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  • DataGrid: dynamic DataTemplate for dynamic DataGridTemplateColumn

    - by Lukas Cenovsky
    I want to show data in a datagrid where the data is a collection of public class Thing { public string Foo { get; set; } public string Bar { get; set; } public List<Candidate> Candidates { get; set; } } public class Candidate { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } ... } where the number of candidates in Candidates list varies at runtime. Desired grid layout looks like this Foo | Bar | Candidate 1 | Candidate 2 | ... | Candidate N I'd like to have a DataTemplate for each Candidate as I plan changing it during runtime - user can choose what info about candidate is displayed in different columns (candidate is just an example, I have different object). That means I also want to change the column templates in runtime although this can be achieved by one big template and collapsing its parts. I know about two ways how to achieve my goals (both quite similar): Use AutoGeneratingColumn event and create Candidates columns Add Columns manually In both cases I need to load the DataTemplate from string with XamlReader. Before that I have to edit the string to change the binding to wanted Candidate. Is there a better way how to create a DataGrid with unknown number of DataGridTemplateColumn? Note: This question is based on dynamic datatemplate with valueconverter

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  • Gtk, Trying to set GtkLabel text color (gtkrc).

    - by PP
    Hi all, I have written one small gtkrc file and I am trying to set Text color for GtkLabel, but it is not working out following is the rc file. style "my-theme-label" { xthickness = 10 ythickness = 10 bg[NORMAL] = "#ffffff" bg[ACTIVE] = "#ffffff" bg[PRELIGHT] = "#ffffff" bg[SELECTED] = "#ffffff" bg[INSENSITIVE] = "#ffffff" fg[NORMAL] = "#ffffff" fg[INSENSITIVE] = "#ffffff" fg[PRELIGHT] = "#ffffff" fg[SELECTED] = "#ffffff" fg[ACTIVE] = "#ffffff" text[NORMAL] = "#ffffff" text[INSENSITIVE] = "#434346" text[PRELIGHT] = "#ffffff" text[SELECTED] = "#ffffff" text[ACTIVE] = "#ffffff" base[NORMAL] = "#000000" base[INSENSITIVE] = "#00ff00" base[PRELIGHT] = "#0000ff" base[SELECTED] = "#ff00ff" base[ACTIVE] = "#f39638" } widget_class "*<GtkLabel>" style "my-theme-label" My application uses 2 rc files and I have added my rc file using gtk_rc_add_default_file( rcfile ); but this style is not getting set to GtkLabel. Also i tried to create different style for same type of widgets. as follows but in some cases it works and in some it does not work. style "my-button-style-black" { ... } style "my-button-style-white" { ... } widget "*.MyWhiteButton" style "my-button-style-white" widget "*.MyBlackButton" style "my-button-style-black" GtkButton *button = gtk_button_new_with_label("Test"); gtk_widget_set_name(button, "MyWhiteButton"); Is it right? It is not working out. Is it because I am using 2 rc files? Thanks, PP.

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  • How does loop address alignment affect the speed on Intel x86_64?

    - by Alexander Gololobov
    I'm seeing 15% performance degradation of the same C++ code compiled to exactly same machine instructions but located on differently aligned addresses. When my tiny main loop starts at 0x415220 it's faster then when it is at 0x415250. I'm running this on Intel Core2 Duo. I use gcc 4.4.5 on x86_64 Ubuntu. Can anybody explain the cause of slowdown and how I can force gcc to optimally align the loop? Here is the disassembly for both cases with profiler annotation: 415220 576 12.56% |XXXXXXXXXXXXXX 48 c1 eb 08 shr $0x8,%rbx 415224 110 2.40% |XX 0f b6 c3 movzbl %bl,%eax 415227 0.00% | 41 0f b6 04 00 movzbl (%r8,%rax,1),%eax 41522c 40 0.87% | 48 8b 04 c1 mov (%rcx,%rax,8),%rax 415230 806 17.58% |XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX 4c 63 f8 movslq %eax,%r15 415233 186 4.06% |XXXX 48 c1 e8 20 shr $0x20,%rax 415237 102 2.22% |XX 4c 01 f9 add %r15,%rcx 41523a 414 9.03% |XXXXXXXXXX a8 0f test $0xf,%al 41523c 680 14.83% |XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX 74 45 je 415283 ::Run(char const*, char const*)+0x4b3 41523e 0.00% | 41 89 c7 mov %eax,%r15d 415241 0.00% | 41 83 e7 01 and $0x1,%r15d 415245 0.00% | 41 83 ff 01 cmp $0x1,%r15d 415249 0.00% | 41 89 c7 mov %eax,%r15d 415250 679 13.05% |XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX 48 c1 eb 08 shr $0x8,%rbx 415254 124 2.38% |XX 0f b6 c3 movzbl %bl,%eax 415257 0.00% | 41 0f b6 04 00 movzbl (%r8,%rax,1),%eax 41525c 43 0.83% |X 48 8b 04 c1 mov (%rcx,%rax,8),%rax 415260 828 15.91% |XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX 4c 63 f8 movslq %eax,%r15 415263 388 7.46% |XXXXXXXXX 48 c1 e8 20 shr $0x20,%rax 415267 141 2.71% |XXX 4c 01 f9 add %r15,%rcx 41526a 634 12.18% |XXXXXXXXXXXXXXX a8 0f test $0xf,%al 41526c 749 14.39% |XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX 74 45 je 4152b3 ::Run(char const*, char const*)+0x4c3 41526e 0.00% | 41 89 c7 mov %eax,%r15d 415271 0.00% | 41 83 e7 01 and $0x1,%r15d 415275 0.00% | 41 83 ff 01 cmp $0x1,%r15d 415279 0.00% | 41 89 c7 mov %eax,%r15d

