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  • Getting instance crashes on IntelliJ IDEA with scala plugin.

    - by egervari
    I am building a scala web project using scala test, lift, jpa, hibernate, mercurial plugin, etc. I am getting instant crashes, where the ide just bombs, the window shuts down, and it gives no error messages whatsoever when I am doing any amount of copy/pasting of code. This started happening once my project got to about 100 unit tests. This problem is incredibly annoying, because when the crash happens, 30-60 seconds of activity is not saved. Even IDEA will forget which files were last opened and will forget where the cursor was, which makes it really hard to continue where you left off after the crash. A lot can happen in 60 seconds! Now, I've given up, because it seems like all sorts of things cause the IntelliJ IDEA to crash over and over. For example, if I were to copy and paste this code, to write a similar test for another collection type, it would crash shortly after: it should "cascade save and delete status messages" in { val statusMessage = new StatusMessage("message") var user = userDao.find(1).get user.addToStatusMessages(statusMessage) userDao.save(user) statusMessage.isPersistent should be (true) userDao.delete(user) statusMessageDao.find(statusMessage.id) should equal (None) } There is nothing special about this piece of code. It's code that is working just fine. However, IDEA bombs shortly after I paste something like this. For example, I might change StatusMessage to the new class I want to test cascading on... and then have to import that class into the test... and BOOM... it crashed. On windows 7, the IDEA window literally just minimizes and crashes with no warning. The next time I startup IDEA, it has no memory of what happened. Now, I've had this problem before. I posted it way back on IDEA's YouTrack. I was told to invalidate my caches. That never fixed it then, and it's not fixing it now. Please help. This error is fairly random, but it's happening constantly now. I could program for hours and not see it before... and the fact that my work just gets destroyed and I can't remember what I did during the last minute causes me to swear at my monitor at a db level higher than my stereo can go.

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • What is fastest way to convert bool to byte?

    - by Amir Rezaei
    What is fastest way to convert bool to byte? I want this mapping: False=0, True=1 Note: I don't want to use any if statement. Update: I don't want to use conditional statement. I don't want the CPU to halt or guess next statement. I want to optimize this code: private static string ByteArrayToHex(byte[] barray) { char[] c = new char[barray.Length * 2]; byte k; for (int i = 0; i < barray.Length; ++i) { k = ((byte)(barray[i] >> 4)); c[i * 2] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); k = ((byte)(barray[i] & 0xF)); c[i * 2 + 1] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); } return new string(c); } Update: The length of the array is very large, it's in terabyte order! Therefore I need to do optimization if possible. I shouldn't need to explain my self. The question is still valid. Update: I'm working on a project and looking at others code. That's why I didn't provide with the function at first place. I didn't want to spend time on explaining for people when they have opinion about the code. I shouldn’y need to provide in my question the background of my work, and a function that is not written by me. I have started to optimize it part by part. If I needed help with the whole function I would asked that in another question. That is why I asked this very simple at the beginning. Unfortunately people couldn’t keep themselves to the question. So please if you want to help answer the question. Update: For dose who want to see the point of this question. This example shows how two if statement are reduced from the code. byte A = k > 9 ; //If it was possible (k>9) == 0 || 1 c[i * 2] = A * (k + 0x30) - (A - 1) * (k + 0x30);

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  • PHP array pointer craziness

    - by JMan
    I'm trying to create a "GetCurrentLevel" method that takes a point value as an input and returns what "Level" that corresponds to. I'm storing the Level = Points mapping in an array, but the array pointer is not moving logically when I use it a foreach loop. I've added echo statements for debugging. Here's my class definition: class Levels extends Model { protected $_map = array ( 'None' => 0, 'Bronze' => 50, 'Silver' => 200, 'Gold' => 500 ); public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } public function GetCurrentLevel($points) { foreach ($this->_map as $name => $threshold) { echo "Level Name: $name<br/>"; echo "Level Threshold: $threshold<br/>"; echo "Current Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; echo "Current Threshold: " . current($this->_map) . "<br/>"; if ($points < $threshold) /* Threshold is now above the points, so need to go back one level */ { $previousThreshold = prev($this->_map); echo "Previous Threshold: $previousThreshold<br/>"; echo "Final Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; return key($this->_map); } echo "Go to next level <br/>"; } } And here is what I see when I call GetCurrentLevel(60): Level Name: None Level Threshold: 0 Current Level: Bronze //* Looks like foreach immediately moves the array pointer *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Bronze Level Threshold: 50 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Silver Level Threshold: 200 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Previous Threshold: 0 Final Level: None But the "Final Level" should be 'Bronze' since 60 points is above the 50 points needed for a Bronze medal, but below the 200 points needed for a Silver medal. Sorry for the long post. Thanks for your help!

