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  • ssh Prompts For Password After Account Unlocked - Despite ssh key?

    - by user1011471
    Here's what happened: I set up ssh key so that user could ssh from A to B without a password. I got user's password wrong in some other context too many times, and user's account got locked out. (IT uses Active Directory here) IT unlocked the account. Concurrent to the unlocking, a script was running, calling something like ssh user@B some-health-check-command every 5 seconds or so -- which seemed to work fine before I caused user to get locked out in step 2. IT reports user reliably gets locked out a short time after each unlock attempt. I thought the ssh key would allow ssh user@B some-command as long as the account is not locked. But it behaves as if, when user gets unlocked, B suddenly asks for a password and since my command repeatedly runs without supplying a password, the account gets locked out after 5 attempts. Account cannot be accessed at this time. Please contact your system administrator. My questions are... Is that what's happening? Or: what's happening? More importantly: How can I reconfigure things such that my script doesn't cause problems? Can I accomplish what I want without having to install Expect? (I don't know if I have permission to do so) Other notes: Not using ssh-agent currently. The ssh command is running on our Jenkins master, a linux box. A and B are Mac OS X. user is managed in Active Directory and normally can sign into all three machines. Other than these things and the ssh key I set up, everything else has the default configuration as far as I know.

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  • Macros in Excel 2010 hangs

    - by Ahmad
    I have a spreadsheet with several macros. Generally, when previously using Excel 2007, a user clicks a button and everything works as expected (calculations, some email sending & file I/O). Typically, the expected run-time is about 90 seconds. The spreadsheet is a xlsm file created with Excel 2007. With Excel 2010 however, the same user process results in a non-responsive excel and forces us to kill excel from the task manager. Some note that I have gathered so far in trying to debug this issue: When monitoring CPU usage, it seems that Excel does start the macro. CPU usage increases as expected to about 47% for a few seconds. Excel.exe than drops to 0% usage and I now have a non-responsive Excel (even after 1 hour). If I set debug break points across modules and different functions and step through the code (after clicking the button) , the process works as expected albeit much slower. To add, there were no exceptions. I am at a complete loss as to what the issue may be. I initially thought it may be the add in that is being used but that was debunked by point 2. This seems to be a very odd situation. I can provide more information if required, but I'm at wits end about the root cause could be. I need help in diagnosing and resolving this issue.

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  • Fill down in Excel, but based on multiple values

    - by Jenn D.
    I have spreadsheets (not created by me) that have blank entries in one column where they should really have data. I want to take every empty cell and fill it with the nearest value above it. I'm looking for as little manual intervention as possible, because I'll have to do it repeatedly. I thought some previous version of Excel, or maybe another spreadsheet from the distant past, would do this by default -- that is, if you selected the column with foo and bar, and chose the equivalent of "fill down", you would get what's in the WANT column. What I actually get in Excel is the GET column. HAVE: WANT: GET: foo 1 foo 1 foo 1 2 foo 2 foo 2 bar 1 bar 1 foo 1 2 bar 2 foo 2 3 bar 3 foo 3 I'm worried that this might need a macro to be done properly. I used to be a whiz with Excel macros, and then suddenly they were all in VB. My fallback position will be to dump the whole thing to CSV and write a Python script, but if there's any way to do it in Excel that would be much preferable. Even if it involves a couple of different manual steps, that's fine; just not one step per group of lines. That is, a process of "copy the column, do X to it, cut and paste it back" would work, but "do X for each occurrence of foo or bar" won't. The files are too big for that. Any thoughts are appreciated!

