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  • Searching for flexible way to specify conenction string used by APS.NET membership

    - by bzamfir
    Hi, I develop an asp.net web application and I use ASP.NET membership provider. The application uses the membership schema and all required objects inside main application database However, during development I have to switch to various databases, for different development and testing scenarios. For this I have an external connection strings section file and also an external appsettings section, which allow me to not change main web.config but switch the db easily, by changing setting only in appsettings section. My files are as below: <connectionStrings configSource="connections.config"> </connectionStrings> <appSettings file="local.config"> .... ConnectionStrings looks as usual: <connectionStrings> <add name="MyDB1" connectionString="..." ... /> <add name="MyDB2" connectionString="..." ... /> .... </connectionStrings> And local.config as below <appSettings> <add key="ConnectionString" value="MyDB2" /> My code takes into account to use this connection string But membership settings in web.config contains the connection string name directly into the setting, like <add name="MembershipProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> .... <add name="RoleProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> Because of this, every time I have to edit them too to use the new db. Is there any way to config membership provider to use an appsetting to select db connection for membership db? Or to "redirect" it to read connection setting from somewhere else? Or at least to have this in some external file (like local.config) Maybe is some easy way to wrap asp.net membership provider intio my own provider which will just read connection string from where I want and pass it to original membership provider, and then just delegate the whole membership functionality to asp.net membership provider. Thanks.

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  • Binding an ASP.NET GridView Control to a string array

    - by Michael Kniskern
    I am trying to bind an ASP.NET GridView control to an string array and I get the following item: A field or property with the name 'Item' was not found on the selected data source. What is correct value I should use for DataField property of the asp:BoundField column in my GridView control. Here is my source code: ASPX page <asp:GridView ID="MyGridView" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Item" /> <asp:CommandField ButtonType="Link" ShowSelectButton="true" SelectText="Click Me!" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Code Behind: string[] MyArray = new string[1]; MyArray[0] = "My Value"; MyGridView.DataSource = MyArray; MyGridView.DataBind(); UPDATE I need to have the AutoGenerateColumns attribute set to false because I need to generate additional asp:CommandField columns. I have updated my code sample to reflect this scenarion

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  • Displaying single-instance business object data on SSRS

    - by Lachlan
    I have a SQL Server Reporting Services local (i.e. RDLC) report displayed in a ReportViewer, with two subreports. I am using business objects to populate the datasets. What is the best way to populate single-instance data on my report, e.g. a dynamic title, or a text box that lists a calculated value, not based on the report data? I am currently displaying data using the following style: public class MyRecordList { string Name { get; set; } List<MyRecord> Records { get; set;} } public MyRecord { string Description { get; set;} string Value { get; set;} } I set the datasource to the Records in an instance of MyRecordsList, and they print out find in a table. But adding a textbox and and referring to Name displays nothing. I also tried turning Name into a List, and referring to the first in the list, using: =First(Fields!Name.Value, "Report1_MyRecordList") but still nothing is printed on the report.

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  • Creating a WCF ServiceHost object takes three to four minutes on some PCs

    - by Steve
    Hello, I have created a WCF service which does not use the app.config to configure itself. However, it takes three to four minutes on some PCs to construct the ServiceHost object. Thinking there was something wrong with my service, I constructed a simple Hello, World service and tried it with that. I have the same issue. According to the profiler, all this time is spent reading in configuration for the service. So I have two questions really. Is it possible to disable reading config from the XML? More importantly, does anyone have any idea why this might be taking such an inordinate amount of time? Here is the sample service: [ServiceContract] public interface IMyService { [OperationContract] string GetString(); } [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode=InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class MyService : IMyService { public string GetString() { return "Hello, world!"; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Uri epAddress = new Uri("http://localhost:8731/Test"); Uri[] uris = new Uri[] { epAddress }; MyService srv = new MyService(); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(srv, uris); // this line takes 3-4 minutes host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService), new WSHttpBinding(), "Test"); ServiceMetadataBehavior smb = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); smb.HttpGetEnabled = true; host.Description.Behaviors.Add(smb); host.Open(); return; } } I need for design reasons to create the service and pass it in as an object, rather than passing it in as a type. If there's any more information that can be of use, please let me know. Many thanks.

