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  • Could DataGridView be this dumb? or its me?lol

    - by Selase
    Am trying to bind data to a dropdown list on pageload based on a condition. Code explains further below. public partial class AddExhibit : System.Web.UI.Page { string adminID, caseIDRetrieved; DataSet caseDataSet = new DataSet(); SqlDataAdapter caseSqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); string strConn = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["CMSSQL3ConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { adminID = Request.QueryString["adminID"]; caseIDRetrieved = Request.QueryString["caseID"]; if (caseIDRetrieved != null) { CaseIDDropDownList.Text = caseIDRetrieved; //CaseIDDropDownList.Enabled = false; } else { try { CreateDataSet(); DataView caseDataView = new DataView(caseDataSet.Tables[0]); CaseIDDropDownList.DataSource = caseDataView; CaseIDDropDownList.DataBind(); } catch (Exception ex) { string script = "<script>alert('" + ex.Message + "');</script>"; } } } The CreateDataset method that is called in the if..else statement is contains the following code. private void CreateDataSet() { SqlConnection caseConnection = new SqlConnection(strConn); caseSqlDataAdapter.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand("Select CaseID FROM Cases", caseConnection); caseSqlDataAdapter.Fill(caseDataSet); } However when i load the page and as usual the condition that is supposed to bid the data is met, the gridview decides to displays as follows... IS IT ME OR ITS THE DATAGRID?...??

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  • IE7: container of hidden Div displays incorrectly

    - by dmr
    There is a search box div that contains a boxhead div and a boxbody div. Inside the boxbody div, there is a searchToggle div. When the user clicks a certain link on the page, the display style property of the searchToggle div is toggled between block and none. The 2 background-images for the body of the search box are set via the css of the searchBox div and the boxbody div. In IE7, when the searchToggle div is hidden, the background-image from the searchBox div extends on the left more than it should. It shows up correctly when the display of the searchToggle div is block. Everything show up correctly, in both cases in IE8 and FF. Any ideas why this is happening? The relevant HTML: <div class="searchBox"> <div class="boxhead"> <h2></h2> </div> <div class="boxbody"> <div id="searchToggle" name="searchToggle"> </div> </div> </div> The relevant CSS: .searchBox { margin: 0 auto; width: 700px; background: url(/images/myImageRight-r.gif) no-repeat bottom right; font-size: 100%; text-align: left; overflow: hidden; } .boxbody { margin: 0; padding: 5px 30px 31px; background-image: url(/images/myImageLeft.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: left bottom; }

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  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

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  • Code-Golf: one line PHP syntax

    - by Kendall Hopkins
    Explanation PHP has some holes in its' syntax and occasionally in development a programmer will step in them. This can lead to much frustration as these syntax holes seem to exist for no reason. For example, one can't easily create an array and access an arbitrary element of that array on the same line (func1()[100] is not valid PHP syntax). The workaround for this issue is to use a temporary variable and break the statement into two lines, but sometimes that can lead to very verbose, clunky code. Challenge I know of a few of these holes (I'm sure there are more). It is quite hard to even come up with a solution, let alone in a code-golf style. Winner is the person with in the least characters total for all four Syntax Holes. Rules Statement must be one line in this form: $output = ...;, where ... doesn't contain any ;'s. Only use standard library functions (no custom functions allowed) Statement works identically to the assumed functional of the non-working syntax (even in cases that it fails). Statement must run without syntax error of any kind with E_STRICT | E_ALL. Syntax Holes $output = func_return_array()[$key]; - accessing an arbitrary offset (string or integer) of the returned array of a function $output = new {$class_base.$class_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being used to create a new class $output = {$func_base.$func_suffix}(); - arbitrary string concatenation being called as function $output = func_return_closure()(); - call a closure being returned from another function

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  • If a nonblocking recv with MSG_PEEK succeeds, will a subsequent recv without MSG_PEEK also succeed?

    - by Michael Wolf
    Here's a simplified version of some code I'm working on: void stuff(int fd) { int ret1, ret2; char buffer[32]; ret1 = recv(fd, buffer, 32, MSG_PEEK | MSG_DONTWAIT); /* Error handling -- and EAGAIN handling -- would go here. Bail if necessary. Otherwise, keep going. */ /* Can this call to recv fail, setting errno to EAGAIN? */ ret2 = recv(fd, buffer, ret1, 0); } If we assume that the first call to recv succeeds, returning a value between 1 and 32, is it safe to assume that the second call will also succeed? Can ret2 ever be less than ret1? In which cases? (For clarity's sake, assume that there are no other error conditions during the second call to recv: that no signal is delivered, that it won't set ENOMEM, etc. Also assume that no other threads will look at fd. I'm on Linux, but MSG_DONTWAIT is, I believe, the only Linux-specific thing here. Assume that the right fnctl was set previously on other platforms.)