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  • Unable to Align Layers in Photoshop Properly with CS2

    - by Jonathan Sampson
    Cannot Align Semi-Transparent Items? Windows Vista, Photoshop CS2. Steps to repeat: Create new document Fill a circle on a new layer Drop opacity of filled circle to 10% Create new empty layer below circle layer Merge empty layer with filled circle layer Select entire canvas Attempt to align layers to selectionlayer > align layers to selection > vertical centers I get the following error: Could not complete the Vertical Centers command because there are no layers to be moved. Clearly this is not true, as I'm selecting the layer with the semi-translucent ball on it. Now, if you had tried this same command prior to step 5 (when the layer was at 10% opacity) it would have worked. Is there some way around this problem? I need to move layers around that begin as transparent items, with a layer opacity at 100% where 100% of the layers opacity results in showing objects that are themselves not-very opaque. I've confirmed on another machine that this problem doesn't exist in CS3. I may exist in earlier copies of Photoshop, but I only have access to CS2 (has the problem) and CS3 (does not have the problem).

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  • How to scan multiple pages from a book under Linux?

    - by rumtscho
    I want the process to look like: I choose the correct scan settings (dpi, color depth, etc) I lay the first page on the scanner and trigger the process The scanner scans the page and waits for me to position the next page correctly I confirm that the next page is ready for scanning Repeat the above two steps until I tell the scanner that there are no more pages to come The scanner saves everything into a single PDF. I tried both xsane and gscan2pdf. First problem: they want me to know how many pages will be scanned. This is already a nuisance, but I can do the counting if needed. The main problem is that in step 3, the scanner does not pause. It is probably optimised for being fed loose sheets. The next scan process is triggered automatically as soon as the CCD has returned to the start position. The time the scanner needs to return the CCD is very short and I can't turn the page and position the book properly. Is there a software which can do the scan process in the way I described above, or did I just miss a setting available in xsane or gscan2pdf to make the scanner pause? If it makes any difference, the scanner is an Epson Stylus SX620FW, I run it using the manufacturer-provided driver.

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  • ERROR: Not enough space?

    - by dsmoljanovic
    Now this is a very unspecific question. I'm trying to figure out what this message would mean. Here is the story behind it: I'm installing Oracle enterprise manager cloud control (12c r3) on Solaris 10 (5/09). Installer opens up, i enter all needed information and at the last step click Install. It immediately crashes with only "ERROR: Not enough space" written in log and console and nothing else. Now, this could be java error or Solaris error? I'm thinking it's happening either when it starts to copy files or when it tries to launch a process that would do that. What space is it referring to? disk (have ehough), swap (also), memory (yep)... Any ideas are helpful. Edit: i found this exception in the oraInventory logs: oracle.sysman.oii.oiic.OiicInstallAPIException: Not enough space at oracle.sysman.oii.oiic.OiicAPIInstaller.initInstallSession(OiicAPIInstaller.java:2165) at oracle.sysman.oii.oiic.OiicAPIInstaller.initOUIAPISession(OiicAPIInstaller.java:790) at oracle.sysman.install.oneclick.EMGCOUIInstaller.prepareForInstall(EMGCOUIInstaller.java:676) at oracle.sysman.install.oneclick.EMGCSummaryDlgonNext$1.run(EMGCSummaryDlgonNext.java:243) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:662) at oracle.sysman.install.oneclick.EMGCSummaryDlgonNext.actionsOnClickofNext(EMGCSummaryDlgonNext.java:1067) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at oracle.sysman.install.oneclick.EMGCUtil.performonClickOfNextForClass(EMGCUtil.java:399) at oracle.sysman.install.oneclick.EMGCUtil.performPageLevelValidationsForSilentInstall(EMGCUtil.java:367) at oracle.sysman.install.oneclick.EMGCInstaller.prepareForSilentInstall(EMGCInstaller.java:1459) at oracle.sysman.install.oneclick.EMGCInstaller.main(EMGCInstaller.java:1553) disk status: bash-3.00$ df -h /tmp Filesystem size used avail capacity Mounted on swap 8.1G 2.7G 5.4G 33% /tmp bash-3.00$ df -h /u01 Filesystem size used avail capacity Mounted on / 275G 28G 244G 11% / swap: root@gs12emcc # swap -s total: 18306040k bytes allocated + 3837808k reserved = 22143848k used, 5712664k available

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  • hyper-v cluster behavior when losing network connectivity

