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  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

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  • can't properly shutdown ubuntu and sound problem on HP mini 311 netbook

    - by Viele
    hi, I recently bought a HP mini 311 netbook. I replaced its harddrive and installed ubuntu 10.04. Since then, I have encountered some very strange problem with its sound and shutdown/reboot. At times, when I start the computer, it will have no sound, on the GUI the sound is at max, but no sound is available. This sometimes also happen after after upgrades, hibernate, and toggling the wireless radio button. Strangely, when the sound is out the device will also refuse to be shutdown. If I shutdown the computer using the GUI, it will simply go back to the log in screen without actually shutting down. If I use "sudo shutdown 0", the computer will hang on the loading screen of the shut down process. I had to force the pc to shutdown by holding the power button down. usually (probably always) after I force a turn-off then start off again. the sound and shutdown become normal. I wonder if anyone have clues regarding to the cause of this problem. This the info about the computer: 1) installed ubuntu 10.04LTS RC, later upgraded to formal released version. 2) cat /proc/asound/version == "Advanced Linux Sound Architecture Driver Version 1.0.21." however, when doing 'alsaconf' the version displayed is 1.0.23 any help is appreciated. Thanks

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  • Convert 4 bytes to int

    - by Oscar Reyes
    I'm reading a binary file like this: InputStream in = new FileInputStream( file ); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; while( ( in.read(buffer ) > -1 ) { int a = // ??? } What I want to do it to read up to 4 bytes and create a int value from those but, I don't know how to do it. I kind of feel like I have to grab 4 bytes at a time, and perform one "byte" operation ( like << & FF and stuff like that ) to create the new int What's the idiom for this? EDIT Ooops this turn out to be a bit more complex ( to explain ) What I'm trying to do is, read a file ( may be ascii, binary, it doesn't matter ) and extract the integers it may have. For instance suppose the binary content ( in base 2 ) : 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000001 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000010 The integer representation should be 1 , 2 right? :- / 1 for the first 32 bits, and 2 for the remaining 32 bits. 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 Would be -1 and 01111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 Would be Integer.MAX_VALUE ( 2147483647 )

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  • Loading data from a dictionary of dictionaries into an array in Objective C for an iphone app

    - by Kat
    I have a UINavigationController consisting of a tableview I want to load some data into. I have a dictionary plist containing Dictionaries for each Train Line which in turn have dictionaries for each station with the relevant information along with one string lineName. I need to collect the station Names keys and add them to an array to populate my table (This is working). The line names are stored as a string in my lines dictionary with the key being "lineName" Root->| | |->TrainLine1(Dictionary)->| | |-> lineName (String) | |-> Station1 (Dictionary) | |-> Station2 (Dictionary) | | |->TrainLine2(Dictionary)->| | |-> lineName (String) | |-> Station1 (Dictionary) | |-> Station2 (Dictionary) Am I going about this the wrong way? Should I reorganise my plist? The code below crashes the app. - (void)viewDidLoad { self.title = @"Train Lines"; NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"lineDetails" ofType:@"plist"]; NSDictionary *dictionary = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:path]; NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *lineNameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSString *key; for (key in dictionary) { NSMutableDictionary *secondDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithDictionary:[dictionary valueForKey:key]]; [lineNameArray addObject:key]; NSLog(@"Adding this in array:%@", key); [array addObject:[secondDictionary objectForKey:kLineNameKey]]; } self.trainLines = array; self.trainLineKeys = lineNameArray; NSLog(@"Array contents:%@", self.trainLineKeys); [lineNameArray release]; [array release]; [dictionary release]; [super viewDidLoad]; }

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  • Linq to sql DataContext cannot set load options after results been returned