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  • Why would certain browsers request all pages on my ASP.Net Web site twice?

    - by Deane
    Firefox is issuing duplicate requests to my ASP.Net web site. It will request a page, get the response, then immediately issue the same request again (well, almost the same -- see below). This happens on every page of this particular Web site (but not any others). IE does not do this, but Chrome also does this. I have confirmed that there is no Location header in the response, and no Javascript or meta tag in the page which would cause the page to be re-requested (if any of these were true, IE would be re-requesting pages as well). I have confirmed this behavior on multiple Firefox installs on multiple machines. Versions vary, but all are 3.x. The only difference between the two requests is the Accepts header. For the first request, it looks like this: Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 For the second request, it looks like this: Accept: */* The Content-Type response header in all cases is: Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Something else odd -- even though Firefox requests the page twice, it uses the first response and discards the second. I put a counter on a page that increments with every request. I can watch the responses come back (via the Charles proxy). Firefox will get a "1" the first time, and a "2" the second time. Yet it will display the "1," for some reason. Chrome exhibits this exact same behavior. I suspect it's a protocol-level issue, given the difference in Accepts header, but I've never seen this before.

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  • How to get a list of all Subversion commit author usernames?

    - by Quinn Taylor
    I'm looking for an efficient way to get the list of unique commit authors for an SVN repository as a whole, or for a given resource path. I haven't been able to find an SVN command specifically for this (and don't expect one) but I'm hoping there may be a better way that what I've tried so far in Terminal (on OS X): svn log --quiet | grep "^r" | awk '{print $3}' svn log --quiet --xml | grep author | sed -E "s:</?author>::g" Either of these will give me one author name per line, but they both require filtering out a fair amount of extra information. They also don't handle duplicates of the same author name, so for lots of commits by few authors, there's tons of redundancy flowing over the wire. More often than not I just want to see the unique author usernames. (It actually might be handy to infer the commit count for each author on occasion, but even in these cases it would be better if the aggregated data were sent across instead.) I'm generally working with client-only access, so svnadmin commands are less useful, but if necessary, I might be able to ask a special favor of the repository admin if strictly necessary or much more efficient. The repositories I'm working with have tens of thousands of commits and many active users, and I don't want to inconvenience anyone.

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  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

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  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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  • Does unboxing just return a pointer to the value within the boxed object on the heap?

    - by Charles
    I this MSDN Magazine article, the author states (emphasis mine): Note that boxing always creates a new object and copies the unboxed value's bits to the object. On the other hand, unboxing simply returns a pointer to the data within a boxed object: no memory copy occurs. However, it is commonly the case that your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway. I'm confused by the sentence I've bolded and the sentence that follows it. From everything else I've read, including this MSDN page, I've never before heard that unboxing just returns a pointer to the value on the heap. I was under the impression that unboxing would result in you having a variable containing a copy of the value on the stack, just as you began with. After all, if my variable contains "a pointer to the value on the heap", then I haven't got a value type, I've got a pointer. Can someone explain what this means? Was the author on crack? (There is at least one other glaring error in the article). And if this is true, what are the cases where "your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway"? I just noticed that the article is nearly 10 years old, so maybe this is something that changed very early on in the life of .Net.

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  • using STI and ActiveRecordBase<> with full FindAll

    - by oillio
    Is it possible to use generic support with single table inheritance, and still be able to FindAll of the base class? As a bonus question, will I be able to use ActiveRecordLinqBase< as well? I do love those queries. More detail: Say I have the following classes defined: public interface ICompany { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord("companies", DiscriminatorColumn="type", DiscriminatorType="String", DiscriminatorValue="NA")] public abstract class Company<T> : ActiveRecordBase<T>, ICompany { [PrimaryKey] private int Id { get; set; } [Property] public String Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="firm")] public class Firm : Company<Firm> { [Property] public string Description { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="client")] public class Client : Company<Client> { [Property] public int ChargeRate { get; set; } } This works fine for most cases. I can do things like: var x = Client.FindAll(); But sometimes I want all of the companies. If I was not using generics I could do: var x = (Company[]) FindAll(Company); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Firm b = (Firm)x[1]; Is there a way to write a FindAll that returns an array of ICompany's that can then be typecast into their respective types? Something like: var x = (ICompany[]) FindAll(Company<ICompany>); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Or maybe I am going about implementing the generic support all wrong?