    - by ChristopheD
    Setup: (rather new) Hyper-V R2 cluster with 2 nodes (in failover configuration). Fysical host OS: Windows Server 2008. About eight VM's (mixed: Windows Server 2008 and Linux) Yesterday we had a power outage of about 15 minutes. Our blades are on UPS so the fysical host machines (Windows Server 2008) never went down. Our main switches are not on UPS (yet) and we saw the behaviour similar to the following (as distilled from the event logs). The nodes in the cluster lost means of communication (because the external switches went down). The cluster wants to bring down one (the first) of the nodes (to start failover?). The previous step impacts clustered storage where the virtual machine VHD's are located. All VM's got brutally terminated and were found in a failed state in the failover manager in the host OS'es. The Linux VM's were kernel panicking and looked like they had their disk ripped out. This whole setup is rather new to us, so we are still learning about this. The question: We are putting switches on UPS soon but were wondering if the above is expected behavior (seems rather fragile) or if there are obvious improvements configuration-wise to handle such scenario's ? I can upload an evtx file concerning what exactly was going on in case that's necessary.

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  • Did my registrar screw up or is this how name server propagation works?

    - by Brad
    So my company has a number of domains with a large registrar that shall go unnamed. We are making some changes to our DNS infrastructure and the first of those is we are moving our secondary DNS from one server on site to four servers offsite. So we updated the name servers for each domain at the registrar by removing the entry for the old secondary name server and adding the four new ones. I monitored the old secondary server for requests and when I saw no new requests had been made for 24 hours I shut it down. That was this morning. I assumed at this point everything was good. Unfortunately this was my mistake. I should have gone and made sure name servers at large were returning the correct NS records. So this afternoon we were performing maintenance on our primary DNS server and we shut it down. This is when I started getting alerts from our external monitoring. I checked and sure enough, the DNS server used there reported the only NS record for our primary domain was the primary name server. The new secondary servers were not listed and neither was the old secondary. Is it unreasonable of me to have assumed that because the update was from ns1.mydomain.com ns2.mydomain.com to ns1.mydomain.com ns1.backupdns.com ns2.backupdns.com ns3.backupdns.com ns4.backupdns.com in one step at the registrar that there should be no intermediate state where the only NS record was for ns1.mydomain.com? Going forward to be safe obviously I will always leave the old name servers alone until after I'm 100% sure the new ones have propagated and only then remove the old name servers from the registrar. However, I'd still like to know if my registrar screwed up or if my expectation was unreasonable.

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  • Why doesn't NFS recognize a new UID?

    - by user76177
    I have two servers running RHEL6. I have root access to both. The main server, which I will refer to as server, is a database server. The application server, which I will refer to as client, mounts a directory from server via NFS. There is a user, appuser, on both client and server. However, appuser's UID on client is 502. appuser's UID on server is 506. Both users need read and write capability on the NFS share. To facilitate this, I made the share owned by appuser on server. Running id appuser on each yields: uid=506(appuser). Of course, client does not recognize that ownership, since appuser has a different id on client. So I did the following: Changed UID of user in /etc/passwd on client to be 506. Changed ownership of appuser's $HOME on client to be appuser again so that I could log in. Now, when I go to look at the NFS share from the client side, I see that it is owned by 502. 502 is the OLD id for appuser on client. I can't change ownership of the NFS share from client, since that is a volume that physically resides on server. I need to make sure that the NFS share shows ownership of appuser from both server and client. What step have I missed since changing the appuser id on client? NOTE: I have not rebooted client (or anything else.)

