Search Results

Search found 3770 results on 151 pages for 'mike smith'.

Page 21/151 | < Previous Page | 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28  | Next Page >

• tsql replace value on select

  - by Zelter Ady

  I have a column (SERVICE_ID) in my table where I can have only 3 values: 0, 1 and 2. I'd like on select, on displayed result table, to change those value with some english words. select client, SERVICE_ID from customers displays now: -------------------------- | John | 1 | Mike | 0 | Jordan | 1 | Oren | 2 -------------------------- I'd like to change the query to get: -------------------------- | John | QA | Mike | development | Jordan | QA | Oren | management -------------------------- There is any way to do this using only the select?

  Read the article

• Match entities fulfilling filter (strict superset of search)

  - by Jon

  I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. That is, given a set of Attributes A, I need to find all people that have a set of Attributes that are a superset of A. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there? I've been trying to do something like the following, given that the ValidValue is unique in all cases: select distinct p from Person p join p.personAttributes a where a.value IN (:values) Then I've tried putting my set of required values in as "values", but that gives me errors no matter how I try to structure that. I also have to get a little more complicated, as follows, but at this point I'd be happy with solving the first problem cleanly. However, if it's possible, the Attribute table actually has a field for default value: id | attr_name | default_value 1 | Sex | 1 2 | Eye Color | 5 If the value you're searching on happens to be the default value, I want it to return any people that have no explicit value set for that attribute, because in the application logic, that means they inherit the default value. Again, I'm more concerned about the primary question, but if someone who can help with that also has some idea of how to do this one, I'd be extremely grateful.

  Read the article

• Design pattern to keep track UITableView rows correspondance to underlying data in constant time.

  - by DenNukem

  When my model changes I want to animate changes in UITableView by inserting/deleting rows. For that I need to know the ordinal of the given row (so I can construct NSIndexPath), which I find hard to do in better-than-linear time. For example, consider that I have a list of addressbook entries which are manualy sorted by the user, i.e. there is no ordering "key" that represents the sort order. There is also a corresponding UITableView that shows one row per addressbook entry. When UITableView queries the datasource I query the NSMUtableArray populated with my entries and return required data in constant time for each row. However, if there is a change in underlying model I am getting a notification "Joe Smith, id#123 has been removed". Now I have a dilemma. A naive approach would be to scan the array, determine the index at which Joe Smith is and then ask UITableView to remove that precise row from the view, also removing it form the array. However, the scan will take linear time to finish. Now I could have an NSDictionary which allows me to find Joe Smith in constant time, but that doesn't do me a lot of good because I still need to find his ordinal index within the array in order to instruct UITableView to remove that row, which is again a linear search. I could further decide to store each object's ordinal inside the object itself to make it constant, but it will become outdated after first such update as all subsequent index values will have changed due to removal of an object. So what is the correct design pattern to accurately reflect model changes in the UITableView in costant (or at least logarithmic) time?

  Read the article

• Query MySQL data from Excel (or vice-versa)

  - by Charles

  I'm trying to automate a tedious problem. I get large Excel (.xls or .csv, whatever's more convenient) files with lists of people. I want to compare these against my MySQL database.* At the moment I'm exporting MySQL tables and reading them from an Excel spreadsheet. At that point it's not difficult to use =LOOKUP() and such commands to do the work I need, and of course the various text processing I need to do is easy enough to do in Excel. But I can't help but think that this is more work than it needs to be. Is there some way to get at the MySQL data directly from Excel? Alternately, is there a way I could access a reasonably large (~10k records) csv file in a sql script? This seems to be rather basic, but I haven't managed to make it work so far. I found an ODBC connection for MySQL but that doesn't seem to do what I need. In particular, I'm testing whether the name matches or whether any of four email addresses match. I also return information on what matched for the benefit of the next person to use the data, something like "Name 'Bob Smith' not found, but 'Robert Smith' matches on email address robert.smith@foo".

