Search Results

Search found 6519 results on 261 pages for 'nested attributes'.

Page 215/261 | < Previous Page | 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222  | Next Page >

  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • How to set ExportMetaData with multiple values as well as single w/ custom attribute ?

    - by Matthew M.
    I have the following ExportMetaData attributes set on my class: [Export(typeof(IDocumentViewer))] [ExportMetadata("Name", "MyViewer")] [ExportMetadata("SupportsEditing", true)] [ExportMetadata("Formats", DocFormat.DOC, IsMultiple = true)] [ExportMetadata("Formats", DocFormat.DOCX, IsMultiple = true)] [ExportMetadata("Formats", DocFormat.RTF, IsMultiple = true)] I also have a supporting interface: public interface IDocumentViewerMetaData { /// <summary> /// Gets the format. /// </summary> /// <value>The format.</value> IEnumerable<DocFormat> Formats { get; } /// <summary> /// Gets the name of the viewer /// </summary> /// <value>The name.</value> string Name { get; } /// <summary> /// Gets a value indicating whether this viewer supports editing /// </summary> /// <value><c>true</c> if [supports editing]; otherwise, <c>false</c>.</value> bool SupportsEditing { get; } } And of course my ImportMany: [ImportMany(typeof(IDocumentViewer))] public IEnumerable<Lazy<IDocumentViewer, IDocumentViewerMetaData>> _viewers { get; set; } What I would like to do is use a strongly-typed attribute class instead of using the ExportMetaData attribute. I have not figured out a way to do this while also supporting single values (Name, SupportsEditing, in the example above). I envision doing something similiar the following (or whatever is suggested as best): [Export(typeof(IDocumentViewer))] [DocumentViewerMetadata(Name = "MyViewer")] [DocumentViewerMetadata(SupportsEditing = true)] [DocumentViewerMetadata(Format = DocFormat.DOC)] [DocumentViewerMetadata(Format = DocFormat.DOCX)] I am fairly certain that there IS a way to do this, I just haven't found the right way to connect the dots. :) Thank you, Matthew

    Read the article

  • Do servlet containers prevent web applications from causing each other interference and how do they do it?

    - by chrisbunney
    I know that a servlet container, such as Apache Tomcat, runs in a single instance of the JVM, which means all of its servlets will run in the same process. I also know that the architecture of the servlet container means each web application exists in its own context, which suggests it is isolated from other web applications. As depicted here: Accepting that each web application is isolated, I would expect that you could create 2 copies of an identical web application, change the names and context paths of each (as well as any other relevant configuration), and run them in parallel without one affecting the other. The answers to this question appear to support this view. However, a colleague disagrees based on their experience of attempting just that. They took a web application and tried to run 2 separate instances (with different names etc) in the same servlet container and experienced issues with the 2 instances conflicting (I'm unable to elaborate more as I wasn't involved in that work). Based on this, they argue that since the web applications run in the same process space, they can't be isolated and things such as class attributes would end up being inadvertently shared. This answer appears to suggest the same thing The two views don't seem to be compatible, so I ask you: Do servlet containers prevent web applications deployed to the same container from conflicting with each other? If yes, How do they do this? If no, Why does interference occur? and finally, Under what circumstances could separate web applications conflict and cause each other interference?, perhaps scenarios involving resources on the file system, native code, or database connections?

    Read the article

  • How to make designer generated .Net application settings portable

    - by Ville Koskinen
    Hello, I've been looking at modifying the source of the Doppler podcast aggregator with the goal of being able to run the program directly from my mp3 player. Doppler stores application settings using a Visual Studio designer generated Settings class, which by default serializes user settings to the user's home directory. I'd like to change this so that all settings would be stored in the same directory as the exe. It seems that this would be possible by creating a custom provider class which inherits the SettingsProvider class. Has anyone created such a provider and would like to share code? Update: I was able to get a custom settings provider nearly working by using this MSDN sample, i.e. with simple inheritance. I was initially confused as Windows Forms designer stopped working until I did this trick suggested at Codeproject: internal sealed partial class Settings { private MySettingsProvider settingsprovider = new MySettingsProvider(); public Settings() { foreach (SettingsProperty property in this.Properties) { property.Provider = settingsprovider; } ... The program still starts with window size 0;0 though. Anyone with any insight to this? Why the need to assing the provider in runtime---instead of using attributes as suggested by MSDN? Why the changes in how the default settings are passed to the application with the default settings provider vs. the custom one?

