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  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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  • Why would the value of the Session object go away?

    - by Michael
    In ASP.NET/VB.NET 2005 I've created a small web app with two forms. In Default there is a button and a text box and a link. When you press the button whatever is in the text box is put into the Session. Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session("mykey") = Me.TextBox1.Text End Sub When you press the link it's NavigateURL property is "~/Retrieve.aspx" On the Retrieve page it pulls the information out of the Session (that is, whatever you typed in the text box). Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim myValue As String = CType(System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session("mykey"), String) Response.Write(myValue) End Sub Now it works on my machine and when deployed to the production web-site server if I run the browser remotely there it works fine - What you type on the first page appears on the second page. But when I run it from my machine to the production web server the second page is always blank. Why? It doesnt seem like a timeout issue - brand new web.config taking the defaults. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • Sharepoint NewForm adding attachments programatically

    - by CodeSpeaker
    I have a list with a custom form which contains a custom file upload control. As soon as the user selects a file and clicks upload, i want this file to go directly to the attachments list within that listitem. However, when adding the file to SPContext.Current.ListItem.Attachments on a new item, the attachment wont show up in the list after saving. If i instead use item.Update() on the new item after adding the attachment i get an error in Sharepoint, but when i then go back to the list, the item is there with its attachment. It seems like its trying to create 2 new entries at once when i save (item.Update) which results in the second of those crashing. What would be the correct way to add attachments this way? oSPWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; // Get the List item SPListItem listItem = SPContext.Current.ListItem; // Get the Attachment collection SPAttachmentCollection attachmentCollection = listItem.Attachments; Stream attachmentStream; Byte[] attachmentContent; // Get the file from the file upload control if (fileUpload.HasFile) { attachmentStream = fileUpload.PostedFile.InputStream; attachmentContent = new Byte[attachmentStream.Length]; attachmentStream.Read(attachmentContent, 0, (int)attachmentStream.Length); attachmentStream.Close(); attachmentStream.Dispose(); // Add the file to the attachment collection attachmentCollection.Add(fileUpload.FileName, attachmentContent); } // Update th list item listItem.Update();

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  • Fastest way to modify a decimal-keyed table in MySQL?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

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  • SharePoint The My Site of <user name> is scheduled for deletion.

    - by Linda
    Hi there, In my email today I got the following: The My Site of is scheduled for deletion. As their manager you are now the temporary owner of their site. This temporary ownership gives you access to the site to copy any business-related information you might need. To access the site use this URL: http://mysites.freud.com/personal/ I click on the link and I can see that there site is there. I do not want there site to be deleted at all what can I do. When I search for the user using the PeopleSearchBoxEx web part the user comes up but when I click on there name I get the error: Server Error in '/' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- User not found. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: Microsoft.SharePoint.SPException: User not found. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SPException: User not found.] Microsoft.SharePoint.Portal.WebControls.ProfilePropertyLoader.OnInit(EventArgs e) +4415 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +378 Any idea how I can stop this person from being "delete" and get there profile to work again?

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • MSI Installer start auto-repair when service starts

    - by Josh Clark
    I have a WiX based MSI that installs a service and some shortcuts (and lots of other files that don't). The shortcut is created as described in the WiX docs with a registry key under HKCU as the key file. This is an all users install, but to get past ICE38, this registry key has to be under the current user. When the service starts (it runs under the SYSTEM account) it notices that that registry key isn't valid (at least of that user) and runs the install again to "repair". In the Event Log I get MsiInstaller Events 1001 and 1004 showing that "The resource 'HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\MyInstaller\Foo' does not exist." This isn't surprising since the SYSTEM user wouldn't have this key. I turned on system wide MSI logging and the auto-repair created its log file in the C:\Windows\Temp folder rather than a specific user's TEMP folder which seems to imply the current user was SYSTEM (plus the log file shows the "Calling process" to be my service). Is there something I can do to disable the auto-repair functionality? Am I doing something wrong or breaking some MSI rule? Any hints on where to look next?