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  • StringTemplate Variable with Object Properties

    - by David Higgins
    I am starting to use StringTemplate for the first time, and am stuck trying to figure out how to get StringTemplate to do something like the following: article.st $elemenets:article/elements()$ article/elements.st $if($it.is_type)$ $it:article/type()$ $elseif($it.is_type2)$ $it:article/type2()$ // also tried: $it.value:article/type2()$, same result $endif$ article/type.st <type>$it.value$</type> article/type2.st <h1>$it.value.title</h1> <type2>$it.value.text</type2> program.cs StringTemplateGroup group = new StringTemplateGroup("article", "Templates"); StringTemplate template = group.GetInstanceOf("Article"); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type = true, value = "<p>Hello Text</p>" }); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type2 = true, value = new { title = "Type 2 Title", text = "Type2 Text" } }); return template.ToString(); Problem here is ... the if(it.is_type) works fine, and the article/type.st works perfectly. However, when I pass an object to the value property for 'Element' I get this error: Class ClassName has no such attribute: text in template context [Article article/element elseif(it.is_type2)_subtemplate article/type2] So - my question is, how do i access the properties/fields of an object, within an object using StringTemplate?

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  • Pylons error "No object (name: request) has been registered for this thread" with debug = false

    - by Evgeny
    I'm unable to access the request object in my Pylons 0.9.7 controller when I set debug = false in the .ini file. I have the following code: def run_something(self): print('!!! request = %r' % request) print('!!! request.params = %r' % request.params) yield 'Stuff' With debugging enabled this works fine and prints out: !!! request = <Request at 0x9571190 POST http://my_url> !!! request.params = UnicodeMultiDict([... lots of stuff ...]) If I set debug = false I get the following: !!! request = <paste.registry.StackedObjectProxy object at 0x4093790> Error - <type 'exceptions.TypeError'>: No object (name: request) has been registered for this thread The stack trace confirms that the error is on the print('!!! request.params = %r' % request.params) line. I'm running it using the Paste server and these two lines are the very first lines in my controller method. This only occurs if I have yield statements in the method (even though the statements aren't reached). I'm guessing Pylons sees that it's a generator method and runs it on some other thread. My questions are: How do I make it work with debug = false ? Why does it work with debug = true ? Obviously this is quite a dangerous bug, since I normally develop with debug = true, so it can go unnoticed during development.

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  • Render view to string followed by redirect results in exception

    - by Chris Charabaruk
    So here's the issue: I'm building e-mails to be sent by my application by rendering full view pages to strings and sending them. This works without any problem so long as I'm not redirecting to another URL on the site afterwards. Whenever I try, I get "System.Web.HttpException: Cannot redirect after HTTP headers have been sent." I believe the problem comes from the fact I'm reusing the context from the controller action where the call for creating the e-mail comes from. More specifically, the HttpResponse from the context. Unfortunately, I can't create a new HttpResponse that makes use of HttpWriter because the constructor of that class is unreachable, and using any other class derived from TextWriter causes response.Flush() to throw an exception, itself. Does anyone have a solution for this? public static string RenderViewToString( ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath, ViewDataDictionary viewData, TempDataDictionary tempData) { Stream filter = null; ViewPage viewPage = new ViewPage(); //Right, create our view viewPage.ViewContext = new ViewContext(controllerContext, new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath), viewData, tempData); //Get the response context, flush it and get the response filter. var response = viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response; //var response = new HttpResponseWrapper(new HttpResponse // (**TextWriter Goes Here**)); response.Flush(); var oldFilter = response.Filter; try { //Put a new filter into the response filter = new MemoryStream(); response.Filter = filter; //Now render the view into the memorystream and flush the response viewPage.ViewContext.View.Render(viewPage.ViewContext, viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response.Output); response.Flush(); //Now read the rendered view. filter.Position = 0; var reader = new StreamReader(filter, response.ContentEncoding); return reader.ReadToEnd(); } finally { //Clean up. if (filter != null) filter.Dispose(); //Now replace the response filter response.Filter = oldFilter; } }