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  • Better use a tuple or numpy array for storing coordinates

    - by Ivan
    Hi, I'm porting an C++ scientific application to python, and as I'm new to python, some problems come to my mind: 1) I'm defining a class that will contain the coordinates (x,y). These values will be accessed several times, but they only will be read after the class instantiation. Is it better to use an tuple or an numpy array, both in memory and access time wise? 2) In some cases, these coordinates will be used to build a complex number, evaluated on a complex function, and the real part of this function will be used. Assuming that there is no way to separate real and complex parts of this function, and the real part will have to be used on the end, maybe is better to use directly complex numbers to store (x,y)? How bad is the overhead with the transformation from complex to real in python? The code in c++ does a lot of these transformations, and this is a big slowdown in that code. 3) Also some coordinates transformations will have to be performed, and for the coordinates the x and y values will be accessed in separate, the transformation be done, and the result returned. The coordinate transformations are defined in the complex plane, so is still faster to use the components x and y directly than relying on the complex variables? Thank you

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  • How can I make nested string splits?

    - by Statement
    I have what seemed at first to be a trivial problem but turned out to become something I can't figure out how to easily solve. I need to be able to store lists of items in a string. Then those items in turn can be a list, or some other value that may contain my separator character. I have two different methods that unpack the two different cases but I realized I need to encode the contained value from any separator characters used with string.Split. To illustrate the problem: string[] nested = { "mary;john;carl", "dog;cat;fish", "plainValue" } string list = string.Join(";", nested); string[] unnested = list.Split(';'); // EEK! returns 7 items, expected 3! This would produce a list "mary;john;carl;dog;cat;fish;plainValue", a value I can't split to get the three original nested strings from. Indeed, instead of the three original strings, I'd get 7 strings on split and this approach thus doesn't work at all. What I want is to allow the values in my string to be encoded so I can unpack/split the contents just the way before I packed/join them. I assume I might need to go away from string.Split and string.Join and that is perfectly fine. I might just have overlooked some useful class or method. How can I allow any string values to be packed / unpacked into lists? I prefer neat, simple solutions over bulky if possible. For the curious mind, I am making extensions for PlayerPrefs in Unity3D, and I can only work with ints, floats and strings. Thus I chose strings to be my data carrier. This is why I am making this nested list of strings.

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  • How Can I Find a List of All Exceptions That a Given Library Function Throws in Python?

    - by b14ck
    Sorry for the long title, but it seems most descriptive for my question. Basically, I'm having a difficult time finding exception information in the official python documentation. For example, in one program I'm currently writing, I'm using the shutil libary's move function: from shutil import move move('somefile.txt', '/tmp/somefile.txt') That works fine, as long as I have write access to /tmp/, there is enough diskspace, and if all other requirements are satisfied. However, when writing generic code, it is often difficult to guarantee those factors, so one usually uses exceptions: from shutil import move try: move('somefile.txt', '/tmp/somefile.txt') except: print 'Move failed for some reason.' I'd like to actually catch the appropriate exceptions thrown instead of just catching everything, but I simply can't find a list of exceptions thrown for most python modules. Is there a way for me to see which exceptions a given function can throw, and why? This way I can make appropriate cases for each exception, eg: from shutil import move try: move('somefile.txt', '/tmp/somefile.txt') except PermissionDenied: print 'No permission.' except DestinationDoesNotExist: print "/tmp/ doesn't exist" except NoDiskSpace: print 'No diskspace available.' Answer points go to whoever can either link me to some relevant documentation that I've somehow overlooked in the official docs, or provide a sure-fire way to figure out exactly which exceptions are thrown by which functions, and why. Thanks!

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  • ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

    - by recursive
    This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

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  • Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

    - by GMan - Save the Unicorns
    I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • In Visual Studio (2008) is there a way to have a custom dependent file on another custom file?