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  • How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

    - by Nils-Petter Nilsen
    I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

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  • Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

    - by VISQL
    I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

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  • Find items with belongs_to associations in Rails?

    - by dannymcc
    Hi Everyone, I have a model called Kase each "Case" is assigned to a contact person via the following code: class Kase < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :jobno has_many :notes, :order => "created_at DESC" belongs_to :company # foreign key: company_id belongs_to :person # foreign key in join table belongs_to :surveyor, :class_name => "Company", :foreign_key => "appointedsurveyor_id" belongs_to :surveyorperson, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "surveyorperson_id" I was wondering if it is possible to list on the contacts page all of the kases that that person is associated with. I assume I need to use the find command within the Person model? Maybe something like the following? def index @kases = Person.Kase.find(:person_id) or am I completely misunderstanding everything again? Thanks, Danny EDIT: If I use: @kases= @person.kases I can successfully do the following: <% if @person.kases.empty? %> No Cases Found <% end %> <% if @person.kases %> This person has a case assigned to them <% end %> but how do I output the "jobref" field from the kase table for each record found?

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  • asp.net 4.0 webforms - how to keep ContentPlaceHolder1_ out of client id's in a simple way?

    - by James Manning
    I'm attempting to introduce master pages to an existing webforms site that's avoided using them because of client id mangling in the past (and me not wanting to deal with the mangling and doing <% foo.ClientID % everywhere :) GOAL: use 'static' id values (whatever is in the server control's id attribute) except for data-bound / repeating controls which would break for those cases and therefore need suffixes or whatever to differentiate (basically, Predictable) Now that the site migrated to ASP.NET 4.0, I first attempted to use ClientIDMode of Static (in the web.config) but that broke too many places doing repeating controls (checkboxes inside gridviews, for instance) since they all resulted with the same id. So, I then tried Predictable (again, just in the web.config) so that the repeating controls wouldn't have conflicting id's, and it works well except that the master page content placeholder (which is indeed a naming container) is still reflecting in the resulting client id's (for instance, ContentPlaceHolder1_someCheckbox). Certainly I could leave the web.config setting as static and then go through all the databound/repeating controls switch them to Predictable, but I'm hoping there's some easier/simpler way to get that effect without having to scatter ClientIDMode attributes in those N number of places (or extend all those databound controls with my own usercontrol that just sets clientidmode, or whatever). I even thought of leaving web.config set to static and doing a master or basepage handler (preinit? not sure if that would work or not) that would go walk Controls with OfType<INamingContainer() (might be a better choice on the type, but that seems like a good starting choice looking at repeater and gridview) and then set those to Predictable so I'd get static for all my 'normal' things outside of repeating controls but not have to deal with static inside things like gridview/repeater/etc. I don't see any way to mark the content placeholder such that it 'opts out' of being included in child id's - setting the ID of the placeholder to empty/blank doesn't work as it's a required attribute :) At that point I figured there was a better/simpler way that I was missing and decided to ask on SO :) Edit: I thought about changing all my 'fetch by id' jquery calls from $('#foo') to fetch_by_id('foo') and then having that function return the 'right one' by checking $('#foo').length and then $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_foo').length (and maybe other patterns) or even just have it return $('#foo, #ContentPlaceHolder1_foo') (again, potentially other patterns) but changing all the places I fetch elements by id seemed pretty ugly too, and I'd like to avoid that abstraction layer if possible to do so easily :)