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  • ASP.NET Application Level vs. Session Level and Global.asax...confused

    - by contactmatt
    The following text is from the book I'm reading, 'MCTS Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-515) Web Applications Development with ASP.NET 4". It gives the rundown of the Application Life Cycle. A user first makes a request for a page in your site. The request is routed to the processing pipeline, which forwards it to the ASP.NET runtime. The ASP.NET runtime creates an instance of the ApplicationManager class; this class instance represents the .NET framework domain that will be used to execute requests for your application. An application domain isolates global variables from other applications and allows each application to load and unload separately, as required. After the application domain has been created, an instance of the HostingEnvironment class is created. This class provides access to items inside the hosting environment, such as directory folders. ASP.NET creates instances of the core objects that will be used to process the request. This includes HttpContext, HttpRequest, and HttpResponse objects. ASP.NET creates an instance of the HttpApplication class (or an instance is reused). This class is also the base class for a site’s Global.asax file. You can use this class to trap events that happen when your application starts or stops. When ASP.NET creates an instance of HttpApplication, it also creates the modules configured for the application, such as the SessionStateModule. Finally, ASP.NET processes request through the HttpApplication pipleline. This pipeline also includes a set of events for validating requests, mapping URLs, accessing the cache, and more. The book then demonstrated an example of using the Global.asax file: <script runat="server"> void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application["UsersOnline"] = 0; } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> When does an application start? Whats the difference between session and application level? I'm rather confused on how this is managed. I thought that Application level classes "sat on top of" an AppDomain object, and the AppDomain contained information specific to that Session for that user. Could someone please explain how IIS manages Applicaiton level classes, and how an HttpApplication class sits under an AppDomain? Anything is appreciated.

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  • BizTalk - generating schema from Oracle stored proc with table variable argument

    - by Ron Savage
    I'm trying to set up a simple example project in BizTalk that gets changes made to a table in a SQL Server db and updates a copy of that table in an Oracle db. On the SQL Server side, I have a stored proc named GetItemChanges() that returns a variable number of records. On the Oracle side, I have a stored proc named Update_Item_Region_Table() designed to take a table of records as a parameter so that it can process all the records returned from GetItemChanges() in one call. It is defined like this: create or replace type itemrec is OBJECT ( UPC VARCHAR2(15), REGION VARCHAR2(5), LONG_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(50), POS_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(30), POS_DEPT VARCHAR2(5), ITEM_SIZE VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_UOM VARCHAR2(5), BRAND VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_STATUS VARCHAR2(5), TIME_STAMP VARCHAR2(20), COSTEDBYWEIGHT INTEGER ); create or replace type tbl_of_rec is table of itemrec; create or replace PROCEDURE Update_Item_Region_table ( Item_Data tbl_of_rec ) IS errcode integer; errmsg varchar2(4000); BEGIN for recIndex in 1 .. Item_Data.COUNT loop update FL_ITEM_REGION_TEST set Region = Item_Data(recIndex).Region, Long_description = Item_Data(recIndex).Long_description, Pos_Description = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_description, Pos_Dept = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_dept, Item_Size = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Size, Item_Uom = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Uom, Brand = Item_Data(recIndex).Brand, Item_Status = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Status, Timestamp = to_date(Item_Data(recIndex).Time_stamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd HH24:mi:ss'), CostedByWeight = Item_Data(recIndex).CostedByWeight where UPC = Item_Data(recIndex).UPC; log_message(Item_Data(recIndex).Region, '', 'Updated item ' || Item_Data(recIndex).UPC || '.'); end loop; EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN errcode := SQLCODE(); errmsg := SQLERRM(); log_message('CE', '', 'Error in Update_Item_Region_table(): Code [' || errcode || '], Msg [' || errmsg || '] ...'); END; In my BizTalk project I generate the schemas and binding information for both stored procedures. For the Oracle procedure, I specified a path for the GeneratedUserTypesAssemblyFilePath parameter to generate a DLL to contain the definition of the data types. In the Send Port on the server, I put the path to that Types DLL in the UserAssembliesLoadPath parameter. I created a map to translate the GetItemChanges() schema to the Update_Item_Region_Table() schema. When I run it the data is extracted and transformed fine but causes an exception trying to pass the data to the Oracle proc: *The adapter failed to transmit message going to send port "WcfSendPort_OracleDBBinding_HOST_DATA_Procedure_Custom" with URL "oracledb://dvotst/". It will be retransmitted after the retry interval specified for this Send Port. Details:"System.InvalidOperationException: Custom type mapping for 'HOST_DATA.TBL_OF_REC' is not specified or is invalid.* So it is apparently not getting the information about the custom data type TBL_OF_REC into the Types DLL. Any tips on how to make this work?

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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • ADO Exception in HQL query

    - by Yoav
    I have 2 classes: Project and DataStructure. Class Project contains member List<DataStructure. My goal is to load a Project and all its DataStructures in one call. public class Project { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual ISet<DataStructure> DataStructures { get { } set { } } } public class DataStructure { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual string Description { get { } set { } } public virtual Project Project { get { } set { } } public virtual IList<DataField> Fields { get { } set { } } } Note that DataStructure also contains a list of class DataField but I don’t want to load these right now. Mapping in Fluent NHibernate: public class ProjectMap : ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Table("PROJECTS"); Id(x => x.Pk, "PK"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); HasMany<DataStructure>(x => x.DataStructures).KeyColumn("FK_PROJECT"); } } public class DataStructureMap : ClassMap<DataStructure> { public DataStructureMap() { Table("DATA_STRUCTURES"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); Map(x => x.Description, "DESCRIPTION"); References<Project>(x => x.Project, "FK_PROJECT"); HasMany<DataField>(x => x.Fields).KeyColumn("FK_DATA_STRUCTURE"); } } This is my query: using (ISession session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("from Project pr left join pr.DataStructure"); project = query.List<Project>(); } query.List() returns this exception: NHibernate.Exceptions.GenericADOException: Could not execute query[SQL: SQL not available] ---> System.ArgumentException: The value "System.Object[]" is not of type "Project" and cannot be used in this generic collection.