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  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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  • JavaScript - Building JSON object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I'm trying to understand how to build a JSON object in JavaScript. This JSON object will get passed to a JQuery ajax call. Currently, I'm hard-coding my JSON and making my JQuery call as shown here: $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"comments":"test","priority":"1"}', dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); This approach works. But, I need to dynamically build my JSON and pass it onto the JQuery call. However, I cannot figure out how to dynamically build the JSON object. Currently, I'm trying the following without any luck: var comments = $("#commentText").val(); var priority = $("#priority").val(); var json = { "comments":comments,"priority":priority }; $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: json, dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); Can someone please tell me what I am doing wrong? I noticed that with the second version, my service is not even getting reached. Thank you

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  • ASP.Net MVC Object Reference in Edit View when using DropDownListFor()

    - by hermiod
    This question is related to another I ask recently, it can be found here for some background information. Here is the code in the Edit ActionResult: public virtual ActionResult Edit(int id) { ///Set data for DropDownLists. ViewData["MethodList"] = tr.ListMethods(); ViewData["GenderList"] = tr.ListGenders(); ViewData["FocusAreaList"] = tr.ListFocusAreas(); ViewData["SiteList"] = tr.ListSites(); ViewData["TypeList"] = tr.ListTalkbackTypes(); ViewData["CategoryList"] = tr.ListCategories(); return View(tr.GetTalkback(id)); } I add lists to the ViewData to use in the dropdownlists, these are all IEnumerable and are all returning values. GetTalkback() returns an Entity framework object of type Talkback which is generated from the Talkback table. The DropDownListFor code is: <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model=>model.method_id,new SelectList(ViewData["MethodList"] as IEnumerable<SelectListItem>,"Value","Text",Model.method_id)) %> The record I am viewing has values in all fields. When I click submit on the View, I get an Object reference not set to an instance of an object. error on the above line. There are a number of standard fields in the form prior to this, so the error is only occurring on dropdown lists, and it is occurring on all of them. Any ideas? This is my first foray in to MVC, C#, and Entity so I am completely lost!

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  • Fluent NHibernate - Cascade delete a child object when no explicit parent->child relationship exists

    - by John Price
    I've got an application that keeps track of (for the sake of an example) what drinks are available at a given restaurant. My domain model looks like: class Restaurant { public IEnumerable<RestaurantDrink> GetRestaurantDrinks() { ... } //other various properties } class RestaurantDrink { public Restaurant Restaurant { get; set; } public Drink { get; set; } public string DrinkVariety { get; set; } //"fountain drink", "bottled", etc. //other various properties } class Drink { public string Name { get; set; } public string Manufacturer { get; set; } //other various properties } My db schema is (I hope) about what you'd expect; "RestaurantDrinks" is essentially a mapping table between Restaurants and Drinks with some extra properties (like "DrinkVariety" tacked on). Using Fluent NHibernate to set up mappings, I've set up a "HasMany" relationship from Restaurants to RestaurantDrinks that causes the latter to be deleted when its parent Restaurant is deleted. My question is, given that "Drink" does not have any property on it that explicitly references RestaurantDrinks (the relationship only exists in the underlying database), can I set up a mapping that will cause RestaurantDrinks to be deleted if their associated Drink is deleted? Update: I've been trying to set up the mapping from the "RestaurantDrink" end of things using References(x => x.Drink) .Column("DrinkId") .Cascade.All(); But this doesn't seem to work (I still get an FK violation when deleting a Drink).