    Read the article

  • How to change one Button background in a gridview? -- Android

    - by Tstop Studios
    I have a GridView with 16 ImageView buttons. My program makes a random number and when the user clicks a button in the gridview, i want it to take the random number (0-15) and set the background of the tile with the same position as the random number (0-15) to a different image. How can I just change one of the buttons background? Here's my code so far: public class ButtonHider extends Activity { Random random = new Random(); int pos; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.button_hider); pos = random.nextInt(15); GridView gridview = (GridView) findViewById(R.id.gvBH); gridview.setAdapter(new ImageAdapter(this)); gridview.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View v, int position, long id) { pos = random.nextInt(16); if (position == pos) { Toast.makeText(ButtonHider.this, "Found Me!", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } else { Toast.makeText(ButtonHider.this, "Try Again!!", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } }); } public class ImageAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Context mContext; public ImageAdapter(Context c) { mContext = c; } public int getCount() { return 16; } public Object getItem(int position) { return null; } public long getItemId(int position) { return 0; } // create a new ImageView for each item referenced by the Adapter public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ImageView imageView; if (convertView == null) { // if it's not recycled, initialize some // attributes imageView = new ImageView(mContext); imageView.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(100, 100)); imageView.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); imageView.setPadding(15, 15, 15, 15); } else { imageView = (ImageView) convertView; } imageView.setImageResource(R.drawable.bh_b); return imageView; } } }

    Read the article

  • Abort SAX parsing mid-document?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    I'm parsing a very simple XML schema with a SAX parser in Android. An example file would be <Lists> <List name="foo"> <Note title="note 1" .../> <Note title="note 2" .../> </List> <List name="bar"> <Note title="note 3" .../> </List> </Lists> The ... represents more note data as attributes that aren't important to question. I use a SAX parser to parse the document and only implement the startElement and 'endElement' methods of the HandlerBase to handle Note and List nodes. However, In some cases the files can be very large and take some time to process. I'd like to be able to abort the parsing process at any time (i.e. user presses cancel button). The best way I've come up with is to throw an exception from my startElement method when certain conditions are met (i.e. boolean stopParsing is true). Is there a better way to do this? I've always used DOM style parsers, so I don't fully understand the SAX parser. One final note, I'm running this on Android, so I will have the Parser running on a worker thread to keep the UI responsive. If you know how I can kill the thread safely while the parser is running that would answer my question as well.

    Read the article

  • Why is iPdb not displaying STOUT after my input?

    - by BryanWheelock
    I can't figure out why ipdb is not displaying stout properly. I'm trying to debug why a test is failing and so I attempt to use ipdb debugger. For some reason my Input seems to be accepted, but the STOUT is not displayed until I (c)ontinue. Is this something broken in ipdb? It makes it very difficult to debug a program. Below is an example ipdb session, notice how I attempt to display the values of the attributes with: user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser The results are not displayed until 'begin captured stdout ' In [13]: !python manage.py test Creating test database... < SNIP remove loading tables nosetests ...E.. /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser c F /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or c .....EE...... FAIL: test_can_retag_questions (APP.forum.tests.test_views.AuthorizationFunctionsTestCase) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Users/Bryan/work/APP/../APP/forum/tests/test_views.py", line 71, in test_can_retag_questions self.assertTrue(auth.can_retag_questions(user)) AssertionError: -------------------- begin captured stdout << --------------------- ipdb True ipdb 4001 ipdb False ipdb --------------------- end captured stdout << ---------------------- Ran 20 tests in 78.032s FAILED (errors=3, failures=1) Destroying test database... In [14]: Here is the actual test I'm trying to run: def can_retag_questions(user): """Determines if a User can retag Questions.""" user_profile = user.get_profile() import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() return user.is_authenticated() and ( RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_superuser) I've also tried to use pdb, but that doesn't display anything. I see my test progress .... , and then nothing and not responsive to keyboard input. Is this a problem with readline?

    Read the article

  • How will Arel affect rails' includes() 's capabilities.

    - by Tim Snowhite
    I've looked over the Arel sources, and some of the activerecord sources for Rails 3.0, but I can't seem to glean a good answer for myself as to whether Arel will be changing our ability to use includes(), when constructing queries, for the better. There are instances when one might want to modify the conditions on an activerecord :include query in 2.3.5 and before, for the association records which would be returned. But as far as I know, this is not programmatically tenable for all :include queries: (I know some AR-find-includes make t#{n}.c#{m} renames for all the attributes, and one could conceivably add conditions to these queries to limit the joined sets' results; but others do n_joins + 1 number of queries over the id sets iteratively, and I'm not sure how one might hack AR to edit these iterated queries.) Will Arel allow us to construct ActiveRecord queries which specify the resulting associated model objects when using includes()? Ex: User :has_many posts( has_many :comments) User.all(:include => :posts) #say I wanted the post objects to have their #comment counts loaded without adding a comment_count column to `posts`. #At the post level, one could do so by: posts_with_counts = Post.all(:select => 'posts.*, count(comments.id) as comment_count', :joins => 'left outer join comments on comments.post_id = posts.id', :group_by => 'posts.id') #i believe #But it seems impossible to do so while linking these post objects to each #user as well, without running User.all() and then zippering the objects into #some other collection (ugly) #OR running posts.group_by(&:user) (even uglier, with the n user queries)