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  • How to distort the desktop screen

    - by HaifengWang
    Hi friends, I want to change the shape of the desktop screen, so what are displayed on the desktop will be distorted at the same time. And the user can still operate the PC with the mouse on the distorted desktop(Run the applications, Open the "My Computer" and so on). I think I must get the projection matrix of the screen coordinate at first. Then transform the matrix, and map the desktop buffer image to the distorted mesh. Are there any interfaces which can modify the shape of the desktop screen in OpenGL or DirectX? Would you please give me some tip on it. Thank you very much in advance. Please refer to the picture from http://oi53.tinypic.com/bhewdx.jpg BR, Haifeng Addition1: I'm sorry! Maybe I didn't express clearly what I want to implement. What I want to implement is to modify the shape of the screen. So we can distort the shapes of all the applications which are run on Windows at the same time. For example that the window of "My Computer" will be distorted with the distortion of the desktop screen. And we can still operate the PC with mouse from the distorted desktop(Click the shortcut to run a program). Addition2: The projection matrix is just my assume. There isn't any desktop projection matrix by which the desktop surface is projected to the screen. What I want to implement is to change the shape of the desktop, as the same with mapping the desktop to an 3D mesh. But the user can still operate the OS on the distorted desktop(Click the shortcut to run a program, open the ie to surf the internet). Addition3: The shapes of all the programs run on the OS are changed with the distortion of the screen. It's realtime. The user can still operate the OS on the distorted screen as usually. Maybe we can intercept or override the GPU itself to implement the effect. I'm investigating GDI, I think I can find some clue for that. The first step is to find how to show the desktop on the screen.

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • Create a Color Picker, similar to Photoshop's, using Javascript and HTML Canvas

    - by André Alçada Padez
    I am not at all versed in Computer Graphics and am in need of creating a color picker as a javascript tool to embed in an HTML page. First, and looking at Photoshop's one, i thought of the RGB palette as a three-dimensional matrix. My first attempt envolved: <script type="text/javascript"> var rgCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); rgCanvas.width = 256; rgCanvas.height = 256; rgCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (g = 0; g < 256; g++){ for (r = 0; r < 256; r++){ var context = rgCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(r,g); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + r + ', ' + g + ', 0)'; context.lineTo(r+1,g+1); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } } var bCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); bCanvas.width = 20; bCanvas.height = 256; bCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (b = 0; b < 256; b++){ var context = bCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(0,b); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + 0 + ', ' + 0 + ', ' + b + ')'; context.lineTo(20, b); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } document.body.appendChild(rgCanvas); document.body.appendChild(bCanvas); </script> this results in something like My thought is this is too linear, comparing to the ones i see in Photoshop and on the web. I would like to know the logic behind the color mapping in a picker like this: I don't really need the algorythms itself, i'm mainly trying to understand the logic. Thanks

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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • When may I ask a question to fellow developers? (Rules before asking questions).

    - by Zwei Steinen
    I assigned a quite simple task to one junior developer today, and he kept pinging me EVERY 5 minutes for HOURS, asking STEP BY STEP, what to do. Whenever something went wrong, he simply copy&pasted the log and basically wrote, "An exception occurred. What should I do?" So I finally had to tell him, "If you want to be a developer, please start thinking a little bit. Read the error message. That's what they are for!". I also however, tell junior developers to ask questions before spending too much time trying to solve it themselves. This might sound contradictory, but I feel there is some kind of an implicit rule that distinguishes questions that should be asked fairly quickly and that should not (and I try to follow those rules when I ask questions..) So my question is, do you have any rules that you follow, or expect others to follow on asking questions? If so, what are they? Let me start with my own. If you have struggled for more than 90 min, you may ask that question (exceptions exists). If you haven't struggled for more than 15 min, you may not ask that question (if you are sure that the answer can not be found within 15 min, this rule does not have to apply). If it is completely out of your domain and you do not plan to learn that domain, you may ask that question after 15 min (e.g. if I am a java programmer and need to back up the DB, I may ask the DBA what procedure to follow after googling for 15 min). If it is a "local" question, whose answer is difficult to derive or for which resources is difficult to get (e.g. asking an colleague "what method xxx does" etc.), you may ask that question after 15 min. If the answer for it is difficult to derive, and you know that the other person knows the answer, you may ask the question after 15 min (e.g. asking a hibernate expert "What do I need to change else to make this work?". If the process to derive the answer is interesting and is a good learning opportunity, you may ask for hints but you may not ask for answers! What are your rules?