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  • Hibernate - query caching/second level cache does not work by value object containing subitems

    - by Zoltan Hamori
    Hi! I have been struggling with the following problem: I have a value object containing different panels. Each panel has a list of fields. Mapping: <class name="com.aviseurope.core.application.RACountryPanels" table="CTRY" schema="DBDEV1A" where="PEARL_CTRY='Y'" lazy="join"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="ctryCode"> <column name="CTRY_CD_ID" sql-type="VARCHAR2(2)" not-null="true"/> </id> <bag name="panelPE" table="RA_COUNTRY_MAPPING" fetch="join" where="MANDATORY_FLAG!='N'"> <key column="COUNTRY_LOCATION_ID"/> <many-to-many class="com.aviseurope.core.application.RAFieldVO" column="RA_FIELD_MID" where="PANEL_ID='PE'"/> </bag> </class> I use the following criteria to get the value object: Session m_Session = HibernateUtil.currentSession(); m_Criteria = m_Session.createCriteria(RACountryPanels.class); m_Criteria.add(Expression.eq("ctryCode", p_Country)); m_Criteria.setCacheable(true); As I see the query cache contains only the main select like select * from CTRY where ctry_cd_id=? Both RACountryPanels and RAFieldVO are second level cached. If I check the 2nd level cache content I can see that it cointains the RAFields and the RACountryPanels as well and I can see the select .. from CTRY where ctry_cd_id=... in query cache region as well. When I call the servlet it seems that it is using the cache, but second time not. If I check the content of the cache using JMX, everything seems to be ok, but when I measure the object access time, it seems that it does not always use the cache. Cheers Zoltan

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  • weird swing heavyweight object lightweight objects problem

    - by Yoav Schwartz
    Hello, We have a problem in our swing based application since we've upgraded our java version from 6u5 to 6u18 (The application runs over WinXP). Our application contains a Canvas object which resides in a JFrame. The application draws things on the canvas. Every time we drag a lightweight swing object (popup or another frame) over the canvas, it has a refresh problem. It blinks - becomes black. The problem only resolves after we move the swing component away from the canvas and click on it again. We think this problem is related to the fact the the canvas is a heavyweight object. And we know there were changes done in the new versions of java on the mixing of heavyweight and lightweight objects issue. Some more details: 1) Our problem reproduces in java 6u14 and 6u16. 2) Everything works fine in java 6u5. Another strange thing: We have 2 types of stations running our application. The first type has a ATI FireGL7100 PCI-E graphics card. The second type has a Matrox G450 PCI graphic card. The problem does not reproduce on the Matrox based station in any java version. One more thing: http://bugs.sun.com/bugdatabase/view_bug.do?bug_id=6829858 - looks similar to our problem. Is our problem familiar? Do you have any suggestions (workarounds, ideas how the difference in graphics cards is connected to this problem) Hope I was clear enough, Yoav

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  • InternetExplorer.Application object and cookie container

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    I have the following console application written in VB.NET: Sub Main() Dim ie As Object = CreateObject("InternetExplorer.Application") ie.Visible = True ie.Navigate2("http://localhost:4631/Default.aspx") End Sub This program uses the InternetExplorer.Application automation object to launch an IE window and navigate a given url. The problem that I encountered is that even if I launch multiple instances of my application, the IE windows that are created with this method all share the same cookie container. Is there any parameter I could use specifying that a different cookie container is created for every window? This is the web page I used to test cookies: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Store something into the session in order to create the cookie Session["foo"] "bar"; Response.Write(Session.SessionID); } </script> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"></form> </body> </html>

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  • JNI: Long-object created with wrong value

    - by Torbjörn Eklund
    Hi! I am writing a c-jni function in Android, and I am having problems with creating a Long-object. I have succeeded in calling the constructor, but when I read the value of the object with longValue, I get the wrong result. jmethodID longConstructor; jmethodID longGetLongValue; jclass cls; jobject obj; // Create a object of type Long. cls = (*env)->FindClass(env,"java/lang/Long"); longConstructor = (*env)->GetMethodID(env,cls,"<init>","(J)V"); obj = (*env)->NewObject(env, cls, longConstructor, 4242); // Get the value by calling the function longValue. longGetLongValue= (*env)->GetMethodID(env,cls,"longValue","()J"); long return_long_value = (*env)->CallLongMethod(env, obj, longGetLongValue); // Log the result. LOGD("%li", return_long_value); I would expect that the above code would print 4242 in the log, however the value that is printed in the log is 1691768. Does anybody have an idea on why 4242 is not written in the log?