  Read the article

• [Java] Nested methods vs "piped" methods, which is better?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi: Since uni, I've programming in Java for 3 years, although I am not fully dedicated to this language, I have spent quite some time in it, nevertheless. I understand both ways, just curious which style do you prefer. public class Test{ public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(getAgent().getAgentName()); } private static Agent getAgent() { return new Agent(); }} class Agent{ private String getAgentName() { return "John Smith"; }} I am pretty happy with nested method calls such like the following public class Test{ public static void main(String[] args) { getAgentName(getAgent()); } private static void getAgentName(Agent agent) { System.out.println(agent.getName()); } private static Agent getAgent() { return new Agent(); }} class Agent { public String getName(){ return "John Smith"; }} They have identical output I saw "John Smith" twice. I wonder, if one way of doing this has better performance or other advantages over the other. Personally I prefer the latter, since for nested methods I can certainly tell which starts first, and which is after. The above code is but a sample, The code that I am working with now is much more complicated, a bit like a maze... So switching between the two styles often blows my head in no time.

  Read the article

• how to join tables sql server

  - by Rick

  Im having some trouble with joining two tables. This is what my two tables look like: Table 1 Customer_ID CustomerName Add. 1000 John Smith 1001 Mike Coles 1002 Sam Carter Table 2 Sensor_ID Location Temp CustIDFK 1000 NY 70 1002 NY 70 1000 ... ... 1001 1001 1002 Desired: Sensor_ID Location Temp CustIDFK 1000 NY 70 John Smith 1002 NY 70 Sam Carter 1000 ... ... John Smith 1001 Mike Coles 1001 1002 I have made Customer_ID from table 1 my primary key, created custIDFK in table 2 and set that as my foreign key. I am really new to sql server so I am still having trouble with the whole relationship piece of it. My goal is to match one customer_ID with one Sensor_ID. The problem is that the table 2 does not have "unique IDs" since they repeat so I cant set that to my foreign key. I know I will have to do either an inner join or outer join, I just dont know how to link the sensor id with customer one. I was thinking of giving my sensor_ID a unique ID but the data that is being inserted into table 2 is coming from another program. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Ember model is gone when I use the renderTemplate hook

  - by Mickael Caruso

  I have a single template - editPerson.hbs <form role="form"> FirstName: {{input type="text" value=model.firstName }} <br/> LastName: {{input type="text" value=model.lastName }} </form> I want to render this template when the user wants to edit an existing person or create a new person. So, I set up routes: App.Router.map(function(){ this.route("createPerson", { path: "/person/new" }); this.route("editPerson", { path: "/person/:id}); // other routes not show for brevity }); So, I define two routes - one for create and one for edit: App.CreatePersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ renderTemplate: function(){ this.render("editPerson", { controller: "editPerson" }); }, model: function(){ return {firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" }; } }); App.EditPersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(id){ return {firstName: "John Existing", lastName: "Smith Existing" }; } }); So, I hard-code the models. I'm concerned about the createPerson route. I'm telling it to render the editPersonTemplate and to use the editPerson controller (which I don't show because I don't think it matters - but I made one, though.) When I use renderTemplate, I lose the model John Smith, which in turn, won't display on the editTemplate on the web page. Why? I "fixed" this by creating a separate and identical (to editPerson.hbs) createPerson.hbs, and removing the renderTemplate hook in the CreatePerson. It works as expected, but I find it somewhat troubling to have a separate and identical template for the edit and create cases. I looked everywhere for how to properly do this, and I found no answers.

  Read the article

• .net runtime type casting when using reflection

  - by Mike

  I have need to cast a generic list of a concrete type to a generic list of an interface that the concrete types implement. This interface list is a property on an object and I am assigning the value using reflection. I only know the value at runtime. Below is a simple code example of what I am trying to accomplish: public void EmployeeTest() { IList<Employee> initialStaff = new List<Employee> { new Employee("John Smith"), new Employee("Jane Doe") }; Company testCompany = new Company("Acme Inc"); //testCompany.Staff = initialStaff; PropertyInfo staffProperty = testCompany.GetType().GetProperty("Staff"); staffProperty.SetValue(testCompany, (staffProperty.PropertyType)initialStaff, null); } Classes are defined like so: public class Company { private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } private IList<IEmployee> _staff; public IList<IEmployee> Staff { get { return _staff; } set { _staff = value; } } public Company(string name) { _name = name; } } public class Employee : IEmployee { private string _name; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } public Employee(string name) { _name = name; } } public interface IEmployee { string Name { get; set; } } Any thoughts? I am using .NET 4.0. Would the new covariant or contravariant features help? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