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  • Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

    - by Changeling
    We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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  • Issue in setting alarm time in AlarmManager Class

    - by Anshuman
    I have used the following code in setting alarm time in AlarmManager class. Now Suppose my device current date 9-july-2012 11:31:00, Now suppose i set set a alarm at 9-july-2012 11:45:00, then it works fine and pop-up an alarm at that time. But if i set an alarm at 10-aug-2012 11:40:00, then as soon as exit the app the alarm pop-up, which is wrong because i set an alarm at month of august, So why this happen, is anything wrong in my code. if anyone knows help me to solve this out. Code For Setting Alarm time in AlarmManager class Intent myIntent = new Intent(context, AlarmService.class); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getService(context, i, myIntent, i); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager)context.getSystemService(AlarmService.ALARM_SERVICE); Calendar calendar = Calendar.getInstance(); calendar.setTimeInMillis(System.currentTimeMillis()); calendar.add(Calendar.MILLISECOND, (int) dateDifferenceFromSystemTime(NoteManager.getSingletonObject().getAlarmTime(i))); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), pendingIntent); public static long dateDifferenceFromSystemTime(Date date) { long difference = 0; try { Calendar c = Calendar.getInstance(); difference = date.getTime() - c.getTimeInMillis(); if (difference < 0) { // if difference is -1 - means alarm time is of previous time then current // then firstly change it to +positive and subtract form 86400000 to get exact new time to play alarm // 86400000-Total no of milliseconds of 24hr Day difference = difference * -1; difference = 86400000 - difference; } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return difference; } Service class which pop-up alarm when matches time public class AlarmService extends IntentService { public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); } public AlarmService() { super("MyAlarmService"); } @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startId) { super.onStartCommand(intent, startId, startId); return START_STICKY; } @Override protected void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { startActivity(new Intent(this,AlarmDialogActivity.class).setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK)); } }

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • Helping Rails Newbies identify version-specific information on web pages

    - by corprew
    I am trying to help some people getting started programming on rails identify which version that advice found on web pages corresponds to, and am seeking advice and/or guides on how to do it so they don't have to rely on me and/or waste time trying outdated advice. Narrative: I am helping some people get up to speed on rails development, and their stock response to running into problems is searching google for advice. They're using 2.3.5 and thinking of moving to 3. The problem they're running into is that there's a lot of advice out there specific to older rails versions (2.2 for example being popular) that isn't identified. I can usually figure out when the pages are old pretty easily, but they can't (yet.) It seems like random web page authors don't identify which version they're using when they're using the current version, and not all pages are dated. This seems to be a general problem that will get worse -- current unadorned advice is usually 2.3.5 and older unadorned advice is 2.2.x at this point, but people are moving / will be moving to version 3 over the next while and newbies will be stuck looking at a bunch of deprecated/incompatible 2.3.x advice without realizing which version it is. Any advice / pointers / telltales?

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • window.setInterval from inside an object

    - by Keith Rousseau
    I'm currently having an issue where I have a javascript object that is trying to use setInterval to call a private function inside of itself. However, it can't find the object when I try to call it. I have a feeling that it's because window.setInterval is trying to call into the object from outside but doesn't have a reference to the object. FWIW - I can't get it to work with the function being public either. The basic requirement is that I may need to have multiple instances of this object to track multiple uploads that are occurring at once. If you have a better design than the current one or can get the current one working then I'm all ears. The following code is meant to continuously ping a web service to get the status of my file upload: var FileUploader = function(uploadKey) { var intervalId; var UpdateProgress = function() { $.get('someWebService', {}, function(json) { alert('success'); }); }; return { BeginTrackProgress: function() { intervalId = window.setInterval('UpdateProgress()', 1500); }, EndTrackProgress: function() { clearInterval(intervalId); } }; }; This is how it is being called: var fileUploader = new FileUploader('myFileKey'); fileUploader.BeginTrackProgress();

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  • VSTO Word ContentControls, Y U No have Name property?