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  • Plesk FTP not working but SFTP and Shell is working

    - by shamittomar
    I am facing a strange problem. The FTP on my Plesk VPS is not working. Whenever I try to connect, FileZilla FTP client says: Status: Resolving address of xxxxxxxxxxxxx.com Status: Connecting to xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx:21... Status: Connection established, waiting for welcome message... Error: Could not connect to server So, it's not even going to the step of asking username/password. So, it's something else. The SFTP on port 22 is working fine. Also, I can successfully do shell access and run commands. But, I NEED FTP access too on port 21. I have searched everywhere but can not find any setting to enable it. This is the Plesk version info: Parallels Plesk Panel version 9.5.2 Operating system Linux 2.6.26.8-57.fc8 CPU GenuineIntel, Intel(R) Pentium(R) 4 CPU 3.00GHz Any help is appreciated. [EDIT]: The firewall is not blocking it. I have checked it on server and there are absolutely no blocking rule. Firewall states: All incoming/outgoing connections are accepted on FTP And on client-side (my PC), I can connect to other FTP servers so this is not an issue in my PC's firewall. Moreover, I can not even connect to the FTP from online FTP clients like net2ftp.

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  • Windows 2008 R2 file share - any way to "lock it down" outside of a 3rd party app?

    - by TheCleaner
    I have a 3rd party app that "makes a call" to write files to a file share on our network using the currently logged in credentials of the Windows domain user. Meaning the 3rd party app doesn't pass the apps credentials but simply issues a behind the scenes copy command to take a source file specified and copy/move it to the destination "repository" on the file share. The basic premise is that it keeps revisions/approvals for Document Control (think svn/git I guess, similar to this question: Lock down Windows folder to only be updatable by SVN). This all works fine...but here's my issue: I need a way to lock down the file share from being accessed/modified outside of using the 3rd party app (meaning prevent explorer/word/excel/etc from getting to that share). I know I can do the following: make the share a hidden share ($) - this definitely helps. Most users would have zero clue on how to get to such a share. Solves probably 95% of my issue. go one step further and set the "Hidden" attribute on the folders in the hidden share - this would go a little further in that even if a user knows the path to the hidden share like \\server\hidden$ they still won't see folders in that share without changing their explorer options to "show hidden files/folder Any other ideas on how I can lock this down? The users still need modify rights to this share/folders since the 3rd party app relies on their Windows permissions to that location when copying the files into it. I can't really use 3rd party tools to password protect the folder/share without causing the 3rd party app functions to fail.

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  • I need to preserve a tape using symantec backup exec. I'm aving trouble doing so

    - by MrVimes
    Please forgive me if this is the wrong stack exchange site. Please suggest which one I should post this to if it is. There's an automatic tape machine running in a remote location, with software (symantec backup exec 11d) Recently one of the servers being backed up had problems with its raid controller, so one of the drives has become invisible. I need to preserve the last good backup of that drive so I am trying to replace the tape with the most recent backup of that drive on it with one of the scratch tapes (blank tapes) present in the machine. I've tried the following... Associate the blank media with the media set in question (Wednesday) For the existing media (the tape with the data I want to keep) I click 'move to vault' and move it to the offline vault. I associate it with something other than 'Wednesday' (a media set called 'keep data infinitely...') I then do an inventory on that slot. The above steps I'm led to believe are supposed to put the fresh tape in the slot that had the tape I want to keep in it. But it just keeps showing up as containing the tape I want to keep after the inventory. (after refreshing the device tree) I am a complete newbie with this software. Can you tell me what I'm doing wrong, and/or tell me how to acheive my desired goal Edit: Just want to point out that I did try to get help directly from symantec with this, but having jumped through countless hoops to create an account and create a support ticket my progress was halted by requiring something called a 'tecnical contact id' at the final step with no explanation of what it is or how to get one.