  - by marcusstarnes

  I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Ado.net dataservices BeginExecuteBatch call works on development fails on production server with Obj

  - by Mike Morley

  We have an ado.net dataservices 1.0 call that is being passed to a [WebGet] service operation as a batch through BeginExecuteBatch. Everything works perfectly on our development server - we have the project configured to use IIS instead of the cassini web server to make it as close to our production server as we can. When we publish to the production server, all the service operations work perfectly except the batch call, which fails with Object does not match target type. . I have not been able to find any cause for this. I can even run a single non-batch style GET operation against the [WebGet] service by copying the URL used in the batch and pasting it in a browser. I have not been able to find any information to help me solve this - any guidance would be most appreciated. Thanks, Mike M. Error message From Fiddler: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Content-Type: application/xml DataServiceVersion: 1.0; An error occurred while processing this request. Object does not match target type. System.Reflection.TargetException at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.CheckConsistency(Object target) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateFirstSegment(IDataService service, String identifier, Boolean checkRights, String queryPortion, Boolean& crossReferencingUrl) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateSegments(String[] segments, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.ProcessRequestUri(Uri absoluteRequestUri, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.DataService`1.BatchDataService.HandleBatchContent(Stream responseStream)

  Read the article

• JSF html component on WebSphere 7.0

  - by Mike Schall

  We are in the process of upgrading to WebSphere 7.0 on Windows 2008 R2. Our applications currently run on WebSphere 6.1 on Windows 2003. We use custom controls we wrote using JSF 1.1 in our applications. Our controls seem to render and interact fine, however whenever we use a JSF HTML component such as: <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> ... <h:graphicImage url="#{MenuBean.bannerImagePath}" /> We get the following error: com.ibm.ws.jsp.JspCoreException: Unable to convert string '#{MenuBean.bannerImagePath}' to class javax.el.ValueExpression for attribute url: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Property Editor not registered with the PropertyEditorManager com.ibm.ws.jsp.JspCoreException: Unable to convert string '#{MenuBean.bannerImagePath}' to class javax.el.ValueExpression for attribute url: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Property Editor not registered with the PropertyEditorManager at org.apache.jasper.runtime.JspRuntimeLibrary.getValueFromPropertyEditorManager(JspRuntimeLibrary.java:939) at com.ibm._jsp._dashboard._jspx_meth_h_graphicImage_0(_dashboard.java:136) at com.ibm._jsp._dashboard._jspx_meth_f_view_0(_dashboard.java:436) at com.ibm._jsp._dashboard._jspService(_dashboard.java:109) at com.ibm.ws.jsp.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:98) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:831) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.servlet.ServletWrapper.service(ServletWrapper.java:1583) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.servlet.ServletWrapper.service(ServletWrapper.java:1523) I have found an article on IBM's website giving a possible fix: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg21318801 However I have removed the specified jars and am still receiving the error message. Again our custom controls seem to work fine under WebSphere 7's JSF 1.2. Thanks for any help you can provide. Mike

  Read the article

• How to handle ViewModel and Database in C#/WPF/MVVM App

  - by Mike B

  I have a task management program with a "Urgency" field. Valid values are Int16 currently mapped to 1 (High), 2 (Medium), 3 (Low), 4 (None) and 99 (Closed). The urgency field is used to rank tasks as well as alter the look of the items in the list and detail view. When a user is editing or adding a new task they select or view the urgency in a ComboBox. A Converter passes Strings to replace the Ints. The urgency collection is so simple I did not make it a table in the database, instead it is a, ObservableCollection(Int16) that is populated by a method. Since the same screen may be used to view a closed task the "Closed" urgency must be in the ItemsSource but I do not want the user to be able to select it. In order to prevent the user from being able to select that item in the ComboBox but still be able to see it if the item in the database has that value should I... Manually disable the item in the ComboBox in code or Xaml (I doubt it) Change the Urgency collection from an Int16 to an Object with a Selectable Property that the isEnabled property of the ComboBoxItem Binds to. Do as in 2 but also separate the urgency information into its own table in the database with a foreign key in the Tasks table None of the above (I suspect this is the correct answer) I ask this because this is a learning project (My first real WPF and first ever MVVM project). I know there is rarely one Right way to do something but I want to make sure I am learning in a reasonable manner since it if far harder to Unlearn bad habits Thanks Mike