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  • Need some help understanding this problem about maximizing graph connectivity

    - by Legend
    I was wondering if someone could help me understand this problem. I prepared a small diagram because it is much easier to explain it visually. Problem I am trying to solve: 1. Constructing the dependency graph Given the connectivity of the graph and a metric that determines how well a node depends on the other, order the dependencies. For instance, I could put in a few rules saying that node 3 depends on node 4 node 2 depends on node 3 node 3 depends on node 5 But because the final rule is not "valuable" (again based on the same metric), I will not add the rule to my system. 2. Execute the request order Once I built a dependency graph, execute the list in an order that maximizes the final connectivity. I am not sure if this is a really a problem but I somehow have a feeling that there might exist more than one order in which case, it is required to choose the best order. First and foremost, I am wondering if I constructed the problem correctly and if I should be aware of any corner cases. Secondly, is there a closely related algorithm that I can look at? Currently, I am thinking of something like Feedback Arc Set or the Secretary Problem but I am a little confused at the moment. Any suggestions? PS: I am a little confused about the problem myself so please don't flame on me for that. If any clarifications are needed, I will try to update the question.

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  • Regular expression for finding non-breaking string names in code and then breaking them up for SQL q

    - by Rob Segal
    I am trying to devlop a regex for finding camel case strings in several code files I am working with so I can break them up into separate words for use in a SQL query. I have strings of the form... EmailAddress FirstName MyNameIs And I want them like this... Email Address First Name My Name Is An example SQL query which I currently have is... select FirstName, MyNameIs from MyTables I need the queries in the form... select FirstName as 'First Name', MyNameIs as 'My Name Is' from MyTables Any time a new capital letter appears that should be a new grouping which I can pick out of the matched string. I currently have the following regex... ([A-Z][a-z]+)+ Which does match the cases I have shown above but when I want to perform a replace I need to define groups. Currently I have tried... (([A-Z])([a-z]+))+ Which sort of works. It will pick out "Address" as the first grouping from "EmailAddress" as opposed to "Email" which is what I was expecting. No doubt there is something I'm misunderstanding here so any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

    - by mfn
    Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

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  • MySQL database design question

    - by Greelmo
    I'm trying to weigh the pros and cons of a database design, and would like to get some feedback as to the best approach. Here is the situation: I have users of my system that have only a few required items (username, password). They can then supply a lot of optional information. This optional information continues to grow as the system grows, so I want to do it in such a way that adding new optional information is easy. Currently, I have a separate table for each piece of information. For example, there's a table called 'names' that holds 'user_id', 'first_name', and 'last_name'. There's 'address', 'occupation', etc. You get the drift. In most cases, when I talk to my database, I'm looking only for users with one particular qualifier (name, address, etc.). However, there are instances when I want to see what information a user has set. The 'edit account' page, for example, must run queries for each piece of information it wants. Is this wasteful? Is there a way I can structure my queries or my database to make it so I never have to do one query for each piece of information like that without getting my tables to huge? If i want to add 'marital status', how hard will that be if I don't have a one-table-per-attribute system? Thanks in advance.

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  • Axis webservice calls fail sometimes, access.log shows content!

    - by epischel
    Hi, our app is a webservice client (axis 1) to a third party webservice (also axis 1). We use it for some years now. Since a few weeks, we (as a client) get sometimes HTTP status 400 (bad request) or read timeouts when calling the webservice. Strangely, the access.log of the service shows part of the request or the response instead of the URL. It looks like this (looks like the end of the request string) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 16127 0 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "POST /webservice HTTP/1.0" 200 22511 1 x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "il=\"true\"/><nsl:text xsi:type=\"xsd:string\" xsi:nil=\"true\"/></SOAPSomeOperation></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope> Axis/1.4" 400 299 0 or (some string out of the what looks like the request) x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] ":string\">some text</sometag><othertag>moretext" 400 299 0 or in some other cases it looks like two requests thrown together (... means xml string left out): x.x.x.x -> y.y.y.y:8080 - - [timestamp] "...</someop></soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\"...</soapenv:Body></soapenv:Envelope>" 400 299 0 Application log does not give any hints. Frequency of such call is 1% of all calls to that service. The only discriminator I know of so far is that it happens since operations informed us that the service url changed because of "server migration". Has anyone experienced such phenomenon yet? Has somebody got an idea whats wrong and how to fix? Thanks,