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  • Windows Server 2003 IPSec Tunnel Connected, But Not Working (Possibly NAT/RRAS Related)

    - by Kevinoid
    Configuration I have setup a "raw" IPSec tunnel between a Windows Server 2003 (SBS) machine and a Netgear FVG318 according to the instructions in Microsoft KB816514. The configuration is as follows (using the same conventions as the article): NetA | SBS2003 | FVG318 | NetB 10.0.0.0/24 | 216.x.x.x | 69.y.y.y | 10.0.254.0/24 Both the Main Mode and Quick Mode Security Associations are successfully completed and appear in the IP Security Monitor. I am also able to ping the SBS2003 server on its private address from any computer on NetB. The Problem Any traffic sent from a computer on NetA to NetB, or from SBS2003 to NetB (excluding ICMP Ping responses), is sent out on the public network interface outside the IPSec tunnel (no encryption or header authentication, as if the tunnel were not there). Pings sent from a computer on NetB to a computer on NetA successfully reach computers on NetA, but the responses are silently discarded by SBS2003 (they do not go out in the clear and do not generate any encrypted traffic). Possible Solutions Incorrect Configuration I could have mistyped something, somewhere, or KB816514 could be incorrect in some way. I have tried very hard to eliminate the first option. Have re-created the configuration several times, tried tweaking and adjusting all the settings I could without success (most prevent the SA from being established). NAT/RRAS I have seen multiple posts elsewhere suggesting that this could be due to interaction between NAT and the IPSec filters. Possibly the NetA private addresses get rewritten to 216.x.x.x before being compared with the Quick Mode IPSec filters and don't get tunneled because of the mismatch. In fact, The Cable Guy article from June 2005 "TCP/IP Packet Processing Paths" suggests that this is the case, (see step 2 and 4 of the Transit Traffic path). If this is the case, is there a way to exclude NetA-NetB traffic from NAT? Any thoughts, ideas, suggestions, and/or comments are appreciated.

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  • How does one skip “Windows did not shut down successfully” in Win7-64?

    - by XenonofArcticus
    Migrating an app from an expensive and unreliable dedicated embedded x86 box running WinXP-embedded to COTS hardware (Dell E6410 laptop) running normal Win7-64. At this time, it's not feasible to deploy using Windows 7 embedded. The problem is, that the system is still sort of "embedded". The power could shut off at virtually any time without prior warning. We've stripped the OS down and removed the battery capability so that it will power down as desired. The app never writes to the disk, so it's not like we're going to corrupt anything terribly. The system is essentially idle after our app is up and running (with the exception of some computation, graphics, and TCP/IP and serial communications) so the OS enters a pretty stable state rather quickly. After a power-loss however, it rightly complains that Windows did not shut down successfully and presents the user with the Windows Error Recovery text screen. If left alone, it does eventually move on booting just fine, but we'd like to skip that step if possible. WinXP-embedded is designed to do this automatically, so I know it's possible. I've looked at the Kernel Switches but I didn't see anything documented for "Skip Windows Error Recovery". I've also read extensively on the startup process: http://homepage.ntlworld.com./jonathan.deboynepollard/FGA/windows-nt-6-boot-process.html I know I can disable the auto chkdsk in the registry, but that's not the same thing either. So, how do I streamline the boot process to not hassle the user about a situation that will be the regular normal situation?

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  • Copy Database Wizard fails on creation of view into another not-yet-copied database

    - by user22037
    Update - I found that doing a manual detach/reattach using MSDN article "How to: Move a Database Using Detach and Attach (Transact-SQL)" got around this issue. I'll just be creating a script to dettach and reattach but do the file copies manually. Any info on how to overcome the problems with the wizard would be helpful in the future. I am in the process of moving around 20 databases from our current server to a new one. When performing the copies however I have found that some databases can not copy if they have views into other databases that have not yet been copied to the target system. The log file generated says "failed with the following error: "Invalid object name" in reference to the database in the view. If I first copy just the database referenced in the view and then in a separate step copy the database over containing the view it is successful. However some other database have views into each other so can't just adjust the order in which the copy occurs. Is there any way to ignore this error and just allow everything to copy?

