Search Results

Search found 11747 results on 470 pages for 'music manager'.

Page 208/470 | < Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >

  • Is there a way to programmatically tell if particular block of memory was not freed by FastMM?

    - by Wodzu
    I am trying to detect if a block of memory was not freed. Of course, the manager tells me that by dialog box or log file, but what if I would like to store results in a database? For example I would like to have in a database table a names of routines which allocated given blocks. After reading a documentation of FastMM I know that since version 4.98 we have a possibility to be notified by manager about memory allocations, frees and reallocations as they occur. For example OnDebugFreeMemFinish event is passing to us a PFullDebugBlockHeader which contains useful informations. There is one thing that PFullDebugBlockHeader is missing - the information if the given block was freed by the application. Unless OnDebugFreeMemFinish is called only for not freed blocks? This is which I do not know and would like to find out. The problem is that even hooking into OnDebugFreeMemFinish event I was unable to find out if the block was freed or not. Here is an example: program MemLeakTest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses FastMM4, ExceptionLog, SysUtils; procedure MemFreeEvent(APHeaderFreedBlock: PFullDebugBlockHeader; AResult: Integer); begin //This is executed at the end, but how should I know that this block should be freed //by application? Unless this is executed ONLY for not freed blocks. end; procedure Leak; var MyObject: TObject; begin MyObject := TObject.Create; end; begin OnDebugFreeMemFinish := MemFreeEvent; Leak; end. What I am missing is the callback like: procedure OnMemoryLeak(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader); After browsing the source of FastMM I saw that there is a procedure: procedure LogMemoryLeakOrAllocatedBlock(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader; IsALeak: Boolean); which could be overriden, but maybe there is an easier way?

    Read the article

  • C# Attribute XmlIgnore and XamlWriter class - XmlIgnore not working

    - by Horst Walter
    I have a class, containing a property Brush MyBrush marked as [XmlIgnore]. Nevertheless it is serialized in the stream causing trouble when trying to read via XamlReader. I did some tests, e.g. when changing the visibility (to internal) of the Property it is gone in the stream. Unfortunately I cannot do this in my particular scenario. Did anybody have the same issue and? Do you see any way to work around this? Remark: C# 4.0 as far I can tell This is a method from my Unit Test where I do test the XamlSerialization: // buffer to a StringBuilder StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(sb, settings); XamlDesignerSerializationManager manager = new XamlDesignerSerializationManager(writer) {XamlWriterMode = XamlWriterMode.Expression}; XamlWriter.Save(testObject, manager); xml = sb.ToString(); Assert.IsTrue(!String.IsNullOrEmpty(xml) && !String.IsNullOrEmpty(xml), "Xaml Serialization failed for " + testObject.GetType() + " no xml string available"); xml = sb.ToString(); MemoryStream ms = xml.StringToStream(); object root = XamlReader.Load(ms); Assert.IsTrue(root != null, "After reading from MemoryStream no result for Xaml Serialization"); In one of my classes I use the Property Brush. In the above code this Unit Tests fails because of a Brush object not serializable is the value. When I remove the Setter (as below, the Unit Test passes. Using the XmlWriter (basically same test as above) it works. In the StringBuffer sb I can see that Property Brush is serialized when the Setter is there and not when removed (most likely another check ignoring the Property because of no setter). Other Properties with [XmlIgnore] are ignored as intended. [XmlIgnore] public Brush MyBrush { get { ..... } // removed because of problem with Serialization // set { ... } }

    Read the article

  • Getting auth token for dropbox account from accountmanager in android

    - by user1490880
    I am trying to get auth token for a dropbox account configured in device from account manager. I am using accountManager.getAuthToken(account, "DROPBOX",null,Hello.this, new GetAuthTokenCallback(), null);//account" is dropbox account I am seeing a Allow/Deny page. I click on Allow, but the callback is not getting invoked at all and i dont get the auth token. I got the authtoken for a google account with this(with a different authtokentype). What i am missing. I am not sure about the authTokenType parameter for dropbox. Also are there any other parameter specific for dropbox like the bundle parameter that i am missing. Is this way possible for dropbox? Check below for the function parameters public AccountManagerFuture<Bundle> getAuthToken (Account account, String authTokenType, Bundle options, Activity activity, AccountManagerCallback<Bundle> callback, Handler handler) Link: http://developer.android.com/reference/android/accounts/AccountManager.html UPDATE I assume since we are able to create a dropbox account in android Accounts and Sync(Settings), there must be a dropbox authenticator that has all the functions in AbstractAccountAuthenticator implemented including getAuthToken(). So dropbox should support giving auth token i think. Also dropbox uses oauth1, whereas account manager uses outh 2.0. So is this an issue.Can anyone comment on this?