    Read the article

  • Python regex look-behind requires fixed-width pattern

    - by invictus
    Hi When trying to extract the title of a html-page I have always used the following regex: (?<=<title.*>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>) Which will extract everything between the tags in a document and ignore the tags themselves. However, when trying to use this regex in Python it raises the following Exception: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 21, in pattern = re.compile('(?<=)([\s\S]*)(?=)') File "C:\Python31\lib\re.py", line 205, in compile return _compile(pattern, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\re.py", line 273, in _compile p = sre_compile.compile(pattern, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 495, in compile code = _code(p, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 480, in _code _compile(code, p.data, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 115, in _compile raise error("look-behind requires fixed-width pattern") sre_constants.error: look-behind requires fixed-width pattern The code I am using is: pattern = re.compile('(?<=<title.*>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>)') m = pattern.search(f) if I do some minimal adjustments it works: pattern = re.compile('(?<=<title>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>)') m = pattern.search(f) This will, however, not take into account potential html titles that for some reason have attributes or similar. Anyone know a good workaround for this issue? Any tips are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Database not completely updated in rails migration

    - by Aatish Sai
    I am new to Ruby on Rails. I have a migration called create user class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :users do |t| t.column :username, :string, :limit => 25, :default => "", :null => false t.column :hashed_password, :string, :limit => 40, :default => "", :null => false t.column :first_name, :string, :limit => 25, :default => "", :null => false t.column :last_name, :string, :limit => 40, :default => "", :null => false t.column :email, :string, :limit => 50, :default => "", :null => false t.column :display_name, :string, :limit => 25, :default => "", :null => false t.column :user_level, :integer, :limit => 3, :default => 0, :null => false end User.create(:username=>'test',:hashed_password=>'test',:first_name=>'test',:last_name=>'test',:email=>'[email protected]',:display_name=> 'test',:user_level=>9) end end When I run rake db:migrate the table is created with the columns as mentioned above but the test data are not there mysql>select * from users; Empty set (0.00 sec) EDIT I just dropped the whole database and restarted the migration and now it is showing the following error. rake aborted! An error has occurred, all later migrations canceled: Can't mass-assign protected attributes: username, hashed_password, first_name, last_name, email, display_name, user_level What am I doing wrong please help? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How do I copy or move an NSManagedObject from one context to another?

    - by Aeonaut
    I have what I assume is a fairly standard setup, with one scratchpad MOC which is never saved (containing a bunch of objects downloaded from the web) and another permanent MOC which persists objects. When the user selects an object from scratchMOC to add to her library, I want to either 1) remove the object from scratchMOC and insert into permanentMOC, or 2) copy the object into permanentMOC. The Core Data FAQ says I can copy an object like this: NSManagedObjectID *objectID = [managedObject objectID]; NSManagedObject *copy = [context2 objectWithID:objectID]; (In this case, context2 would be permanentMOC.) However, when I do this, the copied object is faulted; the data is initially unresolved. When it does get resolved, later, all of the values are nil; none of the data (attributes or relationships) from the original managedObject are actually copied or referenced. Therefore I can't see any difference between using this objectWithID: method and just inserting an entirely new object into permanentMOC using insertNewObjectForEntityForName:. I realize I can create a new object in permanentMOC and manually copy each key-value pair from the old object, but I'm not very happy with that solution. (I have a number of different managed objects for which I have this problem, so I don't want to have to write and update copy: methods for all of them as I continue developing.) Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Map element position in data file to class property

    - by Augusto
    I need to read/write files, following a format provided by a third party specification. The specification itself is pretty simple: it says the position and the size of the data that will be saved in the file. For example: Position Size Description -------------------------------------------------- 0001 10 Device serial number 0011 02 Hour 0013 02 Minute 0015 02 Second 0017 02 Day 0019 02 Month 0021 02 Year The list is very long, it has about 400 elements. But lots of them can be combined. For example, hour, minute, second, day, month and year can be combined in a single DateTime object. I've splitted the elements into about 4 categories, and created separeted classes for holding the data. So, instead of a big structure representing the data, I have some smaller classes. I've also created different classes for reading and writing the data. The problem is: how to map the positions in the file to the objects properties, so that I don't need to repeat the values in the reading/writing class? I could use some custom attributes and retrieve them via reflection. But since the code will be running on devices with small memory and processor, it would be nice to find another way. My current read code looks like this: public void Read() { DataFile dataFile = new DataFile(); // the arguments are: position, size dataFile.SerialNumber = ReadLong(1, 10); //... } Any ideas on this one? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Magento- custom attribute causes blank order number.