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  • Outlook 2010 Crashing Unpredictably

    - by cbkadel
    Very often when I open up Outlook 2010 and start doing actions in it, it will hang and become non responsive. I have tried letting it finish, but it never does come back (up to 20 minutes of letting it try). I generally have to restart Outlook and try again. Usually after about an hour of doing this, Outlook somehow snaps out of it and works for the rest of the day. It's generally in the morning (though I doubt that's the key variable). Generally, the emails that cause problems are HTML/formatted, but not always. What I've done so far to troubleshoot: Install Latest Outlook Hotfix (I think Dec 14, 2010) Start Outlook in Safe Mode Neither of those steps seem to make a difference. Usually - after about 10-15 restarts of Outlook on any given day, then it starts working thereafter. My next step is to uninstall/reinstall Office 2010, but I'm hoping someone has seen this and knows what to do about it - though not sure. My configuration is like this: Microsoft Online Services (using Microsoft's Sign In App) - Connecting to Exchange I have two other Exchange accounts in this profile (new feature in 2010) connected through Outlook Anywhere. Life Meeting Conferencing Add In I've disabled the People tab/add in. I've disabled the "Send to Bluetooth" add-in. Not sure what else to do. Thanks in advance.

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  • Can sendmail be configured to discard routed email that has been rejected by the next hop?

    - by Guy Bolton King
    Background: We have a handful of hosts (running sendmail) acting as the MXs for a few domains each. Each domain is handled via the sendmail/cf /etc/mail/virtusertable, with a set of known recipients and a catch-all reject rule. Mail to postmaster on each host is aliased to root, and root is aliased to root+<host>@ourdomain.com. The MX for ourdomain.com is Google Apps, and [email protected] is a simple group that forwards to the admins. Google Apps will reject some emails at the SMTP stage, usually because of illegal attachments (instead of accepting them and filing them as spam). Problem: Given a particular spam email sent to a domain in a virtusertable entry: If the recipient address rejects the mail, then sendmail will try and send a DSN to the sender. If that sender also rejects the mail (because it's a falsified sender, and the MX for the sender rejects the mail as spam), then sendmail sends a DSN to the postmaster. The routing detailed above takes place, and...Google Apps rejects the mail as well. sendmail now gives up with a "savemail panic", and leaves the mail in the queue forever. Our mail queue fills up with garbage Is there any way I can get sendmail to discard messages that have been rejected by the next virtusertable hop (i.e. after step 1 in the Problem description)? Or does anyone have any other solutions to this?

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  • In Windows 7 power management, is it possible to set different sleep settings for different SATA disks?

    - by Ben Voigt
    I'm having an issue with Windows 7 either freezing up or generating a BSOD coming out of sleep. I suspect that it is related to my boot/OS drive, an OCZ Vertex SE SSD, because numerous other Vertex users have reported sleep problems. Notably, if I put the computer to sleep, it almost always wakes correctly. If it goes to sleep after a timeout, it almost always BSODs. I disabled timed sleep and now it freezes when left unattended. My next step is to disable "Put hard disks to sleep after X minutes", but I'd like to change this setting only for the SSD and not for the rotating data disks, which I would like to spin down normally. Does anyone know a place to configure sleep on a per-disk basis? I don't need to set different timeouts on different disks (although that would be nice), simply setting "this disk sleeps" and "sleep is disabled for this disk" would be great. Additional system information: Windows 7 Ultimate x64, Core i5 - P55 chipset, Intel RST drivers are installed. One SSD, two rotating HDD, and a DVD-RW drive are all connected to the Intel SATA ports. I could potentially move some of these to my motherboard's other SATA controller if that would help.

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  • How can I make a copy of a printer in Win7?

    - by hawbsl
    Has anyone been able to copy an existing printer in Win7? I know that we were able to do this in XP (not as a direct copy/paste, but by installing the printer twice) but in Win7 it doesn't seem to be possible. Googling the answer is hopeless because searching for "copy printer" or "duplicate printer" you get a bunch of posts about "printer copiers" or people complaining about duplicate printers getting created in the background (precisely what I'd like to be able to do) It'd be good to know how to do it in general, but if it depends on the printer type, then in our case we are trying to make a copy of an HP Laserjet. Tried installing from the CD - but the CD is too old for Win7 Tried installing via Add Printer and that seems to install the printer but it's marked with an error. Tried installing via the .exe installer from the HP site and that does result in a successful printer being installed, but it won't let you install the same printer twice (stalls on the "insert USB cable now" step - simply won't enable the greyed out "Next" button). The reason this is required is so that we can print to one to the feeder and to the tray separately.