  Read the article

• Problem adding Contact with new API

  - by Mike

  Hello, I am trying to add a new contact to my contact list using the new ContactContract API via my application. I have the following method based on the Contact Manager example on android dev. private static void addContactCore(Context context, String accountType, String accountName, String name, String phoneNumber, int phoneType) throws RemoteException, OperationApplicationException { ArrayList<ContentProviderOperation> ops = new ArrayList<ContentProviderOperation>(); //Add contact type ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(ContactsContract.RawContacts.CONTENT_URI) .withValue(ContactsContract.RawContacts.ACCOUNT_TYPE, accountType) .withValue(ContactsContract.RawContacts.ACCOUNT_NAME, accountName) .build()); //Add contact name ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI) .withValueBackReference(ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID, 0) .withValue(ContactsContract.Data.MIMETYPE, ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE) .withValue(ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.StructuredName.DISPLAY_NAME, (!name.toLowerCase().equals("unavailable") && !name.equals("")) ? name : phoneNumber) .build()); //Add phone number ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI) .withValueBackReference(ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID, 0) .withValue(ContactsContract.Data.MIMETYPE, ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE) .withValue(ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.NUMBER, phoneNumber) .withValue(ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.TYPE, phoneType) .build()); //Add contact context.getContentResolver().applyBatch(ContactsContract.AUTHORITY, ops); } In one example I have the flowing values for the parameters. accountType:com.google accountName:(my google account email) name:Mike phoneNumber:5555555555 phoneType:3 The call to the function returns normally without any exception being thrown however the contact is no where to be found in the contact manager on my phone. There is also no contact with that information on my phone already. Does anyone have any insight into what I might be doing wrong?

  Read the article

• .NET assembly cache / ngen / jit image warm-up and cool-down behavior

  - by Mike Jiang

  Hi, I have an Input Method (IME) program built with C#.NET 2.0 DLL through C++/CLI. Since an IME is always attaching to another application, the C#.NET DLL seems not able to avoid image address rebasing. Although I have applied ngen to create a native image of that C#.NET 2.0 DLL and installed it into Global Assembly Cache, it didn't improved much, approximately 12 sec. down to 9 sec. on a slow PIII level PC. Therefore I uses a small application, which loads all the components referenced by the C#.NET DLL at the boot up time, to "warm up" the native image of that DLL. It works fine to speed up the loading time to 0.5 sec. However, it only worked for a while. About 30 min. later, it seems to "cool down" again. Is there any way to control the behavior of GAC or native image to be always "hot"? Is this exactly a image address rebasing problem? Thank you for your precious time. Sincerely, Mike

  Read the article

• Filtering log4net on method name - can't quite get it

  - by Mike Kingscott

  I'm using log4net to log my web app's progress, using Log4PostSharp to AOP-injectify all methods. This has the desired effect of logging (almost) everything and is fine. I now have a requirement to log JUST Page_Load methods to a file / console. I can obviously hamstring the log4postsharp class to do that, but then I'd be losing all the other logging. I've been looking at filters in log4net, starting with the StringMatch filter, but that only looks at the message being logged, and I'm after the method name. This put me onto the PropertyFilter, but still with no joy. My log4net.config snippet is thus: <appender name="RollingLogFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <filter type="log4net.Filter.PropertyFilter"> <key value="LocationInfo.MethodName"/> <stringToMatch value="Page_Load"/> </filter> <file value="d:\\xxxx\\yyyyy\\zzzzLog"/> As you can see, I'm trying to key into the MethodName of the logging event via LocationInfo, but I'm still getting everything logged. Can anyone assist? Thank you, Mike K.