    - by System.Cats.Lol
    When you add a VSTO (not Word native) content control, you specify the name: controls.AddContentControl(wordRange, "foo", wdType); Where controls is the VSTO (extended) Document.Controls collection. You can later look up the control by name: ContentControl myContentControl = controls["foo"]; So why in the world is there no Name property for ContentControl? (or ContentControlBase, or any of the other derivatives). I'm implementing a wrapper class for the Document.Controls property that lets you add or iterate the content controls. When iterating the underlying Document.Controls, there's no way to look up the name of each control. (We need it to return an instance of our ContentControl wrapper). So currently I'm doing this in our ContentControls wrapper class: public IEnumerator<IContentControl> GetEnumerator() { System.Collections.IEnumerator en = this.wordControls.GetEnumerator(); while (en.MoveNext()) { // VSTO Document.Controls includes all managed controls, not just // VSTO ContentControls; return only those. if (en.Current is Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl) { // The control's name isn't stored with the control, only when it was added, // so use a placeholder name for the wrapper. yield return new ContentControl("Unknown", (Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl)en.Current); } } } I'd prefer to not have to resort to keeping a map of names-to-wrapper-objects in our ContentControls object. Can anyone tell me how to get the control's name (the name parameter that was passed to Controls.Add()?

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  • jQuery .each() function. Resetting the index?

    - by Michael
    Hi there, I have multiple lists with the same class. I'd like to loop each list and its LI's and prepend the current number before each. The current code I have is: $jQuery(".numberList li").each(function(i) { var index = i + 1; $jQuery(this).prepend("<span>" + index + "</span>"); }); The problem is, is that the index doesn't restart back at 0 for each list it goes through, it just keeps going up. For example, the output I get now is: First list 1. item 2. item 3. item Second list 4. item 5. item 6. item Second list should start at 1 again by having the index back at 0. Could someone point out where I'm going wrong? I'm not a jQuery expert or anything...clearly :) Many thanks, Michael.

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  • Simply doing modelType.ToString() isn't sufficient, How can i use it via Activator.CreateInstance?

    - by programmerist
    public class MyController { public object CreateByEnum(DataModelType modeltype) { string enumText = modeltype.ToString(); // will return for example "Company" Type classType = Type.GetType(enumText); // the Type for Company class object t = Activator.CreateInstance(classType); // create an instance of Company class return t; } } public class CompanyView { public static List<Personel> GetPersonel() { MyController controller = new MyController(); _Company company = controller.CreateByEnum(DataModelType.Company) as _Company; return company.GetPersonel(); } } public enum DataModelType { xyz, klm, tucyz, Company } Yes, I agree Activator.CreateInstance() is very useful. Unfortunately, I need to pass in the correct type. That means building the correct string to pass to Type.GetType(). If I trace through the call to Controller.CreatebyEnum() in the code I posted above, simply doing modelType.ToString() isn't sufficient, even for the case of DataModelType.Company. My solution'll be maintenance bottleneck. What would be better is something that takes the results of modelType.ToString() and then recursively searches through all the types found in all the assemblies loaded in the current AppDomain. According to MSDN, Type.GetType() only searches the current calling assembly, and mscorlib.dll. How can i do that? . i need best performance?

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  • rest and client rights integration, and backbone.js

    - by Francois
    I started to be more and more interested in the REST architecture style and client side development and I was thinking of using backbone.js on the client and a REST API (using ASP.NET Web API) for a little meeting management application. One of my requirements is that users with admin rights can edit meetings and other user can only see them. I was then wondering how to integrate the current user rights in the response for a given resource? My problem is beyond knowing if a user is authenticated or not, I want to know if I need to render the little 'edit' button next to the meeting (let's say I'm listing the current meetings in a grid) or not. Let's say I'm GETing /api/meetings and this is returning a list of meetings with their respective individual URI. How can I add if the user is able to edit this resource or not? This is an interesting passage from one of Roy's blog posts: A REST API should be entered with no prior knowledge beyond the initial URI (bookmark) and set of standardized media types that are appropriate for the intended audience (i.e., expected to be understood by any client that might use the API). From that point on, all application state transitions must be driven by client selection of server-provided choices that are present in the received representations or implied by the user’s manipulation of those representations It states that all transitions must be driven by the choices that are present in the representation. Does that mean that I can add an 'editURI' and a 'deleteURI' to each of the meeting i'm returning? if this information is there I can render the 'edit' button and if it's not there I just don't? What's the best practices on how to integrate the user's rights in the entity's representation? Or is this a super bad idea and another round trip is needed to fetch that information?