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  • Scaling a LAMP website hosted on EC2

    - by Gublooo
    Hello, I'm very new to all this - I've recently managed to launch my website on EC2. As next step, I want to learn how to scale the website. I have a general idea but wanted some input from the experts about how to go about it. My website is based on LAMP but also has Red5 server which allows users to record messages and also used for playing them back. Currently this is the architecture I'm planning to setup for initial scaling. Deploy four small EC2 instances for the following purposes: Instance-1: On this instance I will run the MySql database Instance-2: On this instance I will run the red5 server Instance-3 & Instance-4 These 2 instances will be used to deploy the website and will have Apache running on them. They will communicate with the mysql server on Instance-1 and red5 server on Instance-2 using the internal IP address. As an when required, I will launch another instance of the same EBS - I will have EBS of say 50 GIG where all the mysql data will be stored. Also red5 will use this EBS to store the video messages Load-Balancer - Use the load balancer provided by Amazon to load balance Instance-3 and Instance-4 This is what I have in mind. I could be way off so please bear with me. Also I have not taken into account the case of scaling MySql server as I currently have no idea about how that will be done and whether or not it is necessary initially. I am aware that Amazon provides auto scaling and mysql scaling as well but I dont want to get into that right now. Your feedback is appreciated Thanks

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  • Setup ejabberd with SQL Server 2008

    - by wonster
    Here's what I have got so far. Windows 2008 Server 64 bit. Installed the latest version of ejabberd, ejabberd-2.1.8-windows-installer.exe. The windows service starts up fine but seems ineffective. However, using the start & stop scripts work. I am able to login to the admin page which so far doesn't seem that versatile. Opened up ports 5222, 5226 and 5280 for my workstation to talk to the server. I've got Spark and Jabbear Windows clients to register, login and instant message with multiple accounts using the server. After confirming that I've got the very basics working, I've decided to make use of SQL Server 2008 as the database. Reason? Mainly, I am very comfortable with SQL Server. I can deal with redundancy, failover, data analysis easily. Not sure if ejabberd's built in DB provides all that. Following the instructions from ejabberd's documentation, I setup a system DSN that points to another physical database. The DSN checks out fine. (Tried both Named Pipes and TCP/IP) Modified ejabberd.cfg. Commented line %%{auth_method, internal} and uncommented line {auth_method, odbc} Uncommented and modified {odbc_server, "DSN=ejabberd;UID=somelogin;PWD=somepassword"}. After making these changes, I restarted. No errors are found in the log files. The jabber clients are no longer able to register new accounts. I'm not sure where to look for errors besides the /logs/ folder as I'm new to all this. I am basically stuck here on step 5. Has anyone got this setup to work recently? Some of the posts I've found around are years old and of no help. I can't be the only one setting up ejabberd with MS SQL. Any help would be appreciated!

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  • How do you recreate the System Recovery environment in Windows 7?

    - by Howiecamp
    I'm running Windows 7 Home Premium RTM (64-bit) and I want to take advantage of the system recovery tools (eg the Command Prompt) without using the Windows 7 DVD. My understanding is that this environment (WinRE) should be installed to your HDD by default as part of the Windows 7 installation. However, when I hit F8 on boot and select "Repair", I get: Windows failed to start. A recent hardware or software change might be the cause. To fix the problem... Status: 0xc000000e Info: The boot selection failed because a required device is inaccessible. The "Info" line seems like the smoking gun. My next step was to boot from the Windows 7 DVD, and choose "Repair". It indicated my Recovery Environment wasn't on the Windows 7 boot menu (perfect) and offered to fix it. I said yes and rebooted, however same issue as above. In addition, when I booted in to Windows 7 and I looked at the boot menu options, the recovery/repair option was not there. Only my Windows installation. Finally, I ran the Disk Management tool (diskmgmt.msc) and took a look at the contents of my "System Reserved" partition (which was set to "Active" as normal). It's unclear to me what the contents should look like, however it is my understanding that the WinRE environment gets installed to this partition. (As part of the above troubleshooting I followed http://superuser.com/questions/25728/how-to-fix-windows-7-boot-process which lead to http://www.sevenforums.com/tutorials/668-system-recovery-options.html).