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  • Detecting Connection Speed / Bandwidth in .net/WCF

    - by Mystagogue
    I'm writing both client and server code using WCF, where I need to know the "perceived" bandwidth of traffic between the client and server. I could use ping statistics to gather this information separately, but I wonder if there is a way to configure the channel stack in WCF so that the same statistics can be gathered simultaneously while performing my web service invocations. This would be particularly useful in cases where ICMP is disabled (e.g. ping won't work). In short, while making my regular business-related web service calls (REST calls to be precise), is there a way to collect connection speed data implicitly? Certainly I could time the web service round trip, compared to the size of data used in the round-trip, to give me an idea of throughput - but I won't know how much of that perceived bandwidth was network related, or simply due to server-processing latency. I could perhaps solve that by having the server send back a time delta, representing server latency, so that the client can compute the actual network traffic time. If a more sophisticated approach is not available, that might be my answer...

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  • Entity Framework and differences between Contains between SQL and objects using ToLower

    - by John Ptacek
    I have run into an "issue" I am not quite sure I understand with Entity Framework. I am using Entity Framework 4 and have tried to utilize a TDD approach. As a result, I recently implemented a search feature using a Repository pattern. For my test project, I am implementing my repository interface and have a set of "fake" object data I am using for test purposes. I ran into an issue trying to get the Contains clause to work for case invariant search. My code snippet for both my test and the repository class used against the database is as follows: if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(Description)) { items = items.Where(r => r.Description.ToLower().Contains(Description.ToLower())); } However, when I ran my test cases the results where not populated if my case did not match the underlying data. I tried looking into what I thought was an issue for a while. To clear my mind, I went for a run and wondered if the same code with EF would work against a SQL back end database, since SQL will explicitly support the like command and it executed as I expected, using the same logic. I understand why EF against the database back end supports the Contains clause. However, I was surprised that my unit tests did not. Any ideas why other than the SQL server support of the like clause when I use objects I populate in a collection instead of against the database server? Thanks! John

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  • Extract title tags from normal text

    - by pravin
    I am working on one task, to extract title tag from given normal text ( it's not a HTML DOM ). I have below cases where need to extract title tag(s) : Case 1 : <html> <head> <title>Title of the document</title> </head> <body> The content of the document...... </body> </html> Expected : Title of the document Case 2 : <html> <head> <title>Title of the document</title> <title>Continuing title</title> </head> <body> The content of the document...... </body> </html> Expected : Title of the document Continuing title Case 3 (Nested title tags) <html> <head> <title>Title of the document <title>Continuing title</title></title> </head> <body> The content of the document...... </body> </html> Expected : Title of the document Continuing title I wanted to extract title tags using regular expression in javascript. Reg-ex should work for above case. Is anyone knows about this..please let me know... Thanks in Advance

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  • eclipse, one classpath for compiling, another for launching

    - by DragonFax
    example: For logging, my code uses log4j. but other jars my code is dependent upon, uses slf4j instead. So both jars must be in the build path. Unfortunately, its possible for my code to directly use (depend on) slf4j now, either by context-assist, or some other developers changes. I would like any use of slf4j to show up as an error, but my application (and tests) will still need it in the classpath when running. explanation: I'd like to find out if this is possible in eclipse. This scenario happens often for me. I'll have a large project, that uses alot of 3rd party libraries. And of course those 3rd party jars have their own dependencies as well. So I have to include all dependencies in the classpath ("build path" in eclipse) for the application and its tests to compile and run (from within eclipse). But I don't want my code to use all of those jars, just the few direct dependencies I've decided upon myself. So if my code accidentally uses a dependency of a dependency, I want it to show up as a compilation error. Ideally, as class not found, but any error would do. I know I can manually configure the classpath when running outside of eclipse, and even within eclipse I can modify the classpath for a specific class I'm running (in the run configurations), but thats not manageable if you run alot of individual test cases, or have alot of main() classes.

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  • Is it safe to use random Unicode for complex delimiter sequences in strings?