    Read the article

  • Best practices for deploying an MVC application on IIS7

    - by gsiler
    I'm not a web admin, and I'm new to IIS. So, I'm looking for advice. My MVC application (e.g. fooapp) is the default application for my site (e.g. foo.bar). I used IIS Manager to add the site to IIS7. When I import the application, IIS Manager wants to put it in it's own directory (/foo), and tells me I shouldn't put it in the base (site) directory. This means that to get to my default MVC view, I have to enter the URL http://foo.bar/fooapp/. Needless to say, I want to get there via http://foo.bar/ I see 2 possible solutions: Add a default page to the site directory that redirects to the MVC app. Ignore the IIS admonition and load the app into the site directory. My IIS7 knowledge is limited. I have played around with some options (such as HTTP Redirect). Since nothing changed, I obviously don't understand what I'm doing. Anyway, if there are some considered "best practices" and/or other suggestions, please let me know.

    Read the article

  • Using django and django-voting app, how can I order a queryset according to the votes of each item?

    - by snz3
    (I'm new to python and django so please bear with me for a second. I apologise if this has been answered elsewhere and couldn't find it) Let's say I have a Link model and through the django-voting application users can vote on link instances. How can I order those link instances according to their score, eg. display those with the higher score first. I assume I could use the get_top manager of django-voting, but that would only give me the top scoring link instances and wouldn't take into consideration other parameters I would like to add (for example, those links that belong to a specific user or paging or whatever). My guess would be to write a custom manager for my Link model where by I can filter a queryset according to each item's score. If I understand correctly that will require me to loop through each item, check its score, and then place it a list (or dictionary) which will then be sorted according to the score of each item. That wouldn't return a queryset but a dictionary with each item. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

    Read the article

  • using a 64-bit compiler in microsoft visual c++

    - by Ben
    this question is essentially identical to an earlier question i had that didn't receive any answers. hopefully someone can help me out this time. i am trying to compile a vc++ project as 64 bit using visual c++ express 2010. i know that the 64 bit compiler does not come with the default installation of vc++ express so i installed windows sdk for windows 7 as specified here (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9yb4317s.aspx) which includes the 64 bit compiler as i understand. however, there is still no 64 bit option in the configuration manager for vc++. after some searching i found and completed this tutorial (http://jenshuebel.wordpress.com/2009/02/12/visual-c-2008-express-edition-and-64-bit-targets/) as well as the various links at the bottom of this page. despite all my efforts, i still cannot get the 64 bit compiler to show in vc++ (i.e. the 64 bit compiler won't show under "active solutions platform" in the configuration manager). if anyone has any experience/tips with getting this to work i would really appreciate it. fyi - i am running windows 7(x64).

    Read the article

  • "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

    - by JackLocke
    Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

    Read the article

  • Spring Security 3.0- Customise basic http Authentication Dialog

    - by gav
    Rather than reading; A user name and password are being requested by http://localhost:8080. The site says: "Spring Security Application" I want to change the prompt, or at least change what the "site says". Does anyone know how to do this via resources.xml? In my Grails App Spring configuration, my current version is as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans>

    Read the article

  • Should a developer be a coauthor to a paper presented about the application they developed?

    - by ved
    In our organization, project teams come up with a need and funding and developers are given a basic scope and are allowed to develop the solution. There is a certain degree of implementation freedom given to the developers. They drive the solution to pilot and live deployment from its inception. If the solution is presented in a conference as a technical paper/white paper what is the protocol for the list of authors: because for the most part I see the project manager's and the dev team manager's names as authors but no mention of the actual developer. Is this correct? A lot of us developers feel pretty bummed to never see our names as the coauthors. Appreciate any pointers. Answers to the FOLLOW UP questions (1) in what field of study is the paper, and what are the standards of authorship for that field? The paper is for Flood Plain Management - there is nothing on the abstract guidelines, I have called the contact person listed for comment - waiting to hear. 2) was the paper literally about the software application as your question implies, or were the software issues incidental to the topic of the paper? The paper specifically deals with a GIS Application that is used in Coastal Engineering, yes the software is not incidental, but the meat of the paper and mentioned in the Title. 2