    - by frank
    Hi- I created a simple custom attribute on the sales/order entity. Now, for new orders, order number is null. I looked at the sales_order table, and sure enough, increment_id is null... can anyone help me out, I am stumped? This is my setup.php: `public function getDefaultEntities() { return array( 'order' => array( 'entity_model' => 'sales/order', //'attribute_model' => 'catalog/resource_eav_attribute', 'table' => 'sales/order', 'attributes' => array( 'pr_email_sent' => array( 'label' => 'prEmailSent', 'type' => 'varchar', 'default' => 'false' ), ) ) ); }` This is my config.xml <fieldsets> <sales_order> <pr_email_sent><create>1</create><update>1</update></pr_email_sent> </sales_order> </fieldsets> Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Backbone Model fetched from Lithium controller is not loaded properly in bb Model

    - by Nilesh Kale
    I'm using backbone.js and Lithium. I'm fetching a model from the server by passing in a _id that is received as a hidden parameter on the page. The database MongoDB has stored the data correctly and can be viewed from console as: { "_id" : ObjectId("50bb82694fbe3de417000001"), "holiday_name" : "SHREE15", "description": "", "star_rating" : "3", "holiday_type" : "family", "rooms" : "1", "adults" : "2", "child" :"0", "emails" : "" } The Lithium Model class is so: class Holidays extends \lithium\data\Model { public $validates = array( 'holiday_name' => array( array( 'notEmpty', 'required' => true, 'message' => 'Please key-in a holiday name! (eg. Family trip for summer holidays)' ))); } The backbone Holiday model is so: window.app.IHoliday = Backbone.Model.extend({ urlRoot: HOLIDAY_URL, idAttribute: "_id", id: "_id", // Default attributes for the holiday. defaults: { }, // Ensure that each todo created has `title`. initialize: function(props) { }, The code for backbone/fetch is: var Holiday = new window.app.IHoliday({ _id: holiday_id }); Holiday.fetch( { success: function(){ alert('Holiday fetched:' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('HOLIDAY Fetched: \n' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('Holiday name:' + Holiday.get('holiday_name')); } } ); Lithium Controller Code is: public function load($holiday_id) { $Holiday = Holidays::find($holiday_id); return compact('Holiday'); } PROBLEM: The output of the backbone model fetched from server is as below and the Holiday model is not correctly 'formed' when data returns into backbone Model: HOLIDAY Fetched: {"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","Holiday":{"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","holiday_name":"SHREE15","description":"","star_rating":"3","holiday_type":"family","rooms":"1","adults":"2","child":"0","emails":""}} iplann...view.js (line 68) Holiday name:undefined Clearly there is some issue when the data is passed/translated from Lithium and loaded up as a model into backbone Holiday model. Is there something very obviously wrong in my code?

    Read the article

  • I need my BizTalk map to stop converting xml:lang to ns1:lang

    - by Jeremy Stein
    I have a map in BizTalk 2009 that is converting some data into an XML document to be sent on to another system. The target schema includes some elements with xml:lang attributes. BizTalk generates those as ns1:lang. The target system requires that the prefix xml be used. Here is a simplified example to show what BizTalk is doing: sample.xsd <xs:schema targetNamespace="http://example.com/" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:import schemaLocation="common.xsd" namespace="http://www.w3.org/XML/1998/namespace" /> <xs:element name="example"> <xs:complexType> <xs:attribute ref="xml:lang" /> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> common.xsd <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <xs:schema xmlns:xml="http://www.w3.org/XML/1998/namespace" targetNamespace="http://www.w3.org/XML/1998/namespace" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:attribute name="lang" type="xs:language" /> </xs:schema> Example of map output <ns0:example xmlns:ns0="http://example.com/" xmlns:ns1="http://www.w3.org/XML/1998/namespace" ns1:lang="en-US" /> Is there some way to convince BizTalk to use the xml prefix?

