to know. Somebody from Microsoft and the IIS team would have to comment on that. In my application it's probably safe to simply skip ClearHeaders() in my handler. The ClearHeaders/ClearContent was mainly for safety but after reviewing my code there really should never be a reason that headers would be set prior to this method firing. However, if for whatever reason headers do need to be cleared, it's easy enough to manually clear the headers out:private void RemoveHeaders(HttpResponse response) { List<string> headers = new List<string>(); foreach (string header in response.Headers) { headers.Add(header); } foreach (string header in headers) { response.Headers.Remove(header); } response.Cookies.Clear(); } Now I can replace the call the Response.ClearHeaders() and I don't get the funky side-effects from Response.ClearHeaders(). Summary I realize this is a total edge case as this occurs only in HttpHandlers that are manually configured. It looks like you'll never run into this in any of the higher level ASP.NET frameworks or even in ASHX handlers - only web.config defined handlers - which is really, really odd. After all those frameworks use the same underlying ASP.NET architecture. Hopefully somebody from Microsoft has an idea what crazy dependency was triggered here to make this fail. IAC, there are workarounds to this should you run into it, although I bet when you do run into it, it'll likely take a bit of time to find the problem or even this post in a search because it's not easily to correlate the problem to the solution. It's quite possible that more than cookies are affected by this behavior. Searching for a solution I read a few other accounts where headers like Referer were mysteriously disappearing, and it's possible that something similar is happening in those cases. Again, extreme edge case, but I'm writing this up here as documentation for myself and possibly some others that might have run into this. © Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2012Posted in ASP.NET   IIS7   Tweet !function(d,s,id){var js,fjs=d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0];if(!d.getElementById(id)){js=d.createElement(s);js.id=id;js.src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js";fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js,fjs);}}(document,"script","twitter-wjs"); (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })();

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  • web server response code 500

    - by Bryan Kemp
    I realize that this may spur a religious discussion, but I discussed this with friends and get great, but conflicting answers and the actual documentation is of little help. What does the 500 series response codes mean from the webserver? Internal Server Error, but that is vague. My assumption is that it means that something bad happened to the server (file system corruption, no connection to the database, network issue, etc.) but not specifically a data driven error (divide by zero, record missing, bad parameter, etc). Something to note, there are some web client implementations (the default Android and Blackberry httpclients) that do not allow access to the html boddy if the server response is 500 so there is no way to determine what caused the issue from the client. What I have been been implementing recently is a web service that returns a json payload wrapped in a response object that contains more specific error information if it is data related, but the server response will be 200 since it finished the actual processing. Thoughts?

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  • lighttpd: weird behavior on multiple rewrite rule matches

    - by netmikey
    I have a 20-rewrite.conf for my php application looking like this: $HTTP["host"] =~ "www.mydomain.com" { url.rewrite-once += ( "^/(img|css)/.*" => "$0", ".*" => "/my_app.php" ) } I want to be able to put the webserver in kind of a "maintenance" mode while I update my application from scm. To do this, my idea was to enable an additional rewrite configuration file before this one. The 16-rewrite-maintenance.conf file looks like this: url.rewrite-once += ( "^/(img|css)/.*" => "$0", ".*" => "/maintenance_app.php" ) Now, on the maintenance page, I have a logo that doesn't get loaded. I get a 404 error. Lighttpd debug says the following: 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.300) -- splitting Request-URI 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.301) Request-URI : /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.302) URI-scheme : http 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.303) URI-authority: localhost 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.304) URI-path : /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.305) URI-query : 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.300) -- splitting Request-URI 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.301) Request-URI : /img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.302) URI-scheme : http 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.303) URI-authority: localhost 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.304) URI-path : /img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.305) URI-query : 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.349) -- sanatising URI 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.350) URI-path : /img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (mod_access.c.135) -- mod_access_uri_handler called 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.470) -- before doc_root 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.471) Doc-Root : /www 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.472) Rel-Path : /img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.473) Path : 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.521) -- after doc_root 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.522) Doc-Root : /www 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.523) Rel-Path : /img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.524) Path : /www/img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.541) -- logical -> physical 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.542) Doc-Root : /www 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.543) Rel-Path : /img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.544) Path : /www/img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.561) -- handling physical path 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.562) Path : /www/img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.618) -- file not found 2012-12-13 20:28:06: (response.c.619) Path : /www/img/content/logo.png, /img/content/logo.png Any clue on why lighttpd matches both rules (from my application rewrite config and from my maintenance rewrite config) and concatenates them with a comma - that doesn't seem to make any sense?! Shouldn't it stop after the first match with rewrite-once?