    Read the article

  • question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

    - by FALCONSEYE
    I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

    Read the article

  • Issue with Callback method and maintaining CultureInfo and ASP.Net HttpRuntime

    - by Little Larry Sellers
    Hi All, Here is my issue. I am working on an E-commerce solution that is deployed to multiple European countries. We persist all exceptions within the application to SQL Server and I have found that there are records in the DB that have a DateTime in the future! We define the culture in the web.config, for example pt-PT, and the format expected is DD-MM-YYYY. After debugging I found the issue with these 'future' records in the DB is because of Callback methods we use. For example, in our Caching architecture we use Callbacks, as such - CacheItemRemovedCallback ReloadCallBack = new CacheItemRemovedCallback(OnRefreshRequest); When I check the current threads CultureInfo, on these Callbacks it is en-US instead of pt-PT and also the HttpContext is null. If an exception occurs on the Callback our exception manager reports it as MM-DD-YYYY and thus it is persisted to SQL Server incorrectly. Unfortunately, in the exception manager code, we use DateTime.Now, which is fine if it is not a callback. I can't change this code to be culture specific due to it being shared across other verticals. So, why don't callbacks into ASP.Net maintain context? Is there any way to maintain it on this callback thread? What are the best practices here? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

    - by sudo rm -rf
    Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

    Read the article

  • How do I build a class that shares a table with multiple columns in MVC3?

    - by Barrett Kuethen
    I have a Job table public class Job { public int JobId { get; set; } public int SalesManagerId { get; set; } public int SalesRepId { get; set; } } and a Person table public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public int FirstName { get; set; } public int LastName { get; set; } } My question is, how do I link the SalesManagerId to the Person (or PersonId) as well as the SalesRepId to the Person (PersonId)? The Sales Manager and Sales Rep are independent of each other. I just don't want to make 2 different lists to support the Sales Manager and Sales Rep roles. I'm new to MVC3, but it seems public virtual Person Person {get; set; } would be the way to go, but that doesn't work. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Processing more than one button click at Android Widget

    - by dive
    Hi, all. I saw this topic and implement IntentService as describes, but what if I want more that one button? How can I distinguish button from each other? I'm trying to setFlags, but cannot read it at onHandleIntent() method: public static class UpdateService extends IntentService { ... @Override public void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { ComponentName me = new ComponentName(this, ExampleProvider.class); AppWidgetManager manager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(this); manager.updateAppWidget(me, buildUpdate(this)); } private RemoteViews buildUpdate(Context context) { RemoteViews updateViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main_layout); Intent i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_refresh, pi); i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_about, pi); return updateViews; } } At this little piece of code I have two PendingIntent linked with setOnClickPendingIntent, can I distinguish this intent for different actions and processing? Thanks for help

    Read the article

  • Error copying file from app bundle

    - by Michael Chen
    I used the FireFox add-on SQLite Manager, created a database, which saved to my desktop as "DB.sqlite". I copied the file into my supporting files for the project. But when I run the app, immediately I get the error "Assertion failure in -[AppDelegate copyDatabaseIfNeeded], /Users/Mac/Desktop/Note/Note/AppDelegate.m:32 2014-08-19 23:38:02.830 Note[28309:60b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Failed to create writable database file with message 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 4.)'.' First throw call stack: "... Here is the App Delegate Code where the error takes place -(void) copyDatabaseIfNeeded { NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSString *dbPath = [self getDBPath]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:dbPath]; if (!success) { NSString *defaultDBPath = [[ [NSBundle mainBundle ] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"DB.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:dbPath error:&error]; if (!success) NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } I am very new to Sqlite, so I maybe I didn't create a database correctly in the FireFox Sqlite manager, or maybe I didn't "properly" copy the .sqlite file in? (I did check the target membership in the sqlite and it correctly has my project selected. Also, the .sqlite file names all match up perfectly.)