    Read the article

  • Inconsistency in modified/created/accessed time on mac

    - by Seth Johnson
    I'm having trouble using os.utime to correctly set the modification time on the mac (Mac OS X 10.6.2, running Python 2.6.1 from /usr/bin/python). It's not consistent with the touch utility, and it's not consistent with the properties displayed in the Finder's "get info" window. Consider the following command sequence. The 'created' and 'modified' times in the plain text refer to the "get info" window attributes. As a reminder, os.utime takes arguments (filename, (atime, mtime)). >>> import os >>> open('tempfile','w').close() 'created' and 'modified' are both the current time. >>> os.utime('tempfile', (1000000000, 1500000000) ) 'created' is the current time, 'modified' is July 13, 2017. >>> os.utime('tempfile', (1000000000, 1000000000) ) 'created' and 'modified' are both September 8, 2001. >>> os.path.getmtime('tempfile') 1000000000.0 >>> os.path.getctime('tempfile') 1269021939.0 >>> os.path.getatime('tempfile') 1269021951.0 ...but the os.path.get?time and os.stat don't reflect it. >>> os.utime('tempfile', (1500000000, 1000000000) ) 'created' and 'modified' are still both September 8, 2001. >>> os.utime('tempfile', (1500000000, 1500000000) ) 'created' is September 8, 2001, 'modified' is July 13, 2017. I'm not sure if this is a Python problem or a Mac stat problem. When I exit the Python shell and run touch -a -t 200011221234 tempfile neither the modification nor the creation times are changed, as expected. Then I run touch -m -t 200011221234 tempfile and both 'created' and 'modified' times are changed. Does anyone have any idea what's going on? How do I change the modification and creation times consistently on the mac? (Yes, I am aware that on Unixy systems there is no "creation time.")

    Read the article

  • Django-South introspection rule doesn't work.

    - by Ory Band
    I'm using Django 1.2.3 and South 0.7.3. I am trying to convert my app (named core) to use Django-South. I have a custom model/field that I'm using, named ImageWithThumbsField. It's basically just the ol' django.db.models.ImageField with some attributes such as height, weight, etc. While trying to ./manage.py convert_to_auth core I receieve South's freezing errors. I have no idea why, I'm Probably missing something... I am using a simple custom Model: from django.db.models import ImageField class ImageWithThumbsField(ImageField): def __init__(self, verbose_name=None, name=None, width_field=None, height_field=None, sizes=None, **kwargs): self.verbose_name=verbose_name self.name=name self.width_field=width_field self.height_field=height_field self.sizes = sizes super(ImageField, self).__init__(**kwargs) And this is my introspection rule, which I add to the top of my models.py: from south.modelsinspector import add_introspection_rules from lib.thumbs import ImageWithThumbsField add_introspection_rules( [ ( (ImageWithThumbsField, ), [], { "verbose_name": ["verbose_name", {"default": None}], "name": ["name", {"default": None}], "width_field": ["width_field", {"default": None}], "height_field": ["height_field", {"default": None}], "sizes": ["sizes", {"default": None}], }, ), ], ["^core/.fields/.ImageWithThumbsField",]) This is the errors I receieve: ! Cannot freeze field 'core.additionalmaterialphoto.photo' ! (this field has class lib.thumbs.ImageWithThumbsField) ! Cannot freeze field 'core.material.photo' ! (this field has class lib.thumbs.ImageWithThumbsField) ! Cannot freeze field 'core.material.formulaimage' ! (this field has class lib.thumbs.ImageWithThumbsField) ! South cannot introspect some fields; this is probably because they are custom ! fields. If they worked in 0.6 or below, this is because we have removed the ! models parser (it often broke things). ! To fix this, read http://south.aeracode.org/wiki/MyFieldsDontWork Does anybody know why? What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Retrieve click() handler in jQuery for later use

    - by Xiong Chiamiov
    I'm using the jQuery tablesorter plugin to sort a table, which assigns .click() handlers to the <th>s in the table. Since my table has alternating colors for each column, I've built a simple fix_table_colors(identifier) function that does as it should when I call it manually using Firebug. I would like, however, to have that automatically called after a sort. To do this, I decided to retrieve the .click() handler from the <th>s, and assign a new handler that simply calls the previous handler, followed by fix_table_colors(). (This SO question is similar, but uses standard onClick() attributes, which won't work here.) From the accepted answer to this question, I have created the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $("table.torrents").tablesorter({ debug: true, headers: { 1: { sorter: 'name' }, 2: { sorter: 'peers' }, 3: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 4: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 5: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 6: { sorter: 'ratio' } } }); $('table.torrents thead th').each(function() { var th = $(this); var clickHandler = th.data('