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  • ASP -response-flush-flushes-partial-data

    - by Anshu
    I am developing a web app with an ASP server side and I use an iframe for data push. An ASP handler flushes every once in a while some javascript to the iframe: context.Response.Write("<script language='javascript'>top.update('lala');</script>"); context.Response.Flush(); My problem is that sometimes, when I receive the data, I don't get the full text. For example I will receive this : update('lala'); One workaround I have is to have a thread flushing '..........' every 500ms. (Then I will receive script...... which will complete my javascript.) However I am sure there must be a way to have Response.Flush() sending the whole chunk of data. Does someone have an idea on how to use properly Response.Flush() ? Thank you!

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  • Help about pure-ftp

    - by hai
    I setup pure-ftp on freebsd behind firewall. On pure-ftp setuped passsi mode ftp(rangle port 50400-50600) and firewall open port from 50400-50600 (include mode IN and out). But i try use ftp client connect but not connect. Nofinication error status: Connecting to 210.245.89.95:21... Status: Connection established, waiting for welcome message... Response: 220---------- Welcome to Pure-FTPd [privsep] ---------- Response: 220-You are user number 1 of 50 allowed. Response: 220-Local time is now 13:20. Server port: 21. Response: 220-IPv6 connections are also welcome on this server. Response: 220 You will be disconnected after 15 minutes of inactivity. Command: USER bk Response: 331 User bk OK. Password required Command: PASS Response: 230 OK. Current directory is / Command: SYST Response: 215 UNIX Type: L8 Command: FEAT Response: 211-Extensions supported: Response: EPRT Response: IDLE Response: MDTM Response: SIZE Response: REST STREAM Response: MLST type;size*;sizd*;modify*;UNIX.mode*;UNIX.uid*;UNIX.gid*;unique*; Response: MLSD Response: ESTA Response: PASV Response: EPSV Response: SPSV Response: ESTP Response: 211 End. Status: Connected Status: Retrieving directory listing... Command: PWD Response: 257 "/" is your current location Command: TYPE I Response: 200 TYPE is now 8-bit binary Command: PASV Response: 227 Entering Passive Mode (210,245,88,98,138,1) Command: MLSD Error: Connection timed out Error: Failed to retrieve directory listing Status: Connecting to 210.245.88.98:21... Status: Connection established, waiting for welcome message... Help me.

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  • How do I redirect my website from non-www to WWW using Apache2?

    - by Andrew
    I'm currently trying to set up my personal webpage. I am using a VPS and have manually installed Wordpress, and everything seems to work... except if I go to the non-www version of my website, it comes up with a page not found. www.andrewrockefeller.com <-- Works andrewrockefeller.com <-- Does not (and I want to redirect it to www.andrewrockefeller.com) I have tried adding RewriteEngine functionality to my .htaccess, and that isn't working. I have also tried adding the 'most-voted' method of adding to my default file (which apache2.conf pulls from: <VirtualHost *> ServerName andrewrockefeller.com Redirect 301 / http://www.andrewrockefeller.com/ </VirtualHost> Seeing how many people are able to get the above working, is there something else I may be missing to allow that to function? Thank you for your time! EDIT: My .htaccess file is as follows: # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^index\.php$ - [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress The #Wordpress section was autocreated when I changed the settings from ?p=1 (ugly links) to prettylinks. Any proposed solutions I've found on here I've tried out and restarted apache2, and it hasn't worked.

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  • How to Redirect Folder with 404 .htaccess - without httpd.conf?

    - by elmaso
    Hello, I have no access to the httpd.conf. How can I redirect the users if the type one folder more like - http://www.example.com/folder/folder2/ -- redirect 404 to the main page. The users should only have access to this root http://www.example.com/link+custom1+custom2/ and if they type something like that http://www.example.com/link+custom1+custom2/onemorefolder/orTwo/ -- redirect how can I do that only with .htaccess and without php?

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  • How to simulate Apache [END] flag on a redirect?