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  • Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

    - by metaleap
    I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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  • Making a grid on iPhone using Opengl

    - by TheGambler
    I'm trying to make a grid similar to what you would see in these geo games(geoDefense/geometry wars). I'm wanting to apply separate transformation matrixes to each to create different effects. So, it makes since to me that I need to draw each square separately to that I can apply a different transformation to each one. The problem I'm having is mapping these grids out or connecting the squares. The coordinate systems is still confusing to me. I know it would be easy just to create a huge triangle strip but I'm not able to figure out a way to apply separate transformations to each square( quad ) if I use triangle strips. So first question: Can you apply different transformations to quads if you use a triangle strip to draw a huge grid? If so, any tips suggestions on how to do so? If not, how does one usually connect textures without using triangle strips? Here is my coord setup: const GLfloat zNear = 0.01, zFar = 1000.0, fieldOfView = 45.0; GLfloat size; glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); size = zNear * tanf(DEGREES_TO_RADIANS(fieldOfView) / 2.0); CGRect rect = view.bounds; glFrustumf(-size, size, -size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), zNear, zFar); glViewport(0, 0, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); Here is my draw: - (void)drawView:(GLView*)view; { int loop; //glColor4f(1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 0.5); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); //Grid Loop for( loop = 0; loop < kNumberSectionsInGrid; loop++ ) { //glLoadIdentity(); static Matrix3D shearMatrix; Matrix3DSetShear(shearMatrix, 0.2, 0.2); static Matrix3D finalMatrix; //Matrix3DMultiply(temp2Matrix, shearMatrix, finalMatrix); glLoadMatrixf(shearMatrix); glTranslatef(-1.0f,(float)loop,-3.0f); glScalef(0.1, 0.1, 0.0); Vertex3D vertices[] = { {-1.0, 1.0, 0.5}, { 1.0, 1.0, 0.5}, { -1.0, -1.0, 0.5}, { 1.0, -1.0, 0.5} }; static const Vector3D normals[] = { {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, {0.0, 0.0, 1.0}, }; GLfloat texCoords[] = { 0.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 0.0 }; glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glEnableClientState(GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texture[0]); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, vertices); glNormalPointer(GL_FLOAT, 0, normals); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glDisableClientState(GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); } } glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW);

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  • Communicate progress from local Service

    - by kpdvx
    An application I'm building uses a local Service for downloading files from the web to the phone's SD card. In this app users can browse lists of books, and read them while online. A user can also download a pdf copy of a book for offline viewing. To handle downloads I'm using a locally bound Service. I do not want this Service to run all the time, only when downloading files. So that the Service can shut itself down when its tasks are complete, I am not binding to the service, rather I'm sending an "enqueue for download" command through the Intent passed to Context.startService. Books available for download are shown in a list. A user can choose to download a book by clicking on its row in the list. On download, I need to show download progress using a ProgressBar on the actual book list row. I need to also show, on the rows, if a book is enqueued for download, or if its download has completed or failed. The books can be shown in different activities throughout the application--in search, or in the user's list of favorite books, for example. When the books are shown in different places, these are not the same objects, but they are uniquely identified by their bookId. Because I do not want to bind to the service from every Activity, my tentative plan was to use a public static final HashMap on the Service class itself to contain a mapping of bookId to download status, an enum of enqueued, downloading, cancelled, etc. Each book view, when displayed, would check this static HashMap, and if the bookId is in the map, retrieve and display its status. I don't particularly like this idea, but at the moment it's the only way I can think of to retrieve status from the Service without having to bind to it and start it. Additionally I need to retrieve download progress percent from the Service, for a given bookId, if it is the active download. Again I'd rather not bind to the service from every activity, so I'm not sure how to go about retrieving current progress from the Service. My current plan is to use some sort of singleton mediator, that the Service will push updates to, and the views can read from. But I'm not terribly happy with this idea. The reason I'd like to avoid binding to the Service from each Activity is 1.) I'm already running another Service and 2.) binding is verbose and I'd like to avoid needing to pass around a reference to the Service (but admittedly this isn't too much of a problem). Perhaps binding to the local Service isn't expensive enough to warrant this other setup? Should I not be concerned about binding to it from each Activity? Maybe this is a non-issue?

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  • Asyncronous While Loop?

    - by o7th Web Design
    I have a pretty great SqlDataReader wrapper in which I can map the output into a strongly typed list. What I am finding now is that on larger datasets with larger numbers of columns, performance could probably be a bit better if I can optimize my mapping. In thinking about this there is one section in particular that I am concerned about as it seems to be the heaviest hitter: while (_Rdr.Read()) { T newObject = new T(); for (int i = 0; i <= _Rdr.FieldCount - 1; ++i) { PropertyInfo info = (PropertyInfo)_ht[_Rdr.GetName(i).ToUpper()]; if ((info != null) && info.CanWrite) { info.SetValue(newObject, (_Rdr.GetValue(i) is DBNull) ? default(T) : _Rdr.GetValue(i), null); } } _en.Add(newObject); } _Rdr.Close(); What I would really like to know, is if there is a way that I can make this loop asyncronous? I feel that will make all the difference in the world with this beast :) Here is the entire Map method in case anyone can see where I can make further improvements on it... IList<T> Map<T> // Map our datareader object to a strongly typed list private static IList<T> Map<T>(IDataReader _Rdr) where T : new() { try { Type _t = typeof(T); List<T> _en = new List<T>(); Hashtable _ht = new Hashtable(); PropertyInfo[] _props = _t.GetProperties(); Parallel.ForEach(_props, info => { _ht[info.Name.ToUpper()] = info; }); while (_Rdr.Read()) { T newObject = new T(); for (int i = 0; i <= _Rdr.FieldCount - 1; ++i) { PropertyInfo info = (PropertyInfo)_ht[_Rdr.GetName(i).ToUpper()]; if ((info != null) && info.CanWrite) { info.SetValue(newObject, (_Rdr.GetValue(i) is DBNull) ? default(T) : _Rdr.GetValue(i), null); } } _en.Add(newObject); } _Rdr.Close(); return _en; }catch(Exception ex){ _Msg += "Wrapper.Map Exception: " + ex.Message; ErrorReporting.WriteEm.WriteItem(ex, "o7th.Class.Library.Data.Wrapper.Map", _Msg); return default(IList<T>); } }

