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  • Removing HttpModule for specific path in ASP.NET / IIS 7 application?

    - by soccerdad
    Most succinctly, my question is whether an ASP.NET 4.0 app running under IIS 7 integrated mode should be able to honor this portion of my Web.config file: <location path="auth/windows"> <system.webServer> <modules> <remove name="FormsAuthentication"/> </modules> </system.webServer> </location> I'm experimenting with mixed mode authentication (Windows and Forms - I know there are other questions on S.O. about the topic). Using IIS Manager, I've disabled Anonymous authentication to auth/windows/winauth.aspx, which is within the location path above. I have Failed Request Tracing set up to trace various HTTP status codes, including 302s. When I request the winauth.aspx page, a 302 HTTP status code is returned. If I look at the request trace, I can see that a 401 (unauthorized) was originally generated by the AnonymousAuthenticationModule. However, the FormsAuthenticationModule converts that to a 302, which is what the browser sees. So it seems as though my attempt to remove that module from the pipeline for pages in that path isn't working. But I'm not seeing any complaints anywhere (event viewer, yellow pages of death, etc.) that would indicate it's an invalid configuration. I want the 401 returned to the browser, which presumably would include an appropriate WWW-Authenticate header. A couple of other points: a) I do have <authentication mode="Forms"> in my Web.config, and that is what the 302 redirects to; b) I got the "name" of the module I'm trying to remove from the inetserv\config\applicationHost.config file. Anyone had any luck removing modules in this fashion? Thanks much, Donnie

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  • Did I implement clock drift properly?

    - by David Titarenco
    I couldn't find any clock drift RNG code for Windows anywhere so I attempted to implement it myself. I haven't run the numbers through ent or DIEHARD yet, and I'm just wondering if this is even remotely correct... void QueryRDTSC(__int64* tick) { __asm { xor eax, eax cpuid rdtsc mov edi, dword ptr tick mov dword ptr [edi], eax mov dword ptr [edi+4], edx } } __int64 clockDriftRNG() { __int64 CPU_start, CPU_end, OS_start, OS_end; // get CPU ticks -- uses RDTSC on the Processor QueryRDTSC(&CPU_start); Sleep(1); QueryRDTSC(&CPU_end); // get OS ticks -- uses the Motherboard clock QueryPerformanceCounter((LARGE_INTEGER*)&OS_start); Sleep(1); QueryPerformanceCounter((LARGE_INTEGER*)&OS_end); // CPU clock is ~1000x faster than mobo clock // return raw return ((CPU_end - CPU_start)/(OS_end - OS_start)); // or // return a random number from 0 to 9 // return ((CPU_end - CPU_start)/(OS_end - OS_start)%10); } If you're wondering why I Sleep(1), it's because if I don't, OS_end - OS_start returns 0 consistently (because of the bad timer resolution, I presume). Basically, (CPU_end - CPU_start)/(OS_end - OS_start) always returns around 1000 with a slight variation based on the entropy of CPU load, maybe temperature, quartz crystal vibration imperfections, etc. Anyway, the numbers have a pretty decent distribution, but this could be totally wrong. I have no idea.

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  • Why am I getting "Message sent to deallocated instance" in Objective-C?

    - by Dave C
    I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag (int value) is parsed into the controller's house ID. It works with one of the buttons — the first one created, to be specific — but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code. I haven't set them to autorelease or anything like that. I'm just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++;

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  • Which text margin does SWT Table use when drawing text?

    - by Zordid
    I got a relatively easy question - but I cannot find anything anywhere to answer it. I use a simple SWT table widget in my application that displays only text in the cells. I got an incremental search feature and want to highlight text snippets in all cells if they match. So when typing "a", all "a"s should be highlighted. To get this, I add an SWT.EraseItem listener to interfere with the background drawing. If the current cell's text contains the search string, I find the positions and calculate relative x-coordinates within the text using event.gc.stringExtent - easy. With that I just draw rectangles "behind" the occurrences. Now, there's a flaw in this. The table does not draw the text without a margin, so my x coordinate does not really match - it is slightly off by a few pixels! But how many?? Where do I retrieve the cell's text margins that table's own drawing will use? No clue. Cannot find anything. :-( Bonus question: the table's draw method also shortens text and adds "..." if it does not fit into the cell. Hmm. My occurrence finder takes the TableItem's text and thus also tries to mark occurrences that are actually not visible because they are consumed by the "...". How do I get the shortened text and not the "real" text within the EraseItem draw handler? Thanks!

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  • Macro to improve callback registration readability

    - by Warren Seine
    I'm trying to write a macro to make a specific usage of callbacks in C++ easier. All my callbacks are member functions and will take this as first argument and a second one whose type inherits from a common base class. The usual way to go is: register_callback(boost::bind(&my_class::member_function, this, _1)); I'd love to write: register_callback(HANDLER(member_function)); Note that it will always be used within the same class. Even if typeof is considered as a bad practice, it sounds like a pretty solution to the lack of __class__ macro to get the current class name. The following code works: typedef typeof(*this) CLASS; boost::bind(& CLASS :: member_function, this, _1)(my_argument); but I can't use this code in a macro which will be given as argument to register_callback. I've tried: #define HANDLER(FUN) \ boost::bind(& typeof(*this) :: member_function, this, _1); which doesn't work for reasons I don't understand. Quoting GCC documentation: A typeof-construct can be used anywhere a typedef name could be used. My compiler is GCC 4.4, and even if I'd prefer something standard, GCC-specific solutions are accepted.

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  • Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

    - by David Stratton
    Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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  • Getting data from child controls loaded programmatically

    - by Farinha
    I've created 2 controls to manipulate a data object: 1 for viewing and another for editing. On one page I load the "view" User Control and pass data to it this way: ViewControl control = (ViewControl)LoadControl("ViewControl.ascx"); control.dataToView = dataObject; this.container.Controls.Add(control); That's all fine and inside the control I can grab that data and display it. Now I'm trying to follow a similar approach for editing. I have a different User Control for this (with some textboxes for editing) to which I pass the original data the same way I did for the view: EditControl control = (EditControl)LoadControl("EditControl.ascx"); control.dataToEdit = dataObject; this.container.Controls.Add(control); Which also works fine. The problem now is getting to this data. When the user clicks a button I need to fetch the data that was edited and do stuff with it. What's happening is that because the controls are being added programmatically, the data that the user changed doesn't seem to be accessible anywhere. Is there a solution for this? Or is this way of trying to keep things separated and possibly re-usable not possible? Thanks in advance.

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  • Refactoring - Speed increase

    - by Michael G
    How can I make this function more efficient. It's currently running at 6 - 45 seconds. I've ran dotTrace profiler on this specific method, and it's total time is anywhere between 6,000ms to 45,000ms. The majority of the time is spent on the "MoveNext" and "GetEnumerator" calls. and example of the times are 71.55% CreateTableFromReportDataColumns - 18, 533* ms - 190 calls -- 55.71% MoveNext - 14,422ms - 10,775 calls What can I do to speed this method up? it gets called a lot, and the seconds add up: private static DataTable CreateTableFromReportDataColumns(Report report) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); HashSet<String> colsToAdd = new HashSet<String> { "DataStream" }; foreach (ReportData reportData in report.ReportDatas) { IEnumerable<string> cols = reportData.ReportDataColumns.Where(c => !String.IsNullOrEmpty(c.Name)).Select(x => x.Name).Distinct(); foreach (var s in cols) { if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(s)) colsToAdd.Add(s); } } foreach (string col in colsToAdd) { table.Columns.Add(col); } return table; }

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  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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  • Why are compilers so stupid?

    - by martinus
    I always wonder why compilers can't figure out simple things that are obvious to the human eye. They do lots of simple optimizations, but never something even a little bit complex. For example, this code takes about 6 seconds on my computer to print the value zero (using java 1.6): int x = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100 * 1000 * 1000 * 1000; ++i) { x += x + x + x + x + x; } System.out.println(x); It is totally obvious that x is never changed so no matter how often you add 0 to itself it stays zero. So the compiler could in theory replace this with System.out.println(0). Or even better, this takes 23 seconds: public int slow() { String s = "x"; for (int i = 0; i < 100000; ++i) { s += "x"; } return 10; } First the compiler could notice that I am actually creating a string s of 100000 "x" so it could automatically use s StringBuilder instead, or even better directly replace it with the resulting string as it is always the same. Second, It does not recognize that I do not actually use the string at all, so the whole loop could be discarded! Why, after so much manpower is going into fast compilers, are they still so relatively dumb? EDIT: Of course these are stupid examples that should never be used anywhere. But whenever I have to rewrite a beautiful and very readable code into something unreadable so that the compiler is happy and produces fast code, I wonder why compilers or some other automated tool can't do this work for me.

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  • Is there a way to transfrom a list of key/value pairs into a data transfer object

    - by weevie
    ...apart from the obvious looping through the list and a dirty great case statement! I've turned over a few Linq queries in my head but nothing seems to get anywhere close. Here's the an example DTO if it helps: class ClientCompany { public string Title { get; private set; } public string Forenames { get; private set; } public string Surname { get; private set; } public string EmailAddress { get; private set; } public string TelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string AlternativeTelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string Address1 { get; private set; } public string Address2 { get; private set; } public string TownOrDistrict { get; private set; } public string CountyOrState { get; private set; } public string PostCode { get; private set; } } We have no control over the fact that we're getting the data in as KV pairs, I'm afraid.

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  • Apache is looking for htaccess and htpasswd files that aren't there

    - by user1094092
    Having an issue where Apache is requesting authentication, and looking for an .htpasswd file, based on instructions from an .htaccess file that's no longer in DocumentRoot. Background: In my DocumentRoot, I'd previously copied an .htaccess and .htpasswd file from another machine (along with all of the other website files). .htaccess contents: AuthType Basic AuthName "Password is required" AuthUserFile /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd Require valid-user Here's the catch: I moved .htaccess and .htpasswd out of DocumentRoot and even renamed the files. There is no longer an .htaccess file in DocumentRoot at all. But, when I try to access localhost from a browser, I am prompted to enter the login and password. When I enter the login and password (from the old, not-in-DocumentRoot .hpasswd file), I get a 500 Internal Server error and the log shows: [error] [client 127.0.0.1] (2)No such file or directory: Could not open password file: /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd This has been quite a puzzle, because there's no longer a .htaccess or .htpasswd file anywhere in DocumentRoot !! Have tried several apache restarts and also tried using a blank .htaccess file in the DocumentRoot. Even grepped the entire machine for references to AuthType Basic to see if I missed anything. httpd.conf looks normal enough...I can post that if needed, but this question seems long enough as it is :) Thanks for any assistance you can provide

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  • Select ID in table ...

    - by Kris-I
    Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

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  • What is the process involved in viewing a webservice in a browser from within visual studio?

    - by Sam Holder
    I have created a new VS2008 ASP.Net Web service project, with the default name WebService1. If I right click on the Service1.asmx file and select 'View in Browser' what are the processes that go on to make this happen? I am asking because I have a situation where when I run this from a visual studio project started in our development shell (which sets up a common build environment) I cannot get the web service to show up in the browser. It starts the asp.net development server and creates a single file: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c43ddc22\268ae91b\hash\hash.web but when I start it from a stand alone project i get a whole slew of files in here: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\App_Web_defaultwsdlhelpgenerator.aspx.cdcab7d2.vicgkf94.dll C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\service1.asmx.cdcab7d2.compiled etc etc I am trying to debug this but not really getting anywhere. i have inspected the output from VS but the only option I get is for the build output, which is basic and doesn't really contain any information that is useful. I have tried running both versions with DebugView running but no output there either. I would like to know if there are any log files I could look at, or if anyone has any suggestions on how I might be able to debug what is going wrong here? For completeness the output I get when it doesn't work is: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not create type 'WebService1.Service1'. Source Error: Line 1: Source File: /Service1.asmx Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082

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  • NSDrawer delegate pointing to deallocated object?

    - by Isaac
    A user has sent in a crash report with the stack trace listed below (I have not been able to reproduce the crash myself, but every other crash this user has reported has been a valid bug, even when I couldn't reproduce the effect). The application is a reference-counted Objective-C/Cocoa app. If I am interpreting it correctly, the crash is caused by attempting to send a drawerDidOpen: message to a deallocated object. The only object that should be receiving drawerDidOpen: is the drawer's delegate object (nowhere does any object register to receive drawer notifications), and the drawer's delegate object is instantiated via the XIB/NIB file, wired to the delegate outlet of the drawer, and not referenced anywhere else. Given that, how can I protect against the delegate getting dealloc'd before the drawer notification? Or, alternately, what have I misinterpreted that might be causing the crash? Crash log/stack trace: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x0000000000000010 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: drawerDidOpen: Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff8272011c objc_msgSend + 40 1 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87d0786e _nsnote_callback + 167 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831bcaea __CFXNotificationPost + 954 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831a9098 _CFXNotificationPostNotification + 200 4 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87cfe7d8 -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] + 101 5 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff8512e944 _NSDrawerObserverCallBack + 840 6 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831d40d7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 519 7 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831af8c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 548 8 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8ada RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 333 9 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b883d ReceiveNextEventCommon + 148 10 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8798 BlockUntilNextEventMatchingListInMode + 59 11 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8a2a _DPSNextEvent + 708 12 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8379 -[NSApplication nextEventMatchingMask:untilDate:inMode:dequeue:] + 155 13 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84dae05b -[NSApplication run] + 395 14 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84da6d7c NSApplicationMain + 364 15 (my app's identifier) 0x0000000100001188 start + 52

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  • How does mercurial's bisect work when the range includes branching?

    - by Joshua Goldberg
    If the bisect range includes multiple branches, how does hg bisect's search work. Does it effectively bisect each sub-branch (I would think that would be inefficient)? For instance, borrowing, with gratitude, a diagram from an answer to this related question, what if the bisect got to changeset 7 on the "good" right-side branch first. @ 12:8ae1fff407c8:bad6 | o 11:27edd4ba0a78:bad5 | o 10:312ba3d6eb29:bad4 |\ | o 9:68ae20ea0c02:good33 | | | o 8:916e977fa594:good32 | | | o 7:b9d00094223f:good31 | | o | 6:a7cab1800465:bad3 | | o | 5:a84e45045a29:bad2 | | o | 4:d0a381a67072:bad1 | | o | 3:54349a6276cc:good4 |/ o 2:4588e394e325:good3 | o 1:de79725cb39a:good2 | o 0:2641cc78ce7a:good1 Will it then look only between 7 and 12, missing the real first-bad that we care about? (thus using "dumb" numerical order) or is it smart enough to use the full topography and to know that the first bad could be below 7 on the right-side branch, or could still be anywhere on the left-side branch. The purpose of my question is both (a) just to understand the algorithm better, and (b) to understand whether I can liberally extend my initial bisect range without thinking hard about what branch I go to. I've been in high-branching bisect situations where it kept asking me after every test to extend beyond the next merge, so that the whole procedure was essentially O(n). I'm wondering if I can just throw the first "good" marker way back past some nest of merges without thinking about it much, and whether that would save time and give correct results.

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • How to implement jsf validator?

    - by Krishna
    HI, I want to know how to implement Validator in JSF. What is the advantages of declaring the validator-id. When it will be called in the life cycle?. I have implemented the following code. Please find out what is wrong in the code. I am not seeing it called anywhere in the life cycle. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE faces-config PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD JavaServer Faces Config 1.1//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-facesconfig_1_1.dtd"> <faces-config> <lifecycle> <phase-listener>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfPhaseListener</phase-listener> </lifecycle> <validator> <validator-id>JsfValidator</validator-id> <validator-class>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfValidator</validator-class> </validator> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>jsfBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>javabeat.net.beans.ManagedBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> <navigation-rule> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>success.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> </faces-config> public class JsfValidator implements Validator { public JsfValidator() { System.out.println("Inside JsfValidator Constructor"); } @Override public void validate(FacesContext facesContext, UIComponent uiComponent, Object object) throws ValidatorException { System.out.println("Inside Validator"); } }

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  • How to maintain an ordered table with Core Data (or SQL) with insertions/deletions?

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    This question is in the context of Core Data, but if I am not mistaken, it applies equally well to a more general SQL case. I want to maintain an ordered table using Core Data, with the possibility for the user to: reorder rows insert new lines anywhere delete any existing line What's the best data model to do that? I can see two ways: 1) Model it as an array: I add an int position property to my entity 2) Model it as a linked list: I add two one-to-one relations, next and previous from my entity to itself 1) makes it easy to sort, but painful to insert or delete as you then have to update the position of all objects that come after 2) makes it easy to insert or delete, but very difficult to sort. In fact, I don't think I know how to express a Sort Descriptor (SQL ORDER BY clause) for that case. Now I can imagine a variation on 1): 3) add an int ordering property to the entity, but instead of having it count one-by-one, have it count 100 by 100 (for example). Then inserting is as simple as finding any number between the ordering of the previous and next existing objects. The expensive renumbering only has to occur when the 100 holes have been filled. Making that property a float rather than an int makes it even better: it's almost always possible to find a new float midway between two floats. Am I on the right track with solution 3), or is there something smarter?

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  • adb doesn't get phone's device name/number

    - by Dona Hertel
    Okay, I have a strange problem I haven't seen listed anywhere. I'm developing an android app and I would like to run it on my Huawei Ascend. I have set up a file in /etc/udev/90-android.rules with the line: SUBSYSTEM=="usb", SYSFS{idVendor}=="12d1", MODE="0666" where '12d1' is the correct vendor ID for this phone (I verified this with 'lsusb' command). When I plug in the phone (it does have debugging on) and restart the adb server I get a connection but the name field does not get set. The output to 'adb devices' is: List of devices attached \n ???????????? device Plugging and unplugging the cable doesn't resolve this. Neither does restarting the adb server. Nor does a total reboot of both my computer or the phone. This is fine as I can get logs and a shell. The problem is that in the eclipse plugin, the device's name is list as "????????????" and so when it tries connect, it quits with an error message of 'device not found' even though the device is listed and 'online'. Is there something else I need to do? Do I need to set the name of the device somehow? cocofan P.S.: The app has 'debuggable' set to true in the manifest file.

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  • Getting Preferred, Varied Products -- Tough Pseudocode Question

    - by Volomike
    I have a Dallas client who has given me a tough process to work out. I'm seeking your advice. I use PHP, but the language doesn't matter. We can work this out in pseudocode. In a nutshell, this involves showing products on a page based on matching keyword phrases, and using a preferred product provider, but varying this up so that I try to show products from each provider as much as possible when I can. He has 3 product companies: Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. I already have worked out with the API to get products back in an array via a function. He wants to give the user the preference of which one to use primarily -- so a priority number on each. He wants to display anywhere from 1 to 6 products on a page from them. Let's go with 6 for now in this example to start with. Let's assume Amazon first, then eBay, then Overstock as far as priority. He wants me to attempt to take a keyword phrase and find relevant products (all the keywords found in product title) from Amazon, eBay, and Overstock. If we find 1 product from each provider, he wants me to only display one product from each. But if we run out of a particular provider with a matching product, I start over again and grab another product from another provider until we reach 6 products. If there just aren't 6 relevant products, then I do the best I can -- even if I only display one product. If no relevant products, then I don't display anything.