    - by Javier Méndez
    For business-specific reasons I created the following rewrite rule for Apache 2.2.22 (mod_rewrite): RewriteRule /site/(\d+)/([^/]+)\.html /site/$2/$1 [R=301,L] Which if given an URL like: http://www.mydomain.com/site/0999/document.html Is translated to: http://www.mydomain.com/site/document/0999.html That's the expected scenario. However, there are documents which name are only numbers. So consider the following case: http://www.mydomain.com/site/0055/0666.html Gets translated to: http://www.mydomain.com/site/0666/0055.html Which also matches my rewrite rule pattern, so I end up with "The web page resulted in too many redirects" errors from browsers. I have researched for a long time, and haven't found "good" solutions. Things I tried: Use the [END] flag. Unfortunately is not available on my Apache version nor it works with redirects. Use %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} on a RewriteCond clause to end the rewrite process (L). For some reason %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} is empty all the times I tried. Add a response header with the Header clause if my rule matches and then check for that header (see: here for details). Seems that a) REDIRECT_addHeader is empty b) headers are can't be set on the 301 response explicitly. There is another alternative. I could set a query parameter to the redirect URL which indicates it comes from a redirect, but I don't like that solution as it seems to hacky. Is there a way to do exactly what the [END] flag does but in older Apache versions? Such as mine 2.2.22. Thanks!

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  • Best method to redirect internal DNS to external website?

    - by ProfessionalAmateur
    We host several web based applications outside of intranet. The URL's to these applications are long, complex and overall not user friendly. Ex: http://hostingsite:port/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx <-- (production) http://hostingsite:port22/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx <-- (dev) http://hostingsite:port33/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx <-- (test) I'd like to create an internal DNS entry to allow users to access these sites with ease. Ex: http://prod --> http://hostingsite:port/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx http://dev --> http://hostingsite:port22/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx I'm not familiar with the DNS process and setup, as far as I know a DNS can only be redirected to an IP, but not to subdomains for directory paths as described above? Is this a correct assumption? I am thinking for throwing up an internal webserver that will listen to the internal DNS entries and redirect to the external sites. http://prod --> [internal webserver] --> redirect --> http://hostingsite:port/approot/folder/folder/login.aspx Is there a better way to do this?

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  • Will a Response.Redirect exception go to global.asax?

    - by mgmedick
    I'm aware that when you call Response.Redirect it fires a ThreadAbortException. A co-worker has demonstrated calling response.redirect and then it goes to the global.asax. For the life of me I cannot get the ThreadAbortException to go to the global.asax, its like it is being suppressed naturally in the system. The reason I'm asking this is we believe the response.redirect is the cause of some automated error emails, but I'm not convinced this is the case especially if I can't even get it to debug into the global.asax. Any Ideas why I can't get the Response.Redirect to fire the global error handler?

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  • When is it safe to do a Response.Redirect() without throwing an exception?

    - by DDechant
    I have an intermediary class extending System.Web.UI.Page for all of my pages that require authentication. The class mostly does custom authentication handling. When a user with insufficient access attempts to visit a page, I try to redirect the user back to the login page while preventing any further page events from being executed (ie. Page_load). The first solution that came to mind was the default implementation of Response.Redirect. Of course the downside to this is the possibility of ThreadAbortExceptions being thrown. So my question is this: When (if at all) during the page life cycle is it actually safe to execute Response.Redirect() without ThreadAbortException ever being thrown? public class CustomPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { base.OnInit(e); if (!IsValid()) Response.Redirect("login.aspx", true); } }

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  • How to redirect or rewrite IIS site with port in URL to URL without port?

    - by user2573690
    I'm not 100% sure if this is the right part of StackOverflow to post this but to me it made the most sense. Sorry if its not! Currently I have a site in IIS configured on HTTPS with port 7500. I can access this site by using the URL: https://portal.company.com:7500. What I would like to do is remove the port number at the end of the URL so users can access this site using https://portal.company.com... I am a complete beginner with IIS, but what I have tried is the HTTP Redirect, which if I used on this IIS site, would redirect a user that hits portal.company.com:7500 to some other site, which is not what I need. Another thing I have though about is creating another IIS site which serves the purpose of being at the URL portal.company.com and when its hit, it redirects to my portal.company.com:7500, but I don't know if this is the best approach. So my question is, what are my options for achieving the behavior mentioned above and what is the best/recommended approach? I haven't played with URL Rewriting before but I will look into that now while I wait for a reply. Thanks!! Using IIS Manager on a Windows Server 2008 machine.