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  • FFmpeg extract clip - stream frame rate differs from container frame rate (x264, aac)

    - by fideli
    Summary H.264 video seems to have a really high frame rate that requires a scaling factor to the applied to the duration of video that I'm trying to extract (900x lower). Body I'm trying to extract a clip from a movie that I have in MP4 format (created using Handbrake). After trying mencoder and VLC, I decided to give FFmpeg a shot since it was the least troublesome when it came to copying the codecs. That is, compared to mencoder and VLC, the resulting file was still playable in QuickTime (I know about Perian, etc, I'm just trying to learn how all this works). Anyway, my command was as follows: ffmpeg -ss 01:15:51 -t 00:05:59 -i outofsight.mp4 \ -acodec copy -vcodec copy clip.mp4 During the copy, The following comes up: Seems stream 0 codec frame rate differs from container frame rate: 45000.00 (45000/1) -> 25.00 (25/1) Input #0, mov,mp4,m4a,3gp,3g2,mj2, from outofsight.mp4': Duration: 01:57:42.10, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 830 kb/s Stream #0.0(und): Video: h264, yuv420p, 720x384, 25 tbr, 22500 tbn, 45k tbc Stream #0.1(eng): Audio: aac, 48000 Hz, stereo, s16 Output #0, mp4, to 'out.mp4': Stream #0.0(und): Video: libx264, yuv420p, 720x384, q=2-31, 90k tbn, 22500 tbc Stream #0.1(eng): Audio: libfaac, 48000 Hz, stereo, s16 Stream mapping: Stream #0.0 -> #0.0 Stream #0.1 -> #0.1 Press [q] to stop encoding frame= 2591 fps=2349 q=-1.0 size= 8144kB time=101.60 bitrate= 656.7kbits/s … Instead of a 5:59 duration clip, I get the entire rest of the movie. So, to test this, I ran the ffmpeg command with -t 00:00:01. What I got was exactly a 15:00 minute clip. So I did some black box engineering and decided to scale my -t option by calculating what value to enter given that 1 second was interpreted as 900 s. For my desired 359 s clip, I calculated 0.399 s and so my ffmpeg command became: ffmpeg -ss 01:15.51 -t 00:00:00.399 -i outofsight.mp4 \ -acodec copy -vcodec copy clip.mp4 This works, but I have no idea why the duration is scaled by 900. Investigating further, each ffmpeg run has the line: Seems stream 0 codec frame rate differs from container frame rate: 45000.00 (45000/1) -> 25.00 (25/1) 45000/25 = 1800. Must be a relation somewhere. Somehow, the obscenely high frame rate is causing issues with the timing. How is that frame rate so high? The best part about this is that the resulting clip.mp4 has the exact same feature (due to the copied video codec), and taking further clips from this needs the same scaling for the -t duration option. Therefore, I've made it available for anyone willing to check this out. Appendix The preamble for ffmpeg on my system (built using MacPorts ffmpeg port): FFmpeg version 0.5, Copyright (c) 2000-2009 Fabrice Bellard, et al. configuration: --prefix=/opt/local --disable-vhook --enable-gpl --enable-postproc --enable-swscale --enable-avfilter --enable-avfilter-lavf --enable-libmp3lame --enable-libvorbis --enable-libtheora --enable-libdirac --enable-libschroedinger --enable-libfaac --enable-libfaad --enable-libxvid --enable-libx264 --mandir=/opt/local/share/man --enable-shared --enable-pthreads --cc=/usr/bin/gcc-4.2 --arch=x86_64 libavutil 49.15. 0 / 49.15. 0 libavcodec 52.20. 0 / 52.20. 0 libavformat 52.31. 0 / 52.31. 0 libavdevice 52. 1. 0 / 52. 1. 0 libavfilter 1. 4. 0 / 1. 4. 0 libswscale 1. 7. 1 / 1. 7. 1 libpostproc 51. 2. 0 / 51. 2. 0 built on Jan 4 2010 21:51:51, gcc: 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646) (dot 1)

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  • FFSERVER - streaming an ASF video as Webm output