    - by ccomet
    Question: In terms of program stability and ensuring that the system will actually operate, how safe is it to use chars like ¦, § or ‡ for complex delimiter sequences in strings? Can I reliable believe that I won't run into any issues in a program reading these incorrectly? I am working in a system, using C# code, in which I have to store a fairly complex set of information within a single string. The readability of this string is only necessary on the computer side, end-users should only ever see the information after it has been parsed by the appropriate methods. Because some of the data in these strings will be collections of variable size, I use different delimiters to identify what parts of the string correspond to a certain tier of organization. There are enough cases that the standard sets of ;, |, and similar ilk have been exhausted. I considered two-char delimiters, like ;# or ;|, but I felt that it would be very inefficient. There probably isn't that large of a performance difference in storing with one char versus two chars, but when I have the option of picking the smaller option, it just feels wrong to pick the larger one. So finally, I considered using the set of characters like the double dagger and section. They only take up one char, and they are definitely not going to show up in the actual text that I'll be storing, so they won't be confused for anything. But character encoding is finicky. While the visibility to the end user is meaningless (since they, in fact, won't see it), I became recently concerned about how the programs in the system will read it. The string is stored in one database, while a separate program is responsible for both encoding and decoding the string into different object types for the rest of the application to work with. And if something is expected to be written one way, is possibly written another, then maybe the whole system will fail and I can't really let that happen. So is it safe to use these kind of chars for background delimiters?

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  • PHP Resize image down and crop using imagemagick

    - by mr12086
    I'm trying to downsize image uploaded by users at the time of upload. This is no problem but I want to get specific with sizes now. I'm looking for some advice on an algorithm im struggling to produce that will take any shape image - square or rectangle of any widths/heights and downsize it. This image needs to be downsized to a target box size (this changes but is stored in a variable).. So it needs to downsize the image so that both the width and height are larger than the width and height of the target maintaining aspect ratio. but only just.. The target size will be used to crop the image so there is no white space around the edges etc. I'm looking for just the algorithm behind creating the correct resize based on different dimension images - I can handle the cropping, even resizing in most cases but it fails in a few so i'm reaching out. I'm not really asking for PHP code more pseudo. Either is fine obviously. Thanks Kindly.

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  • Avoiding secondary selects or joins with Hibernate Criteria or HQL query

    - by Ben Benson
    I am having trouble optimizing Hibernate queries to avoid performing joins or secondary selects. When a Hibernate query is performed (criteria or hql), such as the following: return getSession().createQuery(("from GiftCard as card where card.recipientNotificationRequested=1").list(); ... and the where clause examines properties that do not require any joins with other tables... but Hibernate still performs a full join with other tables (or secondary selects depending on how I set the fetchMode). The object in question (GiftCard) has a couple ManyToOne associations that I would prefer to be lazily loaded in this case (but not necessarily all cases). I want a solution that I can control what is lazily loaded when I perform the query. Here's what the GiftCard Entity looks like: @Entity @Table(name = "giftCards") public class GiftCard implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private String id_; private User buyer_; private boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested_; @Id public String getId() { return this.id_; } public void setId(String id) { this.id_ = id; } @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "buyerUserId") @NotFound(action = NotFoundAction.IGNORE) public User getBuyer() { return this.buyer_; } public void setBuyer(User buyer) { this.buyer_ = buyer; } @Column(name="isRecipientNotificationRequested", nullable=false, columnDefinition="tinyint") public boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested() { return this.isRecipientNotificationRequested_; } public void setRecipientNotificationRequested(boolean isRecipientNotificationRequested) { this.isRecipientNotificationRequested_ = isRecipientNotificationRequested; } }

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  • Why does C++ not allow multiple types in one auto statement?

    - by Walter
    The 2011 C++ standard introduced the new keyword auto, which can be used for defining variables instead of a type, i.e. auto p=make_pair(1,2.5); // pair<int,double> auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c); // decltype(std::begin(c)) In the second line, i and end are of the same type, referred to as auto. The standard does not allow auto i=std::begin(container), e=std::end(container), x=*i; when x would be of different type. My question: why does the standard not allow this last line? It could be allowed by interpreting auto not as representing some to-be-decuded type, but as indicating that the type of any variable declared auto shall be deduced from its assigned value. Is there any good reason for the C++11 standard to not follow this approach? There is actually a use case for this, namely in the initialisation statement of for loops: for(auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c), x=*i; i!=end; ++i, x+=*i) { ... } when the scope of the variables i, end, and x is limited to the for loop. AFAIK, this cannot be achieved in C++ unless those variables have a common type. Is this correct? (ugly tricks of putting all types inside a struct excluded) There may also be use cases in some variadic template applications.