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  • Certificates in SQL Server 2008

    - by Brandi
    I need to implement SSL for transmissions between my application and Sql Server 2008. I am using Windows 7, Sql Server 2008, Sql Server Management Studio, and my application is written in c#. I was trying to follow the MSDN page on creating certificates and this under 'Encrpyt for a specific client', but I got hopelessly confused. I need some baby steps to get further down the road to implementing encryption successfully. First, I don't understand MMC. I see a lot of certificates in there... are these certificates that I should be using for my own encryption or are these being used for things that already exist? Another thing, I assume all these certificates are files are located on my local computer, so why is there a folder called 'Personal'? Second, to avoid the above issue, I did a little experiment with a self-signed assembly. As shown in the MSDN link above, I used SQL executed in SSMS to create a self-signed certificate. Then I used the following connection string to connect: Data Source=myServer;Initial Catalog=myDatabase;User ID=myUser;Password=myPassword;Encrypt=True;TrustServerCertificate=True It connected, worked. Then I deleted the certificate I'd just created and it still worked. Obviously it was never doing anything, but why not? How would I tell if it's actually "working"? I think I may be missing an intermediate step of (somehow?) getting the file off of SSMS and onto the client? I don't know what I'm doing in the least bit, so any help, advice, comments, references you can give me are much appreciated. Thank you in advance. :)

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  • How to install wordpress without a web browser

    - by bvandrunen
    What I am trying to do is to automate wordpress website creation for the company I am working on. We have lots of information in our database for our customers and we want to create a wordpress website for each customer. The process works great and we have no trouble with the creation of websites/transfer of data or anything like that. The problem we do have is when we buy a new domain (http://www.newdomain.com) our process breaks (we call a stored procedure which installs all the data after the URL is called to install wordpress) if the domain takes more than 15min to resolve. We have tried doing looping (where the process checks to see if the domain resolves and keeps trying - but eventually if fails). So what we are looking for is to see if there is a way to install an URL without actually having the domain resolve yet. I have seen where possibilities where you can change the wp-config file but this doesn't work since we have more than one domain and it changes the source URL for all the domains. What we really need is just a way for us to manually start the install script through a call either through a database or some other way that doesn't check to see if the domain is resolved or pointing at the server or not. Thank for any suggestions. EDIT: All we do to install wordpress is call this URL: http://"newdomain".com/wp-admin/install.php?step=2 - if you change settings in the backend calling this URL will install wordpress without having to go through the wp-admin/install.php form

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  • What user information is exposed via a browser?

    - by ipso
    Is there a function or website that can collect and display ALL of the user information that can be obtained via a browser? Background: This of course does not account for the significant cross-reference abilities of large corporations to collate multiple sources and signals from users across various properties, but it's a first step. Ghostery is just a great idea; to show people all of the surreptitious scripts that run on any given website. But what information is available – what is the total set of values stored – that those scripts can collect from? If you login to a search engine and stay logged in but leave their tab, is that company still collecting your webpage viewing and activity from other tabs? Can past or future inputs to pages be captured – say comments on another website? What types of activities are stored as variables in the browser app that can be collected? This is surely a highly complex question, given to countless user scenarios – but my whole point is to be able to cut through all that – and just show the total set of data available at any given point in time. Then you can A/B test and see what is available with in a fresh session with one tab open vs. the same webpage but with 12 tabs open, and a full day of history to boot. (Latest Firefox & Chrome – on Win7, Win8 or Mint13 – although I'd like to think that won't make too much of a difference. Make assumptions. Simple is better.)

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