    - by Emmanuel Brunet
    I'm trying to stream an IP webcam ASF live stream to a ffserver to output a webm video format. The server starts successfully but the ffserver commands used to feed the ffserver fails and generates a core dump. Environment Debian 7.5 ffmpeg 2.2 Input stream $ ffprobe http://account:password@webcam/videostream.asf Input #0, asf, from 'http://admin:alpha1237@webcam/videostream.asf': Duration: N/A, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 32 kb/s Stream #0:0: Video: mjpeg (MJPG / 0x47504A4D), yuvj422p(pc), 640x480, 25 tbr, 1k tbn, 1k tbc Stream #0:1: Audio: adpcm_ima_wav ([17][0][0][0] / 0x0011), 8000 Hz, 1 channels, s16p, 32 kb/s ffserver configuration my ffserver configuration is : Port 8091 RTSPPort 554 BindAddress 192.168.1.62 MaxHTTPConnections 1000 MaxClients 100 MaxBandwidth 1000 CustomLog - <Feed webcam.ffm> File /tmp/webcam.ffm FileMaxSize 500M ACL allow localhost ACL allow 192.168.0.0 192.168.255.255 </Feed> <Stream webcam.webm> # Output stream URL definition Feed webcam.ffm # Feed from which to receive video Format webm # Audio settings AudioCodec vorbis AudioBitRate 64 # Audio bitrate # Video settings VideoCodec libvpx VideoSize 640x480 # Video resolution VideoFrameRate 25 # Video FPS AVOptionVideo flags +global_header # Parameters passed to encoder # (same as ffmpeg command-line parameters) AVOptionVideo cpu-used 0 AVOptionVideo qmin 10 AVOptionVideo qmax 42 AVOptionVideo quality good AVOptionAudio flags +global_header PreRoll 15 StartSendOnKey # VideoBitRate 32 # Video bitrate </Stream> <Stream status.html> Format status # Only allow local people to get the status ACL allow localhost ACL allow 192.168.0.0 192.168.255.255 </Stream> ffmpeg feed I run the following command that fails $ ffmpeg -i http://account:password@webcam/videostream.asf http://192.168.1.62:8091/webcam.ffm http://192.168.1.62:8091/webcam.ffm Input #0, asf, from 'http://account:password@webcam/videostream.asf': Duration: N/A, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 32 kb/s Stream #0:0: Video: mjpeg (MJPG / 0x47504A4D), yuvj422p(pc), 640x480, 25 tbr, 1k tbn, 1k tbc Stream #0:1: Audio: adpcm_ima_wav ([17][0][0][0] / 0x0011), 8000 Hz, mono, s16p, 32 kb/s [swscaler @ 0x36a80c0] deprecated pixel format used, make sure you did set range correctly Segmentation fault I tryed $ ffmpeg -i http://account:password@webcam/videostream.asf -pix_fmt yuv420p http://192.168.1.62:8091/webcam.ffm But it raises the same error. Thanks for your help Edit For an easy testing (I thought), I tried to publish the whole ASF stream as is, meaning connecting the ASF webcam output stream to the ffserver that outputs ASF format too. And thus with mirrored encoding so I changed the ffserver configuration to ... <Stream webcam.asf> Feed webcam.ffm Format asf VideoFrameRate 25 VideoSize 640X480 VideoBitRate 256 VideoBufferSize 1000 VideoGopSize 30 AudioBitRate 32 StartSendOnKey </Stream> ... And the output is now : Input #0, asf, from 'http://admin:alpha1237@webcam/videostream.asf': Duration: N/A, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 32 kb/s Stream #0:0: Video: mjpeg (MJPG / 0x47504A4D), yuvj422p(pc), 640x480, 1k tbr, 1k tbn, 1k tbc Stream #0:1: Audio: adpcm_ima_wav ([17][0][0][0] / 0x0011), 8000 Hz, mono, s16p, 32 kb/s [swscaler @ 0x3d620c0] deprecated pixel format used, make sure you did set range correctly Output #0, ffm, to 'http://192.168.1.62:8091/webcam.ffm': Metadata: creation_time : now encoder : Lavf55.40.100 Stream #0:0: Audio: wmav2, 22050 Hz, mono, fltp, 32 kb/s Metadata: encoder : Lavc55.64.100 wmav2 Stream #0:1: Video: msmpeg4v3 (msmpeg4), yuv420p, 640x480, q=2-31, 256 kb/s, 1k fps, 1000k tbn, 1k tbc Metadata: Stream mapping: Stream #0:1 -> #0:0 (adpcm_ima_wav -> wmav2) Stream #0:0 -> #0:1 (mjpeg -> msmpeg4) Press [q] to stop, [?] for help Segmentation fault I can't even forward the stream.

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  • Why can't I convert FLV to MP4 format using FFmpeg when MP3 works?