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  • In ASP.NET MVC, how does response.redirect work?

    - by Swoop
    I have used response.redirect in classic ASP and ASP.NET webforms. However, with MVC 2.0, I am running into something peculiar. I have a private method in a controller class that is used by multiple controller methods to help load and validate some information. This private method is setup to redirect if a problem is discovered to a generic error message page. The big problem I am noticing is that the calling controller class and page view attempt to complete rendering and loading before the redirect actually takes place. This is annoying in development because the View throws exceptions that I need to ignore before my generic error page finally loads. As mentioned above, I am used to the older model of response.redirect which prevented subsequent code on a page from being executed as the new page would then load. Any help or advice on redirects in MVC would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do I conditionally redirect the output of a command to /dev/null?

    - by Lawrence Johnston
    I have a script. I would like to give this script a quiet mode and a verbose mode. This is the equivalent of: if $verbose then redirect="> /dev/null" fi echo "Verbose mode enabled" $redirect # This doesn't work because the redirect isn't evaluated. I'd really like a better way of doing this than writing if-elses for every statement affected. eval could work, but has obvious side effects on other variables.

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  • htaccess/cPanel 301 redirects not working for add-on domain

    - by Clemens
    I've already looked at many samples and tutorials how to set up those 301 redirects on Apache and can't figure out why only the second one is working: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on #doesn't work: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^page-still-exists.htm$ "http://www.new.com/new-target-page.htm" [R=301,L] #works: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^page-does-no-longer-exist.htm$ "http://www.new.com/" [R=301,L] #works: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^folder/otherpage.htm$ "http://www.new.com/" [R=301,L] #works: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^/?$ "http://www.new.com/" [R=301,L] #doesn't work: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.old.com$ RewriteRule ^somepage.htm$ "http://www.old.com/some-page.htm" [R=301,L] I have no idea why only the second one is working. The only difference I can see is, that in the second case the old page does no longer exist on the old domain. But whenever I want to redirect any still existing page from the old domain to the new domain the page on the old domain is still used. Any input is much appreciated because this is slowly driving me crazy :) EDIT: I added the complete htaccess file. EDIT 2: So I removed almost all redirects and currently my htaccess looks like this: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^old\.com$ [OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.old\.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ "http\:\/\/www\.new\.com\/$1" [R=301,L] The only redirect that is working is the simple one from old.com to new.com. A redirect like old.com/page.htm to new.com or even new.com/page.htm is not working. And actually I really don't know where this redirect is actually coming from... Can a 301 really be so complicated?

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  • erratic response times with Apache 2.0.52 on redhat 4.

    - by Kevin
    Under load, we've noticed response times from Apache vary greatly for the same 7k image. It can range anywhere from .01 seconds to 25 seconds or greater. Unfortunately, due to corporate policy constraints we are pretty much stuck on Apache 2.0.52. I'm at best an Apache novice so I'm in over my head with this problem. My focus recently has turned to our choice of MPM modules. We use the worker model on a dual core hyper threaded blade. It doesn't appear that swapping is an issue, and I don't see any signs of a hardware problem. I've read that worker is optimal on hardware with many CPU's where prefork it more suitable for our specific hardware profile. I can see conceptually how choosing the wrong MPM could result in this erratic behavior, but I'm not confident that it's the root cause here. Has anyone else seen this type of range in your response times for simple static content? What else should I be looking into here?

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  • HowTo redirect HTTP to HTTPS on the same httpd?

    - by mosg
    Hi. Here is what I have got: CentOS 5.4 (32-bit) installed Apache httpd (Server version: Apache/2.2.11 (Unix)) mod_rewrite already presents Question: how to redirect simple http://site.com to https://site.com not using VirtualHost defines? PS: tried to find in later answers on SF, but doesn't find nice solution. Thanks.

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  • How do I redirect www to non-www in Route53?

    - by fredley
    I host my site at domain.com. My DNS entries in Route53 are as follows: domain.com A xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx 300 domain.com NS stuff.awsdns-47.org 172800 domain.com SOA stuff.awsdns-47.org 900 I would like to redirect traffic from www.domain.com to domain.com, as currently this just returns a 404. This question on SO suggested a PTR record, and I added that: www.domain.com PTR domain.com 300 but it didn't work. What should I be doing?

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