    - by David Liddle
    I have two tables A and B with a one-to-many relationship respectively. On some pages I would like to get a list of A objects only. On other pages I would like to load A with objects in B attached. This can be handled by setting the load options DataLoadOptions options = new DataLoadOptions(); options.LoadWith<A>(a => a.B); dataContext.LoadOptions = options; The trouble occurs when I first of all view all A's with load options, then go to edit a single A (do not use load options), and after edit return to the previous page. I understand why the error is occurring but not sure how to best get round this problem. I would like the DataContext to be loaded up per request. I thought I was achieving this by using StructureMap to load up my DataContext on a per request basis. This is all part of an n-tier application where my Controllers call Services which in turn call Repositories. ForRequestedType<MyDataContext>() .CacheBy(InstanceScope.PerRequest) .TheDefault.Is.Object(new MyDataContext()); ForRequestedType<IAService>() .TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<AService>(); ForRequestedType<IARepository>() .TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<ARepository>(); Here is a brief outline of my Repository public class ARepository : IARepository { private MyDataContext db; public ARepository(MyDataContext context) { db = context; } public void SetLoadOptions(DataLoadOptions options) { db.LoadOptions = options; } public IQueryable<A> Get() { return from a in db.A select a; } So my ServiceLayer, on View All, sets the load options and then gets all A's. On editing A my ServiceLayer should spin up a new DataContext and just fetch a list of A's. When sql profiling, I can see that when I go to the Edit page it is requesting A with B objects.

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  • Editing a labels text value through JavaScript in VB ASP.NET

    - by Ronnie
    I have a simple form containing two text boxes, I am attempting to apply some validation to the first text box using JavaScript. This is the first time I have attempted this and am having some trouble. I have a label beside the text box stating an error, this labels visibility property is set to False. I wish the labels visibility to turn true if the text box is empty when the user loses focus. For this I have used the onBlur option within the tags of the text box. It then calls the JavaScript function and should set the label to Visible but it does not. I have tested to see if it is entering the function by using an alert instead and that works. The problem seems to be trying to alter the visibility property of the label. Here is the portion of my code: The JavaScript: function myRegEx(frm) { if ( boxUsername.value == "" ) { invalidUser.visible = True; return false; } } The form: <asp:TextBox onblur="return myRegEx(this)" id="boxUsername" runat="server" Width="200px"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label id="invalidUser" runat="server" visible="False" forecolor="Red" text="* Username must be alphanumeric with no special characters"></asp:Label> Any help would be brilliant.

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  • Selectively suppress XML comments?

    - by Mike Post
    We deliver a number of assemblies to external customers, but not all of the public APIs are officially supported. For example, due to less than optimal design choices sometimes a type must be publicly exposed from an assembly for the rest of our code to work, but we don't want customers to use that type. One part of communicating the lack of support is not provide any intellisense in the form of XML comments. Is there a way to selectively suppress XML comments? I'm looking for something other than ignoring warning 1591 since it's a long term maintenance issue. Example: I have an assembly with public classes A and B. A is officially supported and should have XML documentation. B is not intended for external use and should not be documented. I could turn on XML documentation and then suppress warning 1591. But when I later add the officially supported class C, I want the compiler to tell me that I've screwed up and failed to add the XML documentation. This wouldn't occur if I had suppressed 1591 at the project level. I suppose I could #pragma across entire classes, but it seems like there should be a better way to do this.

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  • Replacing/Extending Visual Studio's Generate Stub in Visual Studio 2010

    - by devoured elysium
    When we write the name of a method that doesn't exist, Visual Studio 2010 asks us if we'd like to generate a method stub with that name. What I'd like to know if is it possible to replace that same code stub generating command with one made by myself. I never did any kind of extensibility programming for Visual Studio so I have a couple of questions: How hard is it? Is it something I can learn in a couple of nights, or is it something that'll make me "lose" a lot of time? It seems to me that there isn't a lot of support for that kind of programming, as generally people are not that interested in developing solutions that extend the Visual Studio IDE. I searched on SO and it doesn't appear to have many threads about extending Visual Studio. I don't know how the generate method stub thing works in Visual Studio, but I just wanted to turn it into something a bit more flexible and useful. Has anyone dealt with these kind of things before, that can give me a pointer to where to start? I know of MS VSX site but that has a lot of resources and can be overwhelming for someone new to the subject as I am. What technology will I need to use? T4? Maybe I'll need to know a lot about the code, like Visual Studio does, so I can know other method's type arguments, names, etc. Is that what T4 is for? Thanks

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  • How does VS 2005 provide history across all TFS Team Projects when tf.exe cannot?