  Read the article

• Should an Event that has no arguments define its own custom EventArgs or simply use System.EventArgs

  - by Mike Rosenblum

  I have an event that is currently defined with no event arguments. That is, the EventArgs it sends is EventArgs.Empty. In this case, it is simplest to declare my Event handler as: EventHandler<System.EventArgs> MyCustomEvent; I do not plan on adding any event arguments to this event, but it is possible that any code could need to change in the future. Therefore, I am leaning towards having all my events always create an empty event args type that inheretis from System.EventArgs, even if there are no event args currently needed. Something like this: public class MyCustomEventArgs : EventArgs { } And then my event definition becomes the following: EventHandler<MyCustomEventArgs> MyCustomEvent; So my question is this: is it better to define my own MyCustomEventArgs, even if it does not add anything beyond inheriting from System.EventArgs, so that event arguments could be added in the future more easily? Or is it better to explicitly define my event as returning System.EventArgs, so that it is clearer to the user that there are no extra event args? I am leaning towards creating custom event arguments for all my events, even if the event arguments are empty. But I was wondering if others thought that making it clearer to the user that the event arguments are empty would be better? Much thanks in advance, Mike

  Read the article

• What are basic programs like, recursion, Fibonacci, small trick programs?

  - by Mike

  This question may seem daft (I'm a new to 'programming' and should probably stop if this is the type of question I'm required to ask)... What are: "basic programs like, recursion, fibonacci, factorial, string manipulation, small trick programs"? I've recently read Coding Horror - the non programmer and followed the links to Kegel and How to get hired. Then I delved through some similar questions here (hence the block quote) and I realised that as a fully fledged non-programmer I probably wouldn't know if I knew recursion (or any of the others) because I wouldn't know what it looked like, or why it was used, and what the results would look like after it was used. I suppose I'm trying to get a picture of "the basics". What the principles are and why we learn them - where they'll be used and what result/s your looking for. If they'll be used as an interview question during my first interview sometime in 2020 I would like to look less ignorant than those 199 out of 200 who just don't know the how, or the why, of programming. As always...I'll get my coat. Thanks Mike

  Read the article

• How to set focus to a brand new TextBox which was created as a result of a databinding in WPF?

  - by Mike

  Hi everyone, I have a WPF ItemsControl that is bound to an ObservableCollection. The XAML: <ItemsControl Name="mItemsControl"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Mode=OneWay}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> The codebehind: private ObservableCollection<string> mCollection = new ObservableCollection<string>(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.mCollection.Add("Test1"); this.mCollection.Add("Test2"); this.mItemsControl.ItemsSource = this.mCollection; } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); } When I click a button, it adds a new string to the databound ObservableCollection which triggers a new TextBox to appear. I want to give this new textbox focus. I've tried this technique from a related StackOverflow question but it always sets focus to the textbox before the newly created one. private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); // MoveFocus takes a TraversalRequest as its argument. TraversalRequest request = new TraversalRequest(FocusNavigationDirection.Previous); // Gets the element with keyboard focus. UIElement elementWithFocus = Keyboard.FocusedElement as UIElement; // Change keyboard focus. if (elementWithFocus != null) { elementWithFocus.MoveFocus(request); } } My need seems simple enough, but it's almost like the new textbox doesn't really exist until a slight delay after something is added to the ObservableCollection. Any ideas of what would work? Thanks! -Mike