    Read the article

  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

    Read the article

  • How to specify MQ channel table location for .net web application using web.config

    - by Matt
    I've been going around in circles for a while on this one now. I'm trying to connect to a distributed queue manager using a supplied channel table file. I can get this to work if I specify the environmental variable MQCHLLIB and MQCHLTAB on my server. However the IBM documentation states that the .net config file can override these variables. Here is what I have placed in my web.config file: ... <configSections> <section name="CHANNELS" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler" /> </configSections> <CHANNELS> <add key="ChannelDefinitionDirectory" value="C:\temp"></add> <add key="ChannelDefinitionFile" value="DSM_MOM_TEST.tab"></add> </CHANNELS> ... And here is the code that is executing: Hashtable properties = new Hashtable(); //Add managed connection type to parameters. const String connectionType = MQC.TRANSPORT_MQSERIES_CLIENT; properties.Add(MQC.TRANSPORT_PROPERTY, connectionType); return new MQQueueManager(queueManagerName, properties); queueManagerName is set to the generic queue manager "*Q101T". However this isn't working and I get an error returned: 2058 MQRC_Q_MGR_NAME_ERROR I've been unable to find any more documentation on how to get this to work other than the environmental variables and the standard mqclient.ini should be overriden by the channels stanza in the web.config. Is there something that I've missed in the code? Any tips would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Java: design for using many executors services and only few threads

    - by Guillaume
    I need to run in parallel multiple threads to perform some tests. My 'test engine' will have n tests to perform, each one doing k sub-tests. Each test result is stored for a later usage. So I have n*k processes that can be ran concurrently. I'm trying to figure how to use the java concurrent tools efficiently. Right now I have an executor service at test level and n executor service at sub test level. I create my list of Callables for the test level. Each test callable will then create another list of callables for the subtest level. When invoked a test callable will subsequently invoke all subtest callables test 1 subtest a1 subtest ...1 subtest k1 test n subtest a2 subtest ...2 subtest k2 call sequence: test manager create test 1 callable test1 callable create subtest a1 to k1 testn callable create subtest an to kn test manager invoke all test callables test1 callable invoke all subtest a1 to k1 testn callable invoke all subtest an to kn This is working fine, but I have a lot of new treads that are created. I can not share executor service since I need to call 'shutdown' on the executors. My idea to fix this problem is to provide the same fixed size thread pool to each executor service. Do you think it is a good design ? Do I miss something more appropriate/simple for doing this ?

    Read the article

  • I am not able to kill a child process using TerminateProcess

    - by user1681210
    I have a problem to kill a child process using TerminateProcess. I call to this function and the process still there (in the Task Manager) This piece of code is called many times launching the same program.exe many times and these process are there in the task manager which i think is not good. sorry, I am quiet new in c++ I will really appreciate any help. thanks a lot!! the code is the following: STARTUPINFO childProcStartupInfo; memset( &childProcStartupInfo, 0, sizeof(childProcStartupInfo)); childProcStartupInfo.cb = sizeof(childProcStartupInfo); childProcStartupInfo.hStdInput = hFromParent; // stdin childProcStartupInfo.hStdOutput = hToParent; // stdout childProcStartupInfo.hStdError = hToParentDup; // stderr childProcStartupInfo.dwFlags = STARTF_USESTDHANDLES | STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; childProcStartupInfo.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; PROCESS_INFORMATION childProcInfo; /* for CreateProcess call */ bOk = CreateProcess( NULL, // filename pCmdLine, // full command line for child NULL, // process security descriptor */ NULL, // thread security descriptor */ TRUE, // inherit handles? Also use if STARTF_USESTDHANDLES */ 0, // creation flags */ NULL, // inherited environment address */ NULL, // startup dir; NULL = start in current */ &childProcStartupInfo, // pointer to startup info (input) */ &childProcInfo); // pointer to process info (output) */ CloseHandle( hFromParent ); CloseHandle( hToParent ); CloseHandle( hToParentDup ); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hThread); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hProcess); TerminateProcess( childProcInfo.hProcess ,0); //this is not working, the process thanks

    Read the article

  • How do you program a windows service in C# to start an application for a user?