    - by rball
    Instead of a *.cs code behind or beside I'd like to have a *.js file. I'm developing a MVC application an have no need for a code beside because I have controllers, but in certain cases it'd be nice to have a JavaScript code beside or some way to associate the file to the page it's being used on. I suppose I could just name them similarly, but I'm wanting to show the association if possible so there's no question about what the file is for. Typically what I'm talking about is within Visual Studio now under your Global.asax file you will have a plus sign to the left: + Global.asax Once you expand it you'll get - Global.asax Global.asax.cs I'd like the same thing to happen: + Home.spark - Home.spark Home.spark.js Updated: My existing csproj file has a path to the actual file, not sure if that's screwing it up. I've currently got: <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark.js"> <DependentUpon>Views\User\Profile.spark</DependentUpon> </Content> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark" /> </ItemGroup> and it's simply just showing the files besides each other.

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • Algorithm for assigning a unique series of bits for each user?

    - by Mark
    The problem seems simple at first: just assign an id and represent that in binary. The issue arises because the user is capable of changing as many 0 bits to a 1 bit. To clarify, the hash could go from 0011 to 0111 or 1111 but never 1010. Each bit has an equal chance of being changed and is independent of other changes. What would you have to store in order to go from hash - user assuming a low percentage of bit tampering by the user? I also assume failure in some cases so the correct solution should have an acceptable error rate. I would an estimate the maximum number of bits tampered with would be about 30% of the total set. I guess the acceptable error rate would depend on the number of hashes needed and the number of bits being set per hash. I'm worried with enough manipulation the id can not be reconstructed from the hash. The question I am asking I guess is what safe guards or unique positioning systems can I use to ensure this happens.

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  • Coupling an MFC CListCtrl and CTreeCtrl to get a view of the whole tree, not just one node at a time

    - by omatai
    Consider Windows Explorer (or regedit or similar). To the left side, there is a tree view, and to the right, a list view. In all cases I know of, the contents of the right view reflect the attributes of the selected node from the left pane. This is all well and good... but just not what I want. The nodes of the tree I want to display have a very few attributes (2-3) associated with each node - a reasonable amount to display horizontally as a row in a table. Rather than waste all that list view space on a single node with very few properties, I would like to have my list view display a table of the whole tree's properties (as the part of the tree currently expanded). So the nth line in the left view (tree) will correspond directly to the nth line in the right view (list/table), and I will get a decent overview of the properties of my tree. Does anyone know of code that does this? I am guessing that slaving a CListCtrl to a CTreeCtrl would be the way to go, and somehow overriding the vertical scrolling functions so that they are locked together. I'm just not sure that it is possible to lock the scrolls together like this... among other things! All advice gratefully welcomed :-)

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  • Problem with .release behavior in file_operations

    - by Yannick
    Hello, I'm dealing with a problem in a kernel module that get data from userspace using a /proc entry. I set open/write/release entries for my own defined /proc entry, and manage well to use it to get data from userspace. I handle errors in open/write functions well, and they are visible to user as open/fopen or write/fwrite/fprintf errors. But some of the errors can only be checked at close (because it's the time all the data is available). In these cases I return something different than 0, which I supposed to be in some way the value 'close' or 'fclose' will return to user. But whatever the value I return my close behave like if all is fine. To be sure I replaced all the release() code by a simple 'return(-1);' and wrote a program that open/write/close the /proc entry, and prints the close return value (and the errno). It always return '0' whatever the value I give. Behavior is the same with 'fclose', or by using shell mechanism (echo "..." /proc/my/entry). Any clue about this strange behavior that is not the one claimed in many tutorials I found? BTW I'm using RHEL5 kernel (2.6.18, redhat modified), on a 64bit system. Thanks. Regards, Yannick

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  • jQuery when div is clicked update input field issue

    - by stogdilla
    Hello, I'm rather new to jquery so this may be the issue. I have a script that outputs several divs all with different text data in them. I would like it when I click one of them that an input field's value is updated to that text currently I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.results]").click(function() { data= this.text(); $("#updateme").val(data); }); }); </script> <p> <label>Field <input type="text" name="updateme" id="updateme"> </label> </p> <a href="#" class="results">Florida</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 2</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 3</a> How can I make it so that whatever link is clicked that is the data that gets updated into the input's value? I can get it to take one or I can script out different cases of each changing the class name but I think there has to be a way where it references whatever link is being clicked instead of what it's currently doing. Thanks in advance!

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  • How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

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  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

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