    - by AakashM
    In Visual Studio 2005, in the TFS Source Control Explorer, these is a top-level node for the TFS Server itself, with a child node for each Team Project. Right-clicking either the server node or the node for a Team Project gives a context menu on which there is a View History item. Selecting this gives you a History window showing the last 200 or so changesets, either for the specific Team Project chosen, or across all Team Projects. It is this history across all Team Projects that I am wondering about. The command-line tf.exe history command provides (as I understand it) basically the same functionality as is provided by the VS TFS Source Control plug-in. But I cannot work out how to get tf.exe history to provide this across-all-Team-Projects history. At a command line, supposing I have C:\ mapped as the root of my workspace, and Foo, Bar, and Baz as Team Projects, I can do C:\> tf history Foo /recursive /stopafter:200 to get the last 200 changesets that affected Team Project Foo; or from within a Team Project folder C:\Bar> tf history *.* /recursive /stopafter:200 which does the same thing for Team Project Bar - note that the wildcard *.* is allowed here. However, none of these work (each gives the error message shown): C:\> tf history /recursive /stopafter:200 The history command takes exactly one item C:\> tf history *.* /recursive /stopafter:200 Unable to determine the source control server C:\> tf history *.* /server:servername /recursive /stopafter:200 Unable to determine the workspace I don't see an option in the docs for tf for specifying a workspace; it seems to only want to determine it from the current folder. So what is VS 2005 doing? Is it internally doing a history on each Team Project in turn and then sticking the results together?? note also that I have tried with Power Tools; tfpt history from the command line gives exactly the same error messages seen here

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  • In which order is model binding and validation done in ASP.NET MVC 2?

    - by Simon Bartlett
    I am using ASP.NET MVC 2, and am using a view-model per view approach. I am also using Automapper to map properties from my domain-model to the view-model. Take this example view-model (with Required data annotation attributes for validation purposes): public class BlogPost_ViewModel { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public string Text { get; set; } } In the post editor view I am using a rich text editor (CKeditor). Because CKeditor is a HTML editor, I ideally need CKeditor to HTMLencode the user's input when the form is submitted, so that ASP.NET's input validation does not complain. This is not a problem as CKeditor has this functionality built in, however I need CKeditor's output decoded before mapping back to the domain object (via Automapper). I am wanting to add a new property (to the view-model above) to solve this, as follows: public string HTMLEncodedText { get { return HTMLEncode(Text); } set { Text = HTMLDecode(value); } } I can then bind this property to CKeditor in the view, but still use Automapper to map the 'Text' property in the controller - all without having to turn input-validation off. My question is: do you know how the model binding and validation process in ASP.NET MVC 2 works? Are all model properties binded before validation is carried out? Or is each individual property get validated when it is being set. I think ideally for my idea to work, all properties need to be set before the model is validated.

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  • Strange activity stack behavior when using MapActivity

    - by AndroidDev
    I have the following activity structure in my application A simple "splash screen" activity is started when the application is fired up (let's call it "Splash"). This activity starts the main activity when the user presses a button (I will call it "Main"). Main can in turn start two activities from the menu. The first activity presents a simple form (let's call this one "Form"), the second is a MapActivity that presents a map (it is called "Map"). Main, Form, and Map are declared exactly the same in the manifest: <activity android:name="fully qualified activity class" android:screenOrientation="landscape" android:configChanges="keyboard|keyboardHidden|orientation" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.DEFAULT" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> When Main is active and I start Form and press "back", Main comes up again. Pressing "back" again brings up "Splash". Nothing strange here. Now comes the strange part: when I am in Main, start Map, and press "back", Main comes up as expected. But pressing "back" again just restarts Main. A second press on "back" is needed to bring me back to Splash! So it seems that starting the Map activity somehow results in Main ending up on the activity stack twice while starting the Form activity does not! Both Form and Map are started like this: startActivity(new Intent(this, MyActivity.class)); I don not catch the back key in any activity. Any clues on what is going on or how to debug this?