  Read the article

• Symfony/Propel NestedSet left/right ID corruption/adjustment

  - by Mike Crowe

  Hi folks, I have a nested set application that seems to be getting corrupted. Here's what I'm seeing: We're using nested sets for a binary tree (any node can have 2 children). It appears to be working fine, but some event causes a discrepancy. For instance, when I do a getNumberOfDescendants() for the root node, it will slowly increase as this event happens. However, displaying the tree works fine, as does inserting (apparently). Has anybody seen anything like this before? For instance, my repair program shows this as the repairs that it makes: User pxxxxx left 0=>0, right 145=>129 User axxxxx left 1=>1, right 124=>106 User mxxxxx left 119=>117, right 120=>118 User fxxxxx left 125=>107, right 144=>128 User fxxxxx left 126=>108, right 131=>113 User rxxxxx left 127=>109, right 128=>110 User mxxxxx left 129=>111, right 130=>112 User mxxxxx left 132=>114, right 143=>127 User cxxxxx left 133=>115, right 142=>126 User gxxxxx left 134=>116, right 137=>121 User mxxxxx left 135=>119, right 136=>120 User jxxxxx left 138=>122, right 141=>125 User axxxxx left 139=>123, right 140=>124 I thought at first it was when I deleted a user, but it has since occurred w/o that event. Anybody know of a cause that might generate this? I've tested ad nauseum on my local machine, but I can't duplicate it. I do have an issue where my production box is PHP 5.2.0, whereas my test device is 5.2.10. Could that be an issue? TIA Mike

  Read the article

• How to determine if an item is the last one in a WPF ItemTemplate?

  - by Mike

  Hi everyone, I have some XAML <ItemsControl Name="mItemsControl"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Mode=OneWay}" KeyUp="TextBox_KeyUp"/> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> that's bound to a simple ObservableCollection private ObservableCollection<string> mCollection = new ObservableCollection<string>(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.mCollection.Add("Test1"); this.mCollection.Add("Test2"); this.mItemsControl.ItemsSource = this.mCollection; } Upon hitting the enter key in the last TextBox, I want another TextBox to appear. I have code that does it, but there's a gap: private void TextBox_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key != Key.Enter) { return; } TextBox textbox = (TextBox)sender; if (IsTextBoxTheLastOneInTheTemplate(textbox)) { this.mCollection.Add("A new textbox appears!"); } } The function IsTextBoxTheLastOneInTheTemplate() is something that I need, but can't figure out how to write. How would I go about writing it? I've considered using ItemsControl.ItemContainerGenerator, but can't put all the pieces together. Thanks! -Mike

  Read the article

• Best Practice: QT4 QList<Mything*>... on Heap, or QList<Mything> using reference?

  - by Mike Crowe

  Hi Folks, Learning C++, so be gentle :)... I have been designing my application primarily using heap variables (coming from C), so I've designed structures like this: QList<Criteria*> _Criteria; // ... Criteria *c = new Criteria(....); _Criteria.append(c); All through my program, I'm passing pointers to specific Criteria, or often the list. So, I have a function declared like this: QList<Criteria*> Decision::addCriteria(int row,QString cname,QString ctype); Criteria * Decision::getCriteria(int row,int col) which inserts a Criteria into a list, and returns the list so my GUI can display it. I'm wondering if I should have used references, somehow. Since I'm always wanting that exact Criteria back, should I have done: QList<Criteria> _Criteria; // .... Criteria c(....); _Criteria.append(c); ... QList<Criteria>& Decision::addCriteria(int row,QString cname,QString ctype); Criteria& Decision::getCriteria(int row,int col) (not sure if the latter line is syntactically correct yet, but you get the drift). All these items are specific, quasi-global items that are the core of my program. So, the question is this: I can certainly allocate/free all my memory w/o an issue in the method I'm using now, but is there are more C++ way? Would references have been a better choice (it's not too late to change on my side). TIA Mike

  Read the article

• How to force an HTML JLabel in a JTree to resize when the font changes

  - by Mike

  I'm updating a Java Swing application to support the user switching the app's font from normal size to a larger size (so the user can switch between the two sizes at runtime). One problem I'm having is with a JTree that uses HTML for the tree nodes to underline the text in some nodes (the HTML is just embedded in the JLabel of each tree node). One extra thing to know about the nodes is that they're a custom component, adding a JCheckBox in front of each JLabel. The problem is that once the JTree is visible, increasing the font size causes the nodes (containing underlined text) to not resize. The HTML for those nodes seems to prevent the node from becoming wider, so when the font changes, the text becomes truncated. I think my options are to either: 1) use another approach to make the text underlined, since removing the HTML from the JLabel causes it to resize properly when the font size changes, or 2) keep the HTML formatting and somehow force the JTree/JLabels to resize when the font size is updated (possibly by firing a property change event?). The code already calls SwingUtilities.updateComponentTreeUI() on the parent JFrame when the font size gets updated. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance! -Mike