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  • Setting nested object to null when combobox has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • object reference not set to an instance of object exception coming at runtime.

    - by amby
    Hi, I am getting this error at runtime: object reference not set to an instance of object my question is that am i using stringbuilder array correctly here. Because I am new in C#. and i think its the problem with my stringbuilder array. Below is the code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Web.Script.Serialization; using System.Web.Script.Services; using System.Collections; public partial class Testing : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public static string SendMessage() { try { al2c00.ldap ws = new al2c00.ldap(); Hashtable htPeople = new Hashtable(); //DataTable dt = ws.GetEmployeeDetailsBy_NTID("650FA25C-9561-430B-B757-835D043EA5E5", "john"); StringBuilder[] empDetails = new StringBuilder[100]; string num = "ambreen"; empDetails[0].Append("amby"); num = empDetails[0].ToString(); htPeople.Add("bellempposreport", num); JavaScriptSerializer jss = new JavaScriptSerializer(); string output = jss.Serialize(htPeople); return output; } catch(Exception ex) { return ex.Message + "-" + ex.StackTrace; } } } please reply me what i am doing wrong here.

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  • Numeric Order By In Transact SQL (Ordering As String Instead Of Int)

    - by Pyronaut
    I have an issue where I am trying to order a result set by what I believe to be a numberic column in my database. However when I get the result set, It has sorted the column as if it was a string (So alphabetically), instead of sorting it as an int. As an example. I have these numbers, 1 , 2, 3, 4, 5, 10, 11 When I order by in Transact SQL, I get back : 1, 10, 11, 2, 3, 4, 5 I had the same issue with Datagridview's a while back, And the issue was because of the sorting being done as if it was a string. I assume the same thing is happening here. My full SQL code is : SELECT TOP (12) DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) AS 'Year', DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]) AS 'Month' , COUNT(OrderRef) AS 'OrderCount' FROM [Order] WHERE [Status] LIKE('PaymentReceived') OR [Status] LIKE ('Shipped') GROUP BY DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]), DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) ORDER BY DATEPART(YEAR, OrderDate) DESC, DATEPART(MONTH, OrderDate) desc DO NOTE The wrong sorting only happens when I cam calling the function from Visual Studio. As in my code is : using (SqlConnection conn = GetConnection()) { string query = @"SELECT TOP (12) DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) AS 'Year', DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]) AS 'Month' , COUNT(OrderRef) AS 'OrderCount' FROM [Order] WHERE [Status] LIKE('PaymentReceived') OR [Status] LIKE ('Shipped') GROUP BY DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]), DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) ORDER BY DATEPART(YEAR, OrderDate) DESC, DATEPART(MONTH, OrderDate) desc"; SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(query, conn); command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; using (SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader()) etc. When I run the statement in MSSQL server, there is no issues. I am currently using MSSQL 2005 express edition, And Visual Studio 2005. I have tried numerous things that are strewn across the web. Including using Convert() and ABS() to no avail. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

    - by eanticev
    I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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  • Convert string to decimal retaining the exact input format

    - by Brett
    Hi All, I'm sure this is a piece of cake but I'm really struggling with something that seems trivial. I need to check the inputted text of a textbox on the form submit and check to see if it's within a desired range (I've tried a Range Validator but it doesn't work for some reason so I'm trying to do this server-side). What I want to do is: Get the value inputted (eg. 0.02), replace the commas and periods, convert that to a decimal (or double or equivalent) and check to see if it's between 0.10 and 35000.00. Here's what I have so far: string s = txtTransactionValue.Text.Replace(",", string.Empty).Replace(".", string.Empty); decimal transactionValue = Decimal.Parse(s); if (transactionValue >= 0.10M && transactionValue <= 35000.00M) // do something If I pass 0.02 into the above, transactionValue is 2. I want to retain the value as 0.02 (ie. do no format changes to it - 100.00 is 100.00, 999.99 is 999.99) Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Brett