    - by hugemeow
    In fact I have succeeded to convert FLV to MP3: D:\tmp\ffmpeg-20121005-git-d9dfe9a-win64-static\ffmpeg-20121005-git-d9dfe9a-win 4-static\bin>ffmpeg.exe -i a.flv -acodec mp3 a.mp3 ffmpeg version N-45080-gd9dfe9a Copyright (c) 2000-2012 the FFmpeg developers built on Oct 5 2012 16:49:01 with gcc 4.7.1 (GCC) configuration: --enable-gpl --enable-version3 --disable-pthreads --enable-run ime-cpudetect --enable-avisynth --enable-bzlib --enable-frei0r --enable-libass -enable-libcelt --enable-libopencore-amrnb --enable-libopencore-amrwb --enable- ibfreetype --enable-libgsm --enable-libmp3lame --enable-libnut --enable-libopen peg --enable-librtmp --enable-libschroedinger --enable-libspeex --enable-libthe ra --enable-libutvideo --enable-libvo-aacenc --enable-libvo-amrwbenc --enable-l bvorbis --enable-libvpx --enable-libx264 --enable-libxavs --enable-libxvid --en ble-zlib libavutil 51. 73.102 / 51. 73.102 libavcodec 54. 63.100 / 54. 63.100 libavformat 54. 29.105 / 54. 29.105 libavdevice 54. 3.100 / 54. 3.100 libavfilter 3. 19.102 / 3. 19.102 libswscale 2. 1.101 / 2. 1.101 libswresample 0. 16.100 / 0. 16.100 libpostproc 52. 1.100 / 52. 1.100 Input #0, flv, from 'a.flv': Metadata: metadatacreator : iku hasKeyframes : true hasVideo : true hasAudio : true hasMetadata : true canSeekToEnd : false datasize : 16906383 videosize : 14558526 audiosize : 2270465 lasttimestamp : 530 lastkeyframetimestamp: 529 lastkeyframelocation: 16893721 Duration: 00:08:49.73, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 255 kb/s Stream #0:0: Video: h264 (Main), yuv420p, 448x336 [SAR 1:1 DAR 4:3], 218 kb s, 15 tbr, 1k tbn, 30 tbc Stream #0:1: Audio: aac, 44100 Hz, stereo, s16, 32 kb/s File 'a.mp3' already exists. Overwrite ? [y/N] y Output #0, mp3, to 'a.mp3': Metadata: metadatacreator : iku hasKeyframes : true hasVideo : true hasAudio : true hasMetadata : true canSeekToEnd : false datasize : 16906383 videosize : 14558526 audiosize : 2270465 lasttimestamp : 530 lastkeyframetimestamp: 529 lastkeyframelocation: 16893721 TSSE : Lavf54.29.105 Stream #0:0: Audio: mp3, 44100 Hz, stereo, s16 Stream mapping: Stream #0:1 -> #0:0 (aac -> libmp3lame) Press [q] to stop, [?] for help size= 8279kB time=00:08:49.78 bitrate= 128.0kbits/s video:0kB audio:8278kB subtitle:0 global headers:0kB muxing overhead 0.006842% But I failed to convert FLV to MP4. Why is the encoder 'mp4' unknown? What's more, how can I find the codecs which are already supported by my FFmpeg? D:\tmp\ffmpeg-20121005-git-d9dfe9a-win64-static\ffmpeg-20121005-git-d9dfe9a-win6 4-static\bin>ffmpeg.exe -i a.flv -acodec mp4 aa.mp4 ffmpeg version N-45080-gd9dfe9a Copyright (c) 2000-2012 the FFmpeg developers built on Oct 5 2012 16:49:01 with gcc 4.7.1 (GCC) configuration: --enable-gpl --enable-version3 --disable-pthreads --enable-runt ime-cpudetect --enable-avisynth --enable-bzlib --enable-frei0r --enable-libass - -enable-libcelt --enable-libopencore-amrnb --enable-libopencore-amrwb --enable-l ibfreetype --enable-libgsm --enable-libmp3lame --enable-libnut --enable-libopenj peg --enable-librtmp --enable-libschroedinger --enable-libspeex --enable-libtheo ra --enable-libutvideo --enable-libvo-aacenc --enable-libvo-amrwbenc --enable-li bvorbis --enable-libvpx --enable-libx264 --enable-libxavs --enable-libxvid --ena ble-zlib libavutil 51. 73.102 / 51. 73.102 libavcodec 54. 63.100 / 54. 63.100 libavformat 54. 29.105 / 54. 29.105 libavdevice 54. 3.100 / 54. 3.100 libavfilter 3. 19.102 / 3. 19.102 libswscale 2. 1.101 / 2. 1.101 libswresample 0. 16.100 / 0. 16.100 libpostproc 52. 1.100 / 52. 1.100 Input #0, flv, from 'a.flv': Metadata: metadatacreator : iku hasKeyframes : true hasVideo : true hasAudio : true hasMetadata : true canSeekToEnd : false datasize : 16906383 videosize : 14558526 audiosize : 2270465 lasttimestamp : 530 lastkeyframetimestamp: 529 lastkeyframelocation: 16893721 Duration: 00:08:49.73, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 255 kb/s Stream #0:0: Video: h264 (Main), yuv420p, 448x336 [SAR 1:1 DAR 4:3], 218 kb/ s, 15 tbr, 1k tbn, 30 tbc Stream #0:1: Audio: aac, 44100 Hz, stereo, s16, 32 kb/s Unknown encoder 'mp4'

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  • FFmpeg extract clip - stream frame rate differs from container frame rate (x264, aac)