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  • Bespoke Development or Leverage SharePoint With Web Parts etc?

    - by Asim
    Hi all, We are currently in the process of drawing up a solution for an existing client, creating a number of eServices. The client currently have MOSS 2007. The proposed solution is to use MOSS as the launching pad for the eServices… The requirement involves drawing up several online forms which provide registration facilities as well as facilitating a workflow of some sort. I have been told that the proposed solution requires complex web forms. Most are complex forms with parent child details that have multiple windows. The proposed solution is to do some bespoke development, developing ASP .NET forms. These forms would be deployed under the _layouts folder of the current MOSS portal, inheriting the master page design on the current site. I have been told that this approach make development and deployment more simple, as well has having ‘complete integration’ with MOSS. My questions are: Is this the best way to leverage SharePoint – it seems like the proposed solution is not leveraging MOSS at all..! I thought perhaps utilizing Web Parts would be better, but I have been told that this is more complex and developing more smarter intuitive UI is more difficult. Is this really the case? If not, what should be the recommended approach? We will be utilizing Ultimus as the workflow engine. However, I have been recommended K2 Workflows. Anyone used both/have any opinions on either? Many thanks in advance! Kind Regards,

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  • What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

    - by Soul_Master
    I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

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  • Segmentation fault

    - by darkie15
    #include<stdio.h> #include<zlib.h> #include<unistd.h> #include<string.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { char *path=NULL; size_t size; int index ; printf("\nArgument count is = %d", argc); printf ("\nThe 0th argument to the file is %s", argv[0]); path = getcwd(path, size); printf("\nThe current working directory is = %s", path); if (argc <= 1) { printf("\nUsage: ./output filename1 filename2 ..."); } else if (argc > 1) { for (index = 1; index <= argc;index++) { printf("\n File name entered is = %s", argv[index]); strcat(path,argv[index]); printf("\n The complete path of the file name is = %s", path); } } return 0; } In the above code, here is the output that I get while running the code: $ ./output test.txt Argument count is = 2 The 0th argument to the file is ./output The current working directory is = /home/welcomeuser File name entered is = test.txt The complete path of the file name is = /home/welcomeusertest.txt Segmentation fault (core dumped) Can anyone please me understand why I am getting a core dumped error? Regards, darkie

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  • Updating a local sqlite db that is used for local metadata & caching from an service?

    - by Pharaun
    I've searched through the site and haven't found a question/answer that quite answer my question, the closest one I found was: Syncing objects between two disparate systems best approach. Anyway to begun, because there is no RSS feeds available, I'm screen scrapping a webpage, hence it does a fetch then it goes through the webpage to scrap out all of the information that I'm interested in and dumps that information into a sqlite database so that I can query the information at my leisure without doing repeat fetching from the website. However I'm also storing various metadata on the data itself that is stored in the sqlite db, such as: have I looked at the data, is the data new/old, bookmark to a chunk of data (Think of it as a collection of unrelated data, and the bookmark is just a pointer to where I am in processing/reading of the said data). So right now my current problem is trying to figure out how to update the local sqlite database with new data and/or changed data from the website in a manner that is effective and straightforward. Here's my current idea: Download the page itself Create a temporary table for the parsed data to go into Do a comparison between the official and the temporary table and copy updates and/or new information to the official table This process seems kind of complicated because I would have to figure out how to determine if the data in the temporary table is new, updated, or unchanged. So I am wondering if there isn't a better approach or if anyone has any suggestion on how to architecture/structure such system?