  Read the article

• Access Denied while using System.Diagnostics.Process

  - by Mike C

  I am trying to use the unmanaged ImageMagick library in my ASP.NET application from the command line using System.Diagnostics.Process. Basically, users will upload an .eps file to the site, and then I will run the command line command to convert it into .jpg. This is the code I'm using to try and run the command: Dim proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = True proc.StartInfo.FileName = "C:\Program Files (x86)\ImageMagick-6.6.1-Q16\convert.exe" proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False proc.StartInfo.Arguments = String.Format("{0} {1}", Server.MapPath("~/logo/test.eps"), _ Server.MapPath("~/certificates/temp/test-1234.jpg")) proc.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = True proc.Start() I am able to run this code just fine on our development Win 2k3 server, but not on our production Win 2k3 Server. I get the error "System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied". The main between the two servers is that the production is 64-bit and runs Plesk to manage multiple domains. I've tried adding rights asp.net user to the ImageMagick directory. The PS Admin says that in the case of Plesk, it's the same account that I use to access the site in VS using FPE. Does anyone know what I might do in order to allow this process to run on my production server? Thanks, Mike

  Read the article

• Access Expression problem: it's too complex, so how do I turn it in to a function?

  - by Mike

  Access 2007 is telling me that my new expression is to complex. It used to work when we had 10 service levels, but now we have 19! Great! I've asked this question in SuperUser and someone suggested I try it over here. Suggestions are I turn it in to a function - but I'm not sure where to begin and what the function would look like. My expression is checking the COST of our services in the [PriceCharged] field and then assigning the appropriate HOURS [Servicelevel] when I perform a calculation to work out how much REVENUE each colleague has made when working for a client. The [EstimatedTime] field stores the actual hours each colleague has worked. [EstimatedTime]/[ServiceLevel]*[PriceCharged] Below is the breakdown of my COST to HOURS expression. I've put them on different lines to make it easier to read - please do not be put off by the length of this post, it's all the same info in the end. Many thanks,Mike ServiceLevel: IIf([pricecharged]=100(COST),6(HOURS), IIf([pricecharged]=200 Or [pricecharged]=210,12.5, IIf([pricecharged]=300,19, IIf([pricecharged]=400 Or [pricecharged]=410,25, IIf([pricecharged]=500,31, IIf([pricecharged]=600,37.5, IIf([pricecharged]=700,43, IIf([pricecharged]=800 Or [pricecharged]=810,50, IIf([pricecharged]=900,56, IIf([pricecharged]=1000,62.5, IIf([pricecharged]=1100,69, IIf([pricecharged]=1200 Or [pricecharged]=1210,75, IIf([pricecharged]=1300 Or [pricecharged]=1310,100, IIf([pricecharged]=1400,125, IIf([pricecharged]=1500,150, IIf([pricecharged]=1600,175, IIf([pricecharged]=1700,200, IIf([pricecharged]=1800,225, IIf([pricecharged]=1900,250,0)))))))))))))))))))

  Read the article

• What is the prefered or accepted method for testing proxy settings?

  - by Mike Webb

  I have a lot of trouble with the internet connectivity in the program I am working on and it all seems to spawn from some issue with the proxy settings. Most of the issues at this point are fixed, but the issue I am having now is that my method of testing the proxy settings makes some users wait for long periods of time. Here is what I do: System.Net.WebClient webClnt = new System.Net.WebClient(); webClnt.Proxy = proxy; webClnt.Credentials = proxy.Credentials; byte[] tempBytes; try { tempBytes = webClnt.DownloadData(url.Address); } catch { //Invalid proxy settings //Code to handle the exception goes here } This is the only way that I've found to test if the proxy settings are correct. I tried making a web service call to our web service, but no proxy settings are needed when making the call. It will work even if I have bogus proxy settings. The above method, though, has no timeout member that I can set that I can find and I use the DownloadData as opposed to the DownloadDataAsync because I need to wait til the method is done so that I can know if the settings are correct before continuing on in the program. Any suggestions on a better method or a work around for this method is appreciated. Mike

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28  | Next Page >