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  • Android Scaled Drawing to ImageView

    - by user329999
    Newbie question, so there's probably a simple answer to this problem. I'm drawing some simple shapes using canvas.drawCircle(), canvas.drawLine() etc. I originally copied the code from: http://developer.android.com/resources/samples/ApiDemos/src/com/example/android/apis/graphics/DrawPoints.html Which extends a View and draws directly to a canvas. It doesn't load a pre-drawn bitmap because I need my application to turn data into a drawing and the user will enter the data. My changes work, but the drawing is too small (or big) and doesn't fill the screen using all the available screen. Ideally I'd rather use something like an ImageView in .XML like so: If that's possible. The documentation seems to imply that I want to set the scaleType as shown in the above .XML which seems like the simple way to do this. If using an ImageView in .XML is a good idea, then I'm lost on how to draw to the ImageView and could use some guidance on doing that task. If that won't work, then I'll need to do some more thinking about how to get my drawing scaled on the screen and basically I'm lazy and would rather have Android do the work for me. Feel free to suggest some other way that's completely different is this is the wrong solution path. :) Thanks.

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  • How to keep track of a private messaging system using MongoDB?

    - by luckytaxi
    Take facebook's private messaging system where you have to keep track of sender and receiver along w/ the message content. If I were using MySQL I would have multiple tables, but with MongoDB I'll try to avoid all that. I'm trying to come up with a "good" schema that can scale and is easy to maintain. If I were using mysql, I would have a separate table to reference the user and and message. See below ... profiles table user_id first_name last_name message table message_id message_body time_stamp user_message_ref table user_id (FK) message_id (FK) is_sender (boolean) With the schema listed above, I can query for any messages that "Bob" may have regardless if he's the recipient or sender. Now how to turn that into a schema that works with MongoDB. I'm thinking I'll have a separate collection to hold the messages. Problem is, how can I differentiate between the sender and the recipient? If Bob logs in, what do I query against? Depending on whether Bob initiated the email, I don't want to have to query against "sender" and "receiver" just to see if the message belongs to the user.

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  • Subclassing an NSTextField

    - by Hooligancat
    Given all the complex things I seem to cover every day, this appears to be a "what the heck am I doing wrong that seems to simple?" scenario! I would like to subclass an NSTextField to change the background color and text color. For simplicity sake (and to help anyone who hasn't ever subclassed anything before), here is the example of my (simplified) subclass MyNSTextFieldSubclass... Step 1: Create the subclass file: First the header file @interface MyTextFieldSubclass : NSTextField { } @end And the method file @implementation MyTextFieldSubclass -(NSColor *)backgroundColor { return [NSColor redColor]; } -(NSColor *)textColor { return [NSColor yellowColor]; } @end Step 2: Drag an NSTextField to a window in Interface Builder, select the Identity tab in the inspector and select the class MyTextFieldSubclass Step 3: Save the IB file, build and run the application Problem When I run the build, the text field does not reflect the color subclassing. However, I know the subclass is being called because if I add the following method, it gets called on text changes. -(void)textDidChange:(NSNotification *)notification { NSLog(@"My text changed"); } So why does the color change not occur on the text fields? I know that I can set the color in IB, but for anyone who has dealt with a lot of UI elements that all need the same styling, subclassing makes life way, way easier. Ironically, I have never had to subclass an NSTextField before and this one has me stumped. As usual, any and all help very much appreciated. I'm sure it will turn out to be a "Doh!" moment - just cant see the wood for the trees right now (plus I'm exhausted from watching too much World Cup Football early in the morning which never helps).

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  • writing a web service with dynamically determined web methods

    - by quillbreaker
    Let's say I have a text file of basic mathematical functions. I want to make a web service that answers these mathematical functions. Say the first one is y=x*x. If I wanted to turn this into a web service, I could simply do this: [WebMethod] public int A(int x) { return x*x; } However, I've extracted the function from the list by hand and coded it into a function by hand. That's not what I want to do. I want the wsdl for the service to be generated at call time directly from the text file, and I want the web method calls to the service to go to a specific method that also parses the text file at run time. How much heavy lifting is this? I've found a sample on how to generate WSDLs dynamically at this link, but there's a lot more to do beyond that and I don't want to bark up this tree if there are parts of the project that arn't feasible. Does anyone have any links, guides, books, or positive experiences trying this kind of thing?