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  • Fastest way to convert a list of doubles to a unique list of integers?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

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  • Point data structure for a sketching application

    - by bebraw
    I am currently developing a little sketching application based on HTML5 Canvas element. There is one particular problem I haven't yet managed to find a proper solution for. The idea is that the user will be able to manipulate existing stroke data (points) quite freely. This includes pushing point data around (ie. magnet tool) and manipulating it at whim otherwise (ie. altering color). Note that the current brush engine is able to shade by taking existing stroke data in count. It's a quick and dirty solution as it just iterates the points in the current stroke and checks them against a distance rule. Now the problem is how to do this in a nice manner. It is extremely important to be able to perform efficient queries that return all points within given canvas coordinate and radius. Other features, such as space usage, should be secondary to this. I don't mind doing some extra processing between strokes while the user is not painting. Any pointers are welcome. :)

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  • Silverlight Socket Constantly Returns With Empty Buffer

    - by Benny
    I am using Silverlight to interact with a proxy application that I have developed but, without the proxy sending a message to the Silverlight application, it executes the receive completed handler with an empty buffer ('\0's). Is there something I'm doing wrong? It is causing a major memory leak. this._rawBuffer = new Byte[this.BUFFER_SIZE]; SocketAsyncEventArgs receiveArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); receiveArgs.SetBuffer(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.Length); receiveArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(ReceiveComplete); this._client.ReceiveAsync(receiveArgs); if (args.SocketError == SocketError.Success && args.LastOperation == SocketAsyncOperation.Receive) { // Read the current bytes from the stream buffer int bytesRecieved = this._client.ReceiveBufferSize; // If there are bytes to process else the connection is lost if (bytesRecieved > 0) { try { //Find out what we just received string messagePart = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetString(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.GetLength(0)); //Take out any trailing empty characters from the message messagePart = messagePart.Replace('\0'.ToString(), ""); //Concatenate our current message with any leftovers from previous receipts string fullMessage = _theRest + messagePart; int seperator; //While the index of the seperator (LINE_END defined & initiated as private member) while ((seperator = fullMessage.IndexOf((char)Messages.MessageSeperator.Terminator)) > 0) { //Pull out the first message available (up to the seperator index string message = fullMessage.Substring(0, seperator); //Queue up our new message _messageQueue.Enqueue(message); //Take out our line end character fullMessage = fullMessage.Remove(0, seperator + 1); } //Save whatever was NOT a full message to the private variable used to store the rest _theRest = fullMessage; //Empty the queue of messages if there are any while (this._messageQueue.Count > 0) { ... } } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } // Wait for a new message if (this._isClosing != true) Receive(); } } Thanks in advance.

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  • How to make Web Storage persistent in Cordova using JS?

    - by ett
    I have a small quiz app, which is a cross-platform mobile app, that I plan for it to run on Android, iOS, and WP8. I want to store a local highscore, where it will keep track how many points the user had, and if he/she does better than the already stored highscore, update the current highscore. Though, I want the highscore to be persistent, what I mean is, every time the user opens the app I want the last highscore to be present and it to be compared with the new quiz score. Meaning, I don't want the highscore to be deleted after each time the app is closed. I also want for the first time when the app is ran, the highscore to be set to 0, so obviously the first time the user finishes the quiz gets a new highscore. I have those codes so far: scoredb.js // Wait for device API libraries to load document.addEventListener("deviceready", initScoreDB, false); // Device APIs are available function initScoreDB() { window.localStorage.setItem("score", 0); highscore = window.localStorage.getItem("score"); } main.js var correct = 0; var highscore; // In between I have some code that keeps incrementing // correct variable for each correct answer. if (correct > highscore) { window.localStorage.setItem("score", correct); highscore = correct; } It does seem to work okay once the app is started. I did the quiz three times, in the simulator, and it keeps the score as it should. Though, each time I open the app, highscore is reseted to 0. I guess it is due to the fact that I call initScoreDB when the device is ready, and I initialize the score to 0 there and give that value to highscore. Can someone help me to initialize the score to 0 only when the app is ran for the first time, and all the other times to keep the latest highscore as the current highscore and compare it each time with the score that is achieved when the quiz is finished. If someone can help me, I would be glad.

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