    - by fideli
    Summary H.264 video seems to have a really high frame rate that requires a scaling factor to the applied to the duration of video that I'm trying to extract (900x lower). Body I'm trying to extract a clip from a movie that I have in MP4 format (created using Handbrake). After trying mencoder and VLC, I decided to give FFmpeg a shot since it was the least troublesome when it came to copying the codecs. That is, compared to mencoder and VLC, the resulting file was still playable in QuickTime (I know about Perian, etc, I'm just trying to learn how all this works). Anyway, my command was as follows: ffmpeg -ss 01:15:51 -t 00:05:59 -i outofsight.mp4 \ -acodec copy -vcodec copy clip.mp4 During the copy, The following comes up: Seems stream 0 codec frame rate differs from container frame rate: 45000.00 (45000/1) -> 25.00 (25/1) Input #0, mov,mp4,m4a,3gp,3g2,mj2, from outofsight.mp4': Duration: 01:57:42.10, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 830 kb/s Stream #0.0(und): Video: h264, yuv420p, 720x384, 25 tbr, 22500 tbn, 45k tbc Stream #0.1(eng): Audio: aac, 48000 Hz, stereo, s16 Output #0, mp4, to 'out.mp4': Stream #0.0(und): Video: libx264, yuv420p, 720x384, q=2-31, 90k tbn, 22500 tbc Stream #0.1(eng): Audio: libfaac, 48000 Hz, stereo, s16 Stream mapping: Stream #0.0 -> #0.0 Stream #0.1 -> #0.1 Press [q] to stop encoding frame= 2591 fps=2349 q=-1.0 size= 8144kB time=101.60 bitrate= 656.7kbits/s … Instead of a 5:59 duration clip, I get the entire rest of the movie. So, to test this, I ran the ffmpeg command with -t 00:00:01. What I got was exactly a 15:00 minute clip. So I did some black box engineering and decided to scale my -t option by calculating what value to enter given that 1 second was interpreted as 900 s. For my desired 359 s clip, I calculated 0.399 s and so my ffmpeg command became: ffmpeg -ss 01:15.51 -t 00:00:00.399 -i outofsight.mp4 \ -acodec copy -vcodec copy clip.mp4 This works, but I have no idea why the duration is scaled by 900. Investigating further, each ffmpeg run has the line: Seems stream 0 codec frame rate differs from container frame rate: 45000.00 (45000/1) -> 25.00 (25/1) 45000/25 = 1800. Must be a relation somewhere. Somehow, the obscenely high frame rate is causing issues with the timing. How is that frame rate so high? The best part about this is that the resulting clip.mp4 has the exact same feature (due to the copied video codec), and taking further clips from this needs the same scaling for the -t duration option. Therefore, I've made it available for anyone willing to check this out. Appendix The preamble for ffmpeg on my system (built using MacPorts ffmpeg port): FFmpeg version 0.5, Copyright (c) 2000-2009 Fabrice Bellard, et al. configuration: --prefix=/opt/local --disable-vhook --enable-gpl --enable-postproc --enable-swscale --enable-avfilter --enable-avfilter-lavf --enable-libmp3lame --enable-libvorbis --enable-libtheora --enable-libdirac --enable-libschroedinger --enable-libfaac --enable-libfaad --enable-libxvid --enable-libx264 --mandir=/opt/local/share/man --enable-shared --enable-pthreads --cc=/usr/bin/gcc-4.2 --arch=x86_64 libavutil 49.15. 0 / 49.15. 0 libavcodec 52.20. 0 / 52.20. 0 libavformat 52.31. 0 / 52.31. 0 libavdevice 52. 1. 0 / 52. 1. 0 libavfilter 1. 4. 0 / 1. 4. 0 libswscale 1. 7. 1 / 1. 7. 1 libpostproc 51. 2. 0 / 51. 2. 0 built on Jan 4 2010 21:51:51, gcc: 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646) (dot 1) EDIT Not sure whether it was a bug or not, but it seems to be fixed now in my current version of ffmpeg, at least for this video (version 0.6.1 from MacPorts).

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  • Exchange 2010 OWA - a few questions about using multiple mailboxes

    - by Alexey Smolik
    We have an Exchange 2010 SP2 deployment and we need that our users could access multiple mailboxes in OWA. The problem is that a user (eg John Smith) needs to access not just somebody else's (eg Tom Anderson) mailboxes, but his OWN mailboxes, e.g. in different domains: [email protected], [email protected], [email protected], etc. Of course it is preferable for the user to work with all of his mailboxes from a single window. Such mailboxes can be added as multiple Exchange accounts in Outlook, that works almost fine. But in OWA, there are problems: 1) In the left pane - as I've learned - we can open only Inbox folders from other mailboxes. No way to view all folders like in Outlook? 2) With Send-As permissions set, when trying to send a message from another address, that message is saved in the Sent Items folder of the mailbox that is opened in OWA, and not in the mailbox the message is sent from. The same thing with the trash can. Is there a way to fix that? Also, this problem exists in desktop Outlook when mailboxes are added automatically via the Auto Mapping feature, so that we need to turn it off and add the accounts manually. Is there a simpler workaround? 3) Okay, suppose we only open Inbox folders in the left pane. The problem is that the mailbox names shown there are formed from Display Name attributes. But those names are all identical! All the mailboxes are owned by John Smith, so they should be all named John Smith - so that letter recepient sees "John Smith" in the "from" field, no matter what mailbox it is sent from. Also, the user knows what's his name - no need to tell him. He wants to know what mailbox he works with. So we need a way to either: a) customize OWA to show mailbox email address instead of user Display Name, or b) make Exchange use another attribute to put in the "from" field when sending letters 4) Okay, we can switch between mailboxes using "Open Other Mailbox" in the upper-right corner menu. But: a) To select a mailbox we need to enter its name (or first letters). It there a way to show a list of links to mailboxes the user has full access to? Eg in the page header... b) If we start entering the first letters, we see a popup list with possible mailboxes to be opened. But there are all mailboxes (apparently from GAL), not only mailboxes the user has permission to open! How to filter that popup list? c) The same problem as in (3) with mailbox naming. We can see the opened mailbox email address ONLY in the page URL, which is insufficient for many users. In the left pane we see "John Smith" which is useless. 5) Each mailbox is tied with a separate user in AD. If one has several mailboxes, we need to have additional dummy AD accounts, create additional OUs to store them, etc. That's not very nice, is there any standartized, optimal way to build such a structure? We would really appreciate any answers or additional info for any of these questions. Thank you in advance.

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