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  • Building simple Reddit scraper

    - by Bazant Fundator
    Let's say that I would like to make a collection of images from reddit for my own amusement. I have ran the code on my development env and It haven't gone past the first page of posts (anything beyond requries the after string from the JSON. Additionally, When I turn on the validation, the whole loop breaks if the item doesn't pass it, not just the current iteration. I would be glad If you helped me understand mistakes I made. class Link include Mongoid::Document include Mongoid::Timestamps field :author, type: String field :url, type: String validates_uniqueness_of :url, # no duplicates validates :url, uniqueness :true end def fetch (count, after) count_s = count.to_s # convert count to string link = "http://reddit.com/r/aww/.json?count="+count_s+"&after="+after #so it can be used there res = HTTParty.get(link) # GET req. to the reddit server json = JSON.parse(res.body) # Parse the response if json['kind'] == "Listing" then # check if the retrieved item is a Listing for i in 1...(count) do # for each list item datum = json['data']['children'][i]['data'] #i-th element properties if datum['domain'].in?(["imgur.com", "i.imgur.com"]) then # fetch only imgur links Link.create!(author: datum['author'], url: datum['url']) # save to db end end count += 25 fetch(count, json['data']['after']) # if it retrieved the right kind of object, move on to the next page end end fetch(25," ") # run it

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  • Kohana 3, themes outside application.

    - by Marek
    Hi all I read http://forum.kohanaframework.org/comments.php?DiscussionID=5744&page=1#Item_0 and I want to use similar solution, but with db. In my site controller after(): $theme = $page->get_theme_name(); //Orange Kohana::set_module_path('themes', Kohana::get_module_path('themes').'/'.$theme); $this->template = View::factory('layout') I checked with firebug: fire::log(Kohana::get_module_path('themes')); // D:\tools\xampp\htdocs\kohana\themes/Orange I am sure that path exists. I have directly in 'Orange' folder 'views' folder with layout.php file. But I am getting: The requested view layout could not be found Extended Kohana_Core is just: public static function get_module_path($module_key) { return self::$_modules[$module_key]; } public static function set_module_path($module_key, $path) { self::$_modules[$module_key] = $path; } Could anybody help me with solving that issue? Maybe it is a .htaccess problem: # Turn on URL rewriting RewriteEngine On # Put your installation directory here: # If your URL is www.example.com/kohana/, use /kohana/ # If your URL is www.example.com/, use / RewriteBase /kohana/ # Protect application and system files from being viewed RewriteCond $1 ^(application|system|modules) # Rewrite to index.php/access_denied/URL RewriteRule ^(.*)$ / [PT,L] RewriteRule ^(media) - [PT,L] RewriteRule ^(themes) - [PT,L] # Allow these directories and files to be displayed directly: # - index.php (DO NOT FORGET THIS!) # - robots.txt # - favicon.ico # - Any file inside of the images/, js/, or css/ directories RewriteCond $1 ^(index\.php|robots\.txt|favicon\.ico|static) # No rewriting RewriteRule ^(.*)$ - [PT,L] # Rewrite all other URLs to index.php/URL RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [PT,L] Could somebody help? What I am doing wrong? Regards

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  • Cooperative/Non-preemptive threading avoiding threadlooks?

    - by Wayne
    Any creative ideas to avoid deadlocks on a yield or sleep with cooperative/non-preemptive multitasking without doing an O/S Thread.Sleep(10)? Typically the yield or sleep call will call back into the scheduler to run other tasks. But this can sometime produce deadlocks. Some background: This application has enormous need for speed and, so far, it's extremely fast as compared to other systems in the same industry. One of the speed techniques is cooperative/non-preemptive threading rather then the cost of a context switch from O/S threads. The high level design a priority manager which calls out to tasks depending on priority and processing time. Each task does one "iteration" of work and returns to wait its turn again in the priority queue. The tricky thing with non-preemptive threading is what to do when you want to a particular task to stop in the middle of work and wait for some other event from a different task before continuing. In this case, we have 3 tasks, A B and C where A is a controller that must synchronize the activity of B and C. First, A starts both B and C. Then B yields so C gets invoked. When C yields, A sees they are both inactive, decides it's time for B to run but not time for C yet. Well B is now stuck in a yield that has called C, so it can never run. Sincerely, Wayne

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  • HTML Element doesn't display when served with php5, restart server with php4 and Element displays.

    - by togglemedia
    Get this...I start the server in php5 and a specific HTML element ('a' element with a background image) is nowhere to be seen, I reboot the server in php4 and the HTML element is displaying properly. I boot back and forth between php5 and php4 with absolute consistent results, not displaying in php5 and displaying in php4. The thing that blows my mind is that: the HTML is consistent between boots of php5/4, so both scenarios have the necessary HTML elements the CSS is consistent between boots of php5/4, so both scenarios have the necessary CSS definitions there is an identically styled sibling element, with different class name that displays properly the problem is reproducible between browsers, between platforms. I've tested it on every possible config, Mac/Windows, IE6,7,8, FireFox, Safari etc... When the server is booted in php5 there is one HTML element that just doesn't display/render. A stab in the dark, I turned on PHP error reporting in php5 (to see if there would be any clues there) and low and behold the HTML element is now rendering in php5. I turn off PHP error reporting, and restart php5 and the HTML element is still rendering in php5, and the problem has been fixed...and I can't get the problem to reproduce. This is why my curiosity has brought me here. I just spent about four hours scratching my head trying to figure out how this could be. And now, I ask any php web dev gurus out there...what the heck was this all about?

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  • Configure IIS7 to server static content through ASP.NET Runtime

    - by Anton Gogolev
    I searched high an low and still cannot find a definite answer. How do I configure IIS 7.0 or a Web Application in IIS so that ASP.NET Runtime will handle all requests -- including ones to static files like *.js, *.gif, etc? What I'm trying to do is as follows. We have kind of SaaSy site, which we can "skin" for every customer. "Skinnig" means developing a custom master page and using a bunch of *.css and other images. Quite naturally, I'm using VirtualPathProvider, which operates like this: public override System.Web.Hosting.VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { if(PhysicalFileExists(virtualPath)) { var virtualFile = base.GetFile(virtualPath); return virtualFile; } if(VirtualFileExists(virtualPath)) { var brandedVirtualPath = GetBrandedVirtualPath(virtualPath); var absolutePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(brandedVirtualPath); Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("Serving '{0}' from '{1}'", brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath), "BrandingAwareVirtualPathProvider"); var virtualFile = new VirtualFile(brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath); return virtualFile; } return null; } The basic idea is as follows: we have a branding folder inside our webapp, which in turn contains folders for each "brand", with "brand" being equal to host name. That is, requests to http://foo.example.com/ should use static files from branding/foo_example_com, whereas http://bar.example.com/ should use content from branding/bar_example_com. Now what I want IIS to do is to forward all requests to static files to StaticFileHandler, which would then use this whole "infrastructure" and serve correct files. However, try as I might, I cannot configure IIS to do this.

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  • dotnetopenauth with asp.net mvc proving too frustrating to use.

    - by Stacey
    I've been trying excessively hard to implement a good open id solution into asp.net mvc - and everywhere I turn is absolute dead ends. DotNetOpenAuth is just too big and I have been thusfar unable to get even the most simplistic, basic, absolute cut and dry implementation of it to work. NerdDinner had a promising implementation, but it is impossible to track down all of the dependant files and scripts. The DotNetOpenAuth website has virtually no information that helps, either, unfortunately. Does ANYONE know of a simple approach to just implementing this that actually explains and details how it is working with some kind of selector? It is talked about so much, but everything I find for it is so difficult to work with that it is really putting my whole team off from even considering it. We want to implement it similar to how stack overflow already does - using a selector that'll popup a login page if it needs to. I realize there is a lot of code that needs to be done for this, but everything just hails and praises dotnetopenauth, and nothing really teaches it. Even the sample projects do not open or compile. It looks like a wonderful library - but it really just isn't clicking for me.

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  • Python with Wiimote using pywiiuse module

    - by Anon
    After seeing the abilities and hackibility of wiimotes I really want to use it in my 'Intro to programming' final. Everyone must make a python program and present it to the class. I want to make a game with pygame incorporating a wiimote. I found pywiiuse which is a very basic wrapper for the wiiuse library using c types. I can NOT get anything beyond LEDs and vibrating to work. Buttons, IR, motion sensing, nothing. I've tried different versions of wiiuse, pywiiuse, even python. I can't even get the examples that came with it to run. Here's the code I made as a simple test. I copied some of the example C++ code. from pywiiuse import * from time import sleep #Init wiimotes = wiiuse_init() #Find and start the wiimote found = wiiuse_find(wiimotes,1,5) #Make the variable wiimote to the first wiimote init() found wiimote = wiimotes.contents #Set Leds wiiuse_set_leds(wiimote,WIIMOTE_LED_1) #Rumble for 1 second wiiuse_rumble(wiimote,1) sleep(1) wiiuse_rumble(wiimote,0) #Turn motion sensing on(supposedly) wiiuse_motion_sensing(wiimote,1) while 1: #Poll the wiimotes to get the status like pitch or roll if(wiiuse_poll(wiimote,1)): print 'EVENT' And here's the output when I run it. wiiuse version 0.9 wiiuse api version 8 [INFO] Found wiimote [assigned wiimote id 1]. EVENT EVENT Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\Nick\Desktop\wiimotetext.py", line 26, in <mod ule> if(wiiuse_poll(wiimote,1)): WindowsError: exception: access violation reading 0x00000004 It seems each time I run it, it prints out EVENT 2-5 times until the trace back. I have no clue what to do at this point, I've been trying for the past two days to get it working. Thanks!

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  • Simple .HTACCESS Passing Variables

    - by Willie Murray III
    Let's says I have a classifieds site which has a URL structure similar to the one which I have listed below: Ex. http://takarat.com/openclassifieds/?category=iphone&location=tennessee This is what shows up when I click "tennessee" as the location and then click on "iphone" as the category. Now let's say this site has a search box and I wanted a URL which comes up after using this search box to show up as opposed to the previous URL. Let's say that whenever I search for the word "iphone" while WITHIN the iphone CATEGORY the following link shows up: Iphone SEARCH Ex. http://takarat.com/openclassifieds/?s=iphone&category=iphone&location=tennessee Ok, I want THAT iphone SEARCH to come up whenever anyone clicks Tennessee Iphone..How would I do this [by the way, I want this to be dynamic so that I can use the code for different combinations of locations and products etc..I want the code to use the CATEGORY name to conduct the search basically]? I believe that this will involve "Passing varibles" from the original link... I am new to programming so I may have my terminology wrong. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. TURN THIS: takarat.com/openclassifieds/?category=iphone[var 1]&location=tennessee[var2] INTO THIS: takarat.com/openclassifieds/?s=iphone[var 1]&category=iphone[var 1]&location=tennessee[var2]

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  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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  • Getting Google results in Java? Need help!

    - by Cris Carter
    Hello. Right now, I'm trying to get the results from Google in Java, by searching for a term. I'm using a desktop program, not an applet. That in itself isn't complicated. but then Google gave me a 403 error. Anyways, I added referrer and User Agent and then it worked. Now, my problem is that I don't get the results page from Google. Instead, I get their script which gets the results page. My code right now simply uses a GET request on "http://www.google.com/search?q=" + Dork; Then it outputs each line. Here is what I get when I run my program: <.!doctype html<.head<.titledork - Google Search<./title<.scriptwindow.google={kEI:"9myaS-Date).getTime()}}};try{}catch(u){}window.google.jsrt_kill=1; align:center}#logo{display:block;overflow:hidden;position:relative;width:103px;height:37px; <./ script<./div Lots of stuff like that. I shortened it (A LOT) and put in dots to fit it here. So my big question is: How do I turn this whole mess into the nice results page I get when searching Google with a browser? Any help would be seriously appreciated, and I really need the answer fast. Also, please keep in mind that I do NOT want to use Google's API for this. Thanks in advance!

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