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  • A question about writing a background/automatic/silent downloader/installer for an app in C#.

    - by Mike Webb
    Background: I have a main application that needs to be able to go to the web and download DLL files associated with it (ones that we write, located on our server). It really needs to be able to download these DLL files to the application folder in "C:\Program Files\". In the past I have used System.Net.WebClient to download whatever files I wanted from the web. The Issue I have had a lot of trouble downloading data in the past and saving to files on a user's hard drive. I get many reports of users saying that this does not work and it is generally because of user rights issues in the program. In the cases where it was an issue with program user rights every user could go to the exact file location on the web, download it, and then save it to the right place manually. I want this to work like all the other programs I have seen download/install in this fassion (i.e. Firefox Pluign Updates, Flash Player, JAVA, Adobe Reader, etc). All of these work without a hitch. The Question Is there some code I need to use to give my downloader program special rights to the Program Files folder? Can I even do this? Is there a better class or library that I should use? Is there a different approach to downloading files I should take, such as using threads or something else to download data? Any help here is appreciated. I want to try to stay away from third-party apps/libraries if at all possible, other than Microsoft of course, due to licensing issues, but still send any suggestions my way. Again, other programs seem to have the rights issues and download capability figured out. I want this same capability.

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  • should the builder reset its build environment after delivering the product

    - by Sudhi
    I am implementing a builder where in the deliverable is retrieved by calling Builder::getProduct() . The director asks various parts to build Builder::buildPartA() , Builder::buildPartB() etc. in order to completely build the product. My question is, once the product is delivered by the Builder by calling Builder::getProduct(), should it reset its environment (Builder::partA = NULL;, Builder::partB = NULL;) so that it is ready to build another product? (with same or different configuration?) I ask this as I am using PHP wherein the objects are by default passed by reference (nope, I don't want to clone them, as one of their field is a Resource) . However, even if you think from a language agnostic point of view, should the Builder reset its build environment ? If your answer is 'it depends on the case' what use cases would justify reseting the environment (and other way round) ? For the sake of providing code sample here's my Builder::gerProcessor() which shows what I mean by reseting the environment /** * @see IBuilder::getProessor() */ public function getProcessor() { if($this->_processor == NULL) { throw new LogicException('Processor not yet built!'); } else { $retval = $this->_processor; $this->_product = NULL, $this->_processor = NULL; } return $retval; }

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  • Parsing and replacing Javascript identifiers with Rhino in Java

    - by Parhs
    Suppose I let the user to write a condition using Javascript, the user can write conditions to perform a test and return true or false. E.g.: INS>5 || ASTO.valueBetween(10,210) I want to find which variables are used in the script that the user wrote. I tried to find a way to get the identifier names in Java. The Rhino library didn't help a lot. However I found that via handling exceptions I could get all the identifiers. So this problem is solved. So everything is great, but there is one little problem. How can I replace these identifiers with a numeric identifier? E.g. INS should be _234 and ASTO should be _331. INS and ASTO etc are entities in my database. I want to replace them, because the name may change. I could do it using a replace but this isn't easy because: It should be reversible. E.g. ASTO to _234 and _234 to ASTO again. Replacing _23 with MPLAH may also replace _234. This could be fixed with regexp somehow. What if _23 is in a comment section? Rare to happen, but possible /* _23 fdsafd ktl */. It should also be replaced. What if it is a name of a function? E.g. _32() {}. Also rare, but it shouldn't be replaced. What if it is enclosed in "" or ''? I am sure that there are a lot more cases. Any ideas?

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  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

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  • How to correctly load dependent JavaScript files

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    I am trying to extent a website page that displays google maps with the LabeledMarker. Google Maps API defines a class called GMarker which is extended by the LabeledMarker. The problem is, I cant seem to load the LabeledMarker script properly, i.e. after the Google API loads and I get the 'GMarker not defined' error. What is the correct way to specify the scripts in such cases? I am using ASP.NET's ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude() first for the google API url and then immediately after with the LabeledMarker script file. The initial google API loader writes further script links that load the actual GMarker class. Shouldnt all those scripts be executed before the next script block(LabeledMarker script) is processed. I have checked the generated HTML and the script blocks are emitted in the right order. <script src="google api url" type="text/javascript"></script> ... (the above scripts uses document.write() etc to append further script blocks/sources) ... <script src="Scripts/LabeledMarker.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Once again, the LabeledMarker.js seems to get executed before the google API finishes loading.

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