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  • Date from String using NSDateFormatter regardless 12h-24h setting

    - by maxf99
    Hello everybody, Today my question is about date formats and strings. My application downloads some strings representing dates from the internet. The date format is always like this: "2010-05-24 at 20:45" I need to convert this string into an NSDate object in order to perform some date manipulations. I tried this code: NSString * dateString = @"2010-05-24 at 20:45" // actually downloaded from the internet NSDateFormatter * myDateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [myDateFormatter setDateFormat:@"yyyy-MM-dd 'at' HH:mm"]; NSDate * dateFromString = [myDateFormatter dateFromString:dateString]; This seems to work perfectly fine as long as the iPhone is set to 24h clock. As long as I switch to 12h clock in the general settings the NSDate object is not created (and the application happily crashes) I have read others having similar problems but I don't seem to find a solution. Now the questions: It doesn't make sense to me that the NSDateFormatter is sensible to user settings as long as I am specifying which format it is supposed to use to parse the string (which is not modifiable because it comes from the web), what's the use of checking user settings? More important, how can I get my task performed (to get an NSDate object from the string regardless the user settings)?

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  • Migration of .NET COM object to 64 bit.

    - by Victor Ronin
    Hi, We have C++ application which uses several COM object. COM object are .NET based (using COM Interop). I need to migrate application to 64 bit. I specifically need C++ application to be 64 bit. I don't want to recompile all of .NET com object to 64 bit and deliver two sets of DLL's (32 bit and 64 bit). I was investigating and found that I can load 32 bit COM Dll's in 32 bit surrogate process using (DllSurrogate in registry). I know how to do that, but it means that all COM objects will become out of process. In the C++ I had the code: CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SomeClass, NULL, CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, IID_SomeInterface, (void**)&pobj); It worked fine, but as soon as I switch to CLSCTX_LOCAL_SERVER (and add registry keys for DllSurrogate), it can't find interfaces (error 0x80004002). I checked registry and found out that when .NET COM DLL is registered, it adds ClsID registry keys, but doesn't add Interface and TypeLib registry key. The question is, how to create these registry keys for .NET COM? Regards, Victor

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  • flashvars object was not working in mozilla browser

    - by praveen
    Hi,I am retrieving an flashvars object from JSP file. Like userid = mx.core.Application.application.parameters.userJspid;like this it is retrieving in IE browser. But not in FF (Mozilla), why it’s not retrieving is there any code i need to add it for Mozilla specially. Please help me in this, Thanks in advance. i am loading in jsp like <body scroll="no" onload="openWin();"> <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" id="main" width="100%" height="100%" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/get/flashplayer/current/swflash.cab"> <param name="movie" value="main.swf"/> <param name="quality" value="high"/> <param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff"/> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain"/> <param name="FlashVars" value="userNid=<%=session.getAttribute("userNid")%>"/> <embed src="main.swf" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff"width="100%" height="100%" name="main" align="middle" play="true" loop="false" quality="high" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer"></embed> </object> </body>like this

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  • Parsing/Tokenizing a String Containing a SQL Command

    - by Alan Storm
    Are there any open source libraries (any language, python/PHP preferred) that will tokenize/parse an ANSI SQL string into its various components? That is, if I had the following string SELECT a.foo, b.baz, a.bar FROM TABLE_A a LEFT JOIN TABLE_B b ON a.id = b.id WHERE baz = 'snafu'; I'd get back a data structure/object something like //fake PHPish $results['select-columns'] = Array[a.foo,b.baz,a.bar]; $results['tables'] = Array[TABLE_A,TABLE_B]; $results['table-aliases'] = Array[a=TABLE_A, b=TABLE_B]; //etc... Restated, I'm looking for the code in a database package that teases the SQL command apart so that the engine knows what to do with it. Searching the internet turns up a lot of results on how to parse a string WITH SQL. That's not what I want. I realize I could glop through an open source database's code to find what I want, but I was hoping for something a little more ready made, (although if you know where in the MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQLite source to look, feel free to pass it along) Thanks!

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  • Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

    - by James
    Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

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