    - by Swoop
    Is it possible to start a program so that it is available to a user with a windows service? I have been working with the Process.Start() in C#. I can get the service to kickoff some sort of process that appears in the Task Manager list under processes. However, the program nevers appears on the screen. By default, it runs under the user name "SYSTEM". I have adjusted the "Log On" option in the service manager to match the person logged into the computer, but this does not cause a window to appear either. I feel like I am either missing a simple setting, or need to take a different direction for this. Below is the code I have been working with to start up Firefox as a test app. private void startRunDap() { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.FileName = "Firefox"; startInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Normal; startInfo.UseShellExecute = true; Process.Start(startInfo); //Process.Start("Firefox"); }

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to find a processed memory allocations in terms of C# objects

    - by Shantaram
    I have written various C# console based applications, some of them long running some not, which can over time have a large memory foot print. When looking at the windows perofrmance monitor via the task manager, the same question keeps cropping up in my mind; how do I get a break down of the number objects by type that are contributing to this footprint; and which of those are f-reachable and those which aren't and hence can be collected. On numerous occasions I've performed a code inspection to ensure that I am not unnecessarily holding on objects longer than required and disposing of objects with the using construct. I have also recently looked at employing the CG.Collect method when I have released a large number of objects (for example held in a collection which has just been cleared). However, I am not so sure that this made that much difference, so I threw that code away. I am guessing that there are tools in sysinternals suite than can help to resolve these memory type quiestions but I am not sure which and how to use them. The alternative would be to pay for a third party profiling tool such as JetBrains dotTrace; but I need to make sure that I've explored the free options first before going cap in hand to my manager.

    Read the article

  • How do i set the Transaction Isolation in EJB?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I am not able to find a way to set TransactionIsolation in ejb. Can anybody tell me how do i set it? I am using persistence. I have looked the following classes : EntityManager , EntityManagerFactory, UserTransaction. None of them seems to have any method like setTransactionIsolation or such. Do we need to change persistence.xml? I just read a book named Mastering EJB 3.0 4th edition. They gave a full 10 page theory about Isolation level that this problems occur and that occurs and such things but at the end they gave this paragraph :- "As we now know, the EJB standard does not deal with isolation levels directly, and rightly so. EJB is a component specification. It defines the behavior and contracts of a business component with clients and middleware infrastructure (containers) such that the component can be rendered as various middleware services properly. EJBs therefore are transactional components that interact with resource managers, such as the JDBC resource manager or JMS resource manager, via JTS, as part of a transaction. They are not, hence, resource components in themselves. Since isolation levels are very specific to the behavior and capabilities of the underlying resources, they should therefore be specified at the resource API levels. " What exactly does it mean? What is meant by resource level APIs? Please help me. If persistence has no way to set Isolation Level then why do they give such huge theory in an EJB book and make it heavy in weight unnecessarily :(

    Read the article

  • How to iterate JPA collections in Google App engine

    - by palto
    Hi I use Google App Engine with datanucleus and JPA. I'm having a real hard time grasping how I'm supposed to read stuff from data store and pass it to JSP. If I load a list of POJOs with entitymanager and pass it to JSP, it crashes to org.datanucleus.exceptions.NucleusUserException: Object Manager has been closed. I understand why this is happening. Obviously because I fetch the list, close the entity manager and pass it to JSP, at which point it will fail because the list is lazy. How do I make the list NOT lazy without resorting to hacks like calling size() or something like that? Here is what I'm trying to do: @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws ServletException, IOException { req.setAttribute("parties", getParties()); RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/parties.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); } private List<Party> getParties(){ EntityManager em = entityManagerProvider.get(); try{ Query query = em.createQuery("SELECT p FROM Party p"); return query.getResultList(); }finally{ em.close(); } }

    Read the article

  • Possible to Dynamic Form Generation Using PHP global variables

    - by J M 4
    I am currently a fairly new programmer but am trying to build a registration page for a medical insurance idea we have which captures individual information and subsequent pieces of information about that individual's sub parts. In this case, it is a fight promoter enrolling his 15+ boxers for fight testing services. Right now, I have the site fully laid out to accept 7 fighters worth of information. This is collected during the manager's enrollment. However, each fighter's information is passed and stored in session super globals such as: $_SESSION['F1Firstname']; and $_SESSION['F3SSN3'];. The issue I am running into is this, I want to create a drop down menu selector for the manager to add information for up to 20-30 fighters. Right now I use PHP to state: if ($_SESSION['Num_Fighters'] 6) ... then display the table form fields to collect consumer data. If I have to build hidden elements for 30 fighters AND provide javascript/php validation (yes I am doing both) then I fear the file size for the document will be unnecessarily large for the maanger who only wants to enroll 2 fighters. Can anybody help?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >