Search Results

Search found 18244 results on 730 pages for 'null uniqueidentifier'.

Page 212/730 | < Previous Page | 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219  | Next Page >

  • Closing thread using ExitThread - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    I have a simple program that creates a thread, loops twenty times and then makes a call to close itself and perform the necessary cleanup. When I debug the program it reaches the ExitThread(); method and pauses, ignoring the printf(); I have set up after it to signal to me it's closed. Is this normal or am I forgetting to do something? I'm new to threading using C. Main() void main() { Time t; int i = 0; StartTimer(); for(i = 0; i < 20; i++) { t = GetTime(); printf("%d.%.3d\n", t.seconds, t.milliseconds); Sleep(100); } StopTimer(); } Thread Creation void StartTimer() { DWORD threadId; seconds = 0; milliseconds = 0; // Create child thread hThread = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc, // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &threadId // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); // Check child thread was created successfully if(hThread == NULL) { printf("Error creating thread\n"); } } Thread Close void StopTimer() { DWORD exitCode; if(GetExitCodeThread(hThread,&exitCode) != 0) { ExitThread(exitCode); printf("Thread closed"); if(CloseHandle(hThread)) { printf("Handle closed"); } } }

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 GUID column is all 0's

    - by Andy Evans
    I'm hoping this is a simple goof I did on my end ... I have a table in my database set up like so: column name: widget_guid data type: uniqueidentifier allow nulls: false default value: newid() identity: false row guid: true When records are created (via LINQ to SQL) that the values in this field are formatted as a GUID but contain all 0's My assumption was that when a new record was created, that a guid would be autogenerated for that column, much like an auto-incrementing row id. Is this not true? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • 1 error with an array "missing return statement"

    - by danielit0w
    import javax.swing.JOptionPane; public class Mate { double suma (double x1,double x2) {return x1+x2;} double suma (double x1,double x2,double x3) {return x1+x2+x3;} double suma (int num [ ]) {int i=num.length; int j=0; int s=0; for(j=0;j < i;j++) {return (double)(s);}}} // here appears the error "missing return statement" class AplicacionMate {public static void main (String arg []) {int n[ ]={5,4,3,2,1}; double r=0.0; Mate m=new Mate ( ); r=m.suma(5,4); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"La suma 1="+r); r=m.suma(5,5,4); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"La suma 2="+r); r=m.suma(n); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"La suma del arreglo="+r); System.exit(0);}}

    Read the article

  • Serialization of Mouse cursors over network

    - by Ehtsham
    hi I am working a client/server application in C#. My server Capture current Mouse Cursors and send these to client so that Cursor of the cleint also chage accordingly.I can detect windows Cursors and serialize them over binaryformatter. it works fine but but problem is there are many cursors that can not be detected like mspaint cursors so i have to take its handler and create the cursor and its x nad y hotspots and add them in an arraylist and serialize it over network but after 10 to 15 minute it thorws exception "Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM Compeonet" and cleint throws the exception of "method of invocation" Can anybody guid me what going wrong ort some better way to do like this Some code is here IntPtr curInfo = GetCurrentCursor(); Cursor cur; Icon ic; byte cursor = 0; if (curInfo != null && curInfo.ToInt32() != 0) { cur = CheckForCusrors(curInfo); try { if (!isLinuxClient) { if (cur == null) { PlatformInvokeUSER32.GetIconInfo(curInfo, out temp); ic = Icon.FromHandle(curInfo); //bitmap = ic.ToBitmap(); ArrayList ar = new ArrayList(); ar.Add(ic); ar.Add(temp.xHotspot); ar.Add(temp.yHotspot); b.Serialize(stm, ar); } else { ArrayList ar = new ArrayList(); ar.Add(cur); b.Serialize(stm, ar); } } public Cursor CheckForCusrors(IntPtr hCur) { if (hCur == Cursors.AppStarting.Handle) return Cursors.AppStarting; else if (hCur == Cursors.Arrow.Handle) return Cursors.Arrow; . . . else if (hCur == Cursors.PanWest.Handle) return Cursors.PanWest; return null; } `

    Read the article

  • Hidden youtube player loses its methods

    - by zaius
    I'm controlling a embedded youtube chromeless player with javascript, and I want to hide it occasionally by setting display: none. However, when I show the player again, it loses its youtube methods. For example: <script> swfobject.embedSWF("http://www.youtube.com/apiplayer?enablejsapi=1&playerapiid=player", "player", "425", "356", "8", null, null, {allowScriptAccess: "always"}, {id: 'player'} ); var player = null; function onYouTubePlayerReady(playerId) { player = document.getElementById(playerId); player.addEventListener('onStateChange', 'playerStateChanged'); } function hidePlayer() { player.pauseVideo(); player.style.display = 'none'; } function showPlayer() { player.style.display = 'block'; player.playVideo(); } </script> <a href="#" onClick="hidePlayer();">hide</a> <a href="#" onClick="showPlayer();">show</a> <div id="player"></div> Calling hidePlayer followed by showPlayer gives this error on the playVideo call: Uncaught TypeError: Object #<an HTMLObjectElement> has no method 'playVideo' The only solution I can find is to use visibility: hidden, but that is messing with my page layout. Any other solutions out there?

    Read the article

  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

    Read the article

  • Combinationally unique MySQL tables

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So, here's the problem (it's probably an easy one :P) This is my table structure: CREATE TABLE `users_awards` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `award_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `duplicate` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', UNIQUE KEY `award_id` (`award_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 So it's for a user awards system. I don't want my users to be granted the same award multiple times, which is why I have a 'duplicate' field. The query I'm trying is this (with sample data of 3 and 2) : INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('3','2') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1 So my MySQL is a little rusty, but I set user_id to be a primary key, and award_id to be a UNIQUE key. This (kind of) created the desired effect. When user 1 was given award 2, it entered. If he/she got this twice, only one row would be in the table, and duplicate would be set to 1. And again, 2, etc. When user 2 was given award 1, it entered. If he/she got this twice, duplicate updated, etc. etc. But when user 1 is given award 1 (after user 2 has already been awarded it), user 2 (with award 1)'s duplicate field increases and nothing is added to user 1. Sorry if that's a little n00bish. Really appreciate the help! Jack

    Read the article

  • Problem in getting Http Response in chrome

    - by Bhaskasr
    Am trying to get http response from php web service in javascript, but getting null in firefox and chrome. plz tell me where am doing mistake here is my code, function fetch_details() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xhttp=new XMLHttpRequest() alert("first"); } else { xhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP") alert("sec"); } xhttp.open("GET","url.com",false); xhttp.send(""); xmlDoc=xhttp.responseXML; alert(xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("Inbox")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); } I have tried with ajax also but am not getting http response here is my code, please guide me var xmlhttp = null; var url = "url.com"; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); alert(xmlhttp); //make sure that Browser supports overrideMimeType if ( typeof xmlhttp.overrideMimeType != 'undefined') { xmlhttp.overrideMimeType('text/xml'); } } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } else { alert('Perhaps your browser does not support xmlhttprequests?'); } xmlhttp.open('GET', url, true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4) { alert(xmlhttp.responseXML); } }; } // Make the actual request xmlhttp.send(null); I am getting xmlhttp.readyState = 4 xmlhttp.status = 0 xmlhttp.responseText = "" plz tell me where am doing mistake

    Read the article

  • jQuery.ajax() + empty JSON object = parse error

    - by roosteronacid
    I get a parse error when using jQuery to load some JSON data. Here's a snippet of my code: jQuery.ajax({ dataType: "json", success: function (json) { jQuery.each(json, function () { alert(this["columnName"]); }); } }); I get no errors when parsing a non-empty JSON object. So my guess is that the problem is with my serializer. Question is: how do I format an empty JSON object which jQuery won't consider malformed? This is what I've tried so far, with no success: {[]} {[null]} {} {null} {"rows": []} {"rows": null} {"rows": {}} UPDATE: I can understand that I've been somewhat vague--let me try and clarify: Parsing of the JSON object is not the issue here--JQuery is - I think. jQuery throws a parse-error (invokes the error function). It seems like jQuery's internal JSON validation is not accepting any of the before mentioned objects. Not even the valid ones. Output of the error function is: XMLHttpRequest: XMLHttpRequest readyState=4 status=200 textStatus: parsererror errorThrown: undefined This goes for all of the before mentioned objects.

    Read the article

  • Object Oriented Programming Problem

    - by Danny Love
    I'm designing a little CMS using PHP whilst putting OOP into practice. I've hit a problem though. I have a page class, whos constructor accepts a UID and a slug. This is then used to set the properties (unless the page don't exist in which case it would fail). Anyway, I wanted to implement a function to create a page, and I thought ... what's the best way to do this without overloading the constructor. What would the correct way, or more conventional method, of doing this be? My code is below: <?php class Page { private $dbc; private $title; private $description; private $image; private $tags; private $owner; private $timestamp; private $views; public function __construct($uid, $slug) { } public function getTitle() { return $this->title; } public function getDescription() { if($this->description != NULL) { return $this->description; } else { return false; } } public function getImage() { if($this->image != NULL) { return $this->image; } else { return false; } } public function getTags() { if($this->tags != NULL) { return $this->tags; } else { return false; } } public function getOwner() { return $this->owner; } public function getTimestamp() { return $this->timestamp; } public function getViews() { return $this->views; } public function createPage() { // Stuck? } }

    Read the article

  • Using DotNetOpenAuth AccessToken for uploading docx file to google

    - by PrashantC
    Hi , I am using DotNetOpenAuth Package, I am trying to upload a package to google docs, Using client credentials i am able to do it successfully using following code, DocumentEntry objDocumentEntry = new DocumentEntry(); objDocumentsService.setUserCredentials(strUserName,strPassWord); string strAuthenticationToken = objDocumentsService.QueryAuthenticationToken(); objDocumentEntry = objDocumentsService.UploadDocument(Server.MapPath("test.docx"), "New Name"); I want achieve save with plain oAuth, I am having following code written for it, if (this.TokenManager != null) { if (!IsPostBack) { var google = new WebConsumer(GoogleConsumer.ServiceDescription, this.TokenManager); // Is Google calling back with authorization? var accessTokenResponse = google.ProcessUserAuthorization(); if (accessTokenResponse != null) { this.AccessToken = accessTokenResponse.AccessToken; } else if (this.AccessToken == null) { // If we don't yet have access, immediately request it. GoogleConsumer.RequestAuthorization(google, GoogleConsumer.Applications.DocumentsList); } } } I successfully get "AccessToken", But i am not sure how to use it.. Do we need to exchange this token? what excatly to do with this token? Is it a sessionToken? Please provide some inputs, I am badly stuck with this problem from last 3 days, Prashant C

    Read the article

  • Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

    - by leppie
    Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

    Read the article

  • c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

    - by Moe Sisko
    Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

    Read the article

  • T-SQL Unique constraint locked the SQL server

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    HI ! This is my table: CREATE TABLE [ORG].[MyTable]( .. [my_column2] UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NOT NULL CONSTRAINT FK_C1 REFERENCES ORG.MyTable2 (my_column2), [my_column3] INT NOT NULL CONSTRAINT FK_C2 REFERENCES ORG.MyTable3 (my_column3) .. ) I've written this constraint to assure that combination my_column2 and my_column3 is always unique. ALTER TABLE [ORG].[MyTable] ADD CONSTRAINT UQ_MyConstraint UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( my_column2, my_column3 ) But then suddenly.. The DB stopped responding.. there is a lock or something.. Do you have any idea why? What is bad with the constraint?

    Read the article

  • How to add second JOIN clause in Linq To Sql?

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am having a lot of trouble coming up with the Linq equivalent of this legacy stored procedure. The biggest hurdle is it doesn't seem to want to let me add a second 'clause' on the join with tblAddress. I am getting a Cannot resolve method... error. Can anyone point out what I am doing wrong? Below is, first, the SPROC I need to convert and, second, my LINQ attempt so far; which is FULL OF FAIL! Thanks SELECT dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.Priority, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName AS CoverageCategory, dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessName, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.TypeName AS TypeName, CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 IS NULL THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.CityName IS NULL THEN '' ELSE '<BR>' + dbo.tblAddress.CityName END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID IS NULL THEN '' WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID = 'ns' THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.StateID END AS Address FROM dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblInsuranceCompany ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblBusiness ON dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.BusinessID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAddress ON dbo.tblAddress.BusinessID = dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID and tblAddress.AddressTypeID = 'b' LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.InsuranceCompanyTypeID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.InsuranceTypeID WHERE tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonID = @PersonID var coverage = from insuranceCoverage in context.tblPersonInsuranceCoverages where insuranceCoverage.PersonID == personID join insuranceCompany in context.tblInsuranceCompanies on insuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID equals insuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID join address in context.tblAddresses on insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessID equals address.BusinessID where address.AddressTypeID = 'b' select new { insuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, insuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, insuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, insuranceCoverage.Priority, CoverageCategory = insuranceCompany.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName, insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessName, TypeName = insuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID, Address = };

    Read the article

  • Problem in setting backgound color to my TreeCellRenderer

    - by Sunil Kumar Sahoo
    Hi I have cretaed my own renderer. I want the back ground should be blue. I have set background color as blue also. But I donot know what is tha problem that the background color of my renderer always seems to be white. I have post the code. please help where I am wrong so that the background color becomes white. class CheckTreeCellRenderer extends JPanel implements TreeCellRenderer { private CheckTreeSelectionModel selectionModel; private MyRenderer delegate; private TristateCheckBox checkBox = new TristateCheckBox("", null, true); public static final State NOT_SELECTED = new State(); public static final State SELECTED = new State(); public static final State DONT_CARE = new State(); public CheckTreeCellRenderer(MyRenderer delegate, CheckTreeSelectionModel selectionModel) { this.delegate = delegate; this.selectionModel = selectionModel; setLayout(new BorderLayout()); setOpaque(true); setBackground(new Color(207, 219, 234)); checkBox.setState(Boolean.TRUE); checkBox.setOpaque(true); checkBox.setBackground(new Color(207, 219, 234)); } public Component getTreeCellRendererComponent(JTree tree, Object value, boolean selected, boolean expanded, boolean leaf, int row, boolean hasFocus) { Component renderer = delegate.getTreeCellRendererComponent(tree, value, selected, expanded, leaf, row, hasFocus); TreePath path = tree.getPathForRow(row); if (path != null) { if (selectionModel.isPathSelected(path, true)) { checkBox.setState(Boolean.TRUE); } else { checkBox.setState(selectionModel.isPartiallySelected(path) ? null : Boolean.FALSE); } } renderer.setBackground(new Color(207, 219, 234)); tree.setOpaque(true); tree.setBackground(new Color(207, 219, 234)); this.setOpaque(true); this.setBackground(new Color(207, 219, 234)); add(checkBox, BorderLayout.WEST); add(renderer, BorderLayout.CENTER); return this; } }

    Read the article

  • Streaming content to JSF UI

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello, I was quite happy with my JSF app which read the contents of MQ messages received and supplied them to the UI like this: <rich:panel> <snip> <rich:panelMenuItem label="mylabel" action="#{MyBacking.updateCurrent}"> <f:param name="current" value="mylog.log" /> </rich:panelMenuItem> </snip> </rich:panel> <rich:panel> <a4j:outputPanel ajaxRendered="true"> <rich:insert content="#{MyBacking.log}" highlight="groovy" /> </a4j:outputPanel> </rich:panel> and in MyBacking.java private String logFile = null; ... public String updateCurrent() { FacesContext context=FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); setCurrent((String)context.getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("current")); setLog(getCurrent()); return null; } public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(log); msgBody = receiveMsg(moreargs); logFile = msgBody; } public String getLog() { return logFile; } until the contents of one of the messages was too big and tomcat fell over. Obviously, I thought, I need to change the way it works so that I return some form of stream so that no one object grows so big that the container dies and the content returned by successive messages is streamed to the UI as it comes in. Am I right in thinking that I can replace the work I'm doing now on a String object with a BufferedOutputStream object ie no change to the JSF code and something like this changing at the back end: private BufferedOutputStream logFile = null; public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(args); logFile = (BufferedOutputStream) receiveMsg(moreargs); } public String getLog() { return logFile; }

    Read the article

  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

    Read the article

  • How to write efficient code for extracting Noun phrases?

    - by Arun Abraham
    I am trying to extract phrases using rules such as the ones mentioned below on text which has been POS tagged 1) NNP - NNP (- indicates followed by) 2) NNP - CC - NNP 3) VP - NP etc.. I have written code in this manner, Can someone tell me how i can do in a better manner. List<String> nounPhrases = new ArrayList<String>(); for (List<HasWord> sentence : documentPreprocessor) { //System.out.println(sentence.toString()); System.out.println(Sentence.listToString(sentence, false)); List<TaggedWord> tSentence = tagger.tagSentence(sentence); String lastTag = null, lastWord = null; for (TaggedWord taggedWord : tSentence) { if (lastTag != null && taggedWord.tag().equalsIgnoreCase("NNP") && lastTag.equalsIgnoreCase("NNP")) { nounPhrases.add(taggedWord.word() + " " + lastWord); //System.out.println(taggedWord.word() + " " + lastWord); } lastTag = taggedWord.tag(); lastWord = taggedWord.word(); } } In the above code, i have done only for NNP followed by NNP extraction, how can i generalise it so that i can add other rules too. I know that there are libraries available for doing this , but wanted to do this manually.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 - Building a WHERE clause

    - by user336786
    Hello, I have a stored procedure that is dynamically building a query. The where clause associated with this query is based on filter values selected by a user. No matter what I do though, the where clause does not seem to get set. -- Dynamically build the WHERE clause based on the filters DECLARE @whereClause as nvarchar(1024) IF (@hasSpouse > -1) BEGIN IF (@hasSpouse = 0) SET @whereClause='p.[HasSpouse]=0' ELSE SET @whereClause='(p.[HasSpouse]=1 OR p.[HasSpouse] IS NULL)' END -- Dynamically add the next filter if necessary IF (@isVegan > -1) BEGIN IF (LEN(@whereClause) > 0) BEGIN SET @whereClause = @whereClause + ' AND ' END IF (@isVegan = 0) SET @whereClause = @whereClause + 'c.[IsVegan]=0' ELSE SET @whereClause = @whereClause + '(c.[IsVegan]=1 OR c.[IsVegan] IS NULL)' END PRINT @whereClause The @whereClause never prints anything. In turn, the LEN(@whereClause) is always NULL. The @isVegan and @hasSpouse values are passed into the stored procedure. The values are what I expected. What am I doing wrong? Why is the @whereClause never being set? Thank you for your help! Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Unable to add FromName to e-mail using cdosys in SQL Server 2008

    - by Alex Andronov
    I have a piece of cdosys code which runs correctly and generates e-mail with my SQL Server 2008 server talking to a MS Exchange 2003 Server. However the from name is not appearing on the e-mails when they arrive. Is there a fault in the code is it not possible this way? Thanks in advance usp_send_cdosysmail @from varchar(500), @to text, @bcc text , @subject varchar(1000), @body text , @smtpserver varchar(25), @bodytype varchar(10) as declare @imsg int declare @hr int declare @source varchar(255) declare @description varchar(500) declare @output varchar(8000) exec @hr = sp_oacreate 'cdo.message', @imsg out exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, 'configuration.fields("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/sendusing").value','2' exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, 'configuration.fields("http://schemas.microsoft.com/cdo/configuration/smtpserver").value', @smtpserver exec @hr = sp_oamethod @imsg, 'configuration.fields.update', null exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, 'to', @to exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, 'bcc', @bcc exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, 'from', @from exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, 'fromname','A From Name' exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, 'subject', @subject -- if you are using html e-mail, use 'htmlbody' instead of 'textbody'. exec @hr = sp_oasetproperty @imsg, @bodytype, @body exec @hr = sp_oamethod @imsg, 'send', null -- sample error handling. if @hr <>0 select @hr begin exec @hr = sp_oageterrorinfo null, @source out, @description out if @hr = 0 begin select @output = ' source: ' + @source print @output select @output = ' description: ' + @description print @output end else begin print ' sp_oageterrorinfo failed.' return end end exec @hr = sp_oadestroy @imsg

    Read the article

  • MySQL Paritioning performance

    - by Imran Pathan
    Measured performance on key partitioned tables and normal tables separately. But we couldn't find any performance improvement with partitioning. Queries are pruned. Using MySQL 5.1.47 on RHEL 4. Table details: UserUsage - Will have entries for user mobile number and data usage for each date. Mobile number and Date as PRI KEY. UserProfile - Queries prev table and stores summary for each mobile number. Mobile number PRI KEY. CREATE TABLE `UserUsage` ( `Msisdn` decimal(20,0) NOT NULL, `Date` date NOT NULL, . . PRIMARY KEY USING BTREE (`Msisdn`,`Date`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 PARTITION BY KEY(Msisdn) PARTITIONS 50; CREATE TABLE `UserProfile` ( `Msisdn` decimal(20,0) NOT NULL, . . PRIMARY KEY (`Msisdn`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 PARTITION BY KEY(Msisdn) PARTITIONS 50; Second table is updated by query select and order by date in first table in a perl program, query is select * from UserUsage where Msisdn=number order by Date desc limit 7 [Process data in perl] update UserProfile values(....) where Msisdn=number explain partition for select, shows row being scanned in a particular partition only. Is something wrong with partition design or queries as partitioning is taking almost same or more time compared to normal tables?

    Read the article

  • Creating a Pop animation similar to the presentation of UIAlertView

    - by JK
    I would like to present a view in the same manner as that of UIAlertView - a pop/spring. Unfortunately subclassing UIAlertView is not an option for the view I need to present. I have written some code, but I can't seem to get it as realistic as I would like. I would appreciate any suggestions for greater realism or a link if anything similar has been done (I could not find anything on Google). Thank you. - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ((self = [super initWithFrame:frame])) { self.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(140, 140, 60, 60)]; v.backgroundColor = [UIColor blueColor]; [self addSubview:v]; [self animate]; } return self; } - (void)animate { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveLinear]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(popStep1Complete)]; v.frame = CGRectMake(90, 90, 140, 140); [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)popStep1Complete { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveLinear]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.15]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(popStep2Complete)]; v.frame = CGRectMake(110, 110, 100, 100); [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)popStep2Complete { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveLinear]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.15]; v.frame = CGRectMake(100, 100, 120, 120); [UIView commitAnimations]; }

    Read the article

  • Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

    - by Michael Bleigh
    I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219  | Next Page >