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  • http_access.log on WebSphere 6.1.0.29

    - by DavidG
    I am running WebSphere 6.1.0.29 and I need to track the requests being made to an Enterprise Application. Previously I did this by routing the requests through a proxy server, but I need to repeat the exercise and I figure there must be a simpler way. Does anyone know how to enable HTTP access logging? I have been through the console an thought I had enabled http_access.log and http_error.log via: Application servers server1 HTTP error and NCSA access logging (where 'server1' is the application server) I've enabled the service at startup, and ticked the boxes to enable access logging and error logging - however... nothing has happened. I have restarted the server, restarted the Enterprise apps and even did a "find . -name" for the log files - but they don't seem to be anywhere on the system. I saw on a JavaRanch thread someone suggested writing a custom filter for requests in an application, but this seems like wild overkill - plus I am doing the logs to test a pre-built binary, so I don't want to mess with the code. Anyone have any ideas/suggestions? Help! :-)

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  • HTTP Negotiate windows vs. Unix server implementation using python-kerberos

    - by ondra
    I tried to implement a simple single-sign-on in my python web server. I have used the python-kerberos package which works nicely. I have tested it from my Linux box (authenticating against active directory) and it was without problem. However, when I tried to authenticate using Firefox from Windows machine (no special setup, just having the user logged into the domain + added my server into negotiate-auth.trusted-uris), it doesn't work. I have looked at what is sent and it doesn't even resemble the things the Linux machine sends. This Microsoft description of the process pretty much resembles the way my interaction from Linux works, but the Windows machine generally sends a very short string, which doesn't even resemble the things microsoft documentation states, and when base64 decoded, it is something like 12 zero bytes followed by 3 or 4 non-zero bytes (GSS functions then return that it doesn't support such scheme) Either there is something wrong with the client Firefox settings, or there is some protocol which I am supposed to follow for the Negotiate protocol, but which I cannot find any reference anywhere. Any ideas what's wrong? Do you have any idea what protocol I should by trying to find, as it doesn' look like SPNEGO, at least from MS documentation.

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  • Declare models elsewhere than in "models.py"

    - by sebpiq
    Hi ! I have an application that splits models into different files. Actually the folder looks like : >myapp __init__.py models.py >hooks ... ... myapp don't care about what's in the hooks, folder, except that there are models, and that they have to be declared somehow. So, I put this in myapp.__init__.py : from django.conf import settings for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : __import__(hook) except ImportError as e : print "Got import err !", e #where HOOKS = ("myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1", ...) The problem is that it doesn't work when I run syncdb(and throws some strange "Got import err !"... strange considering that it's related to another module of my program that I don't even import anywhere :/ ) ! So I tried successively : 1) for hook in settings.HOOKS : try : exec ("from %s import *" % hook) doesn't work either : syncdb doesn't install the models in hooks 2) from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import * This works 3) exec("from myapp.hooks.a_super_hook1 import *") This works to So I checked that in the test 1), the statement executed is the same than in tests 2) and 3), and it is exactly the same ... Any idea ???

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  • django dynamically deduce SITE_ID according to the domain

    - by dcrodjer
    I am trying to develop a site which will render multiple customized sites according to the domain name (subdomain to be more precise). My all the domain names are redirected to the So for each site there will be a corresponding model which defines how the site should look (SITE - SITE_SETTINGS) What will be the best way to utilize the django sites framework to get the SITE_ID of the current site from the domain name instead of hard-coding it in the settings files (django sites documentation) and run database queries, render the views accordingly? If using multiple settings file is my only option can this (wsgi script handle domain name) be done? Update So finally, following lukes answer, what I will do is define a custom middleware which makes the views available with the important vars required according to the domain. And as far as sitemaps and comments is concerned, I will have to customize sitemaps app and a custom sites model on which the other models of sites will be based. And since the comments system is based on the hard-coded sitemap ID I can use it just as is on the models (models will already be filtered according to the site based on my sites framework) though the permalink feature will have to be customized. So a lot of customization. Please suggest if I am going wrong anywhere in this because I have to ensure that the features of the project are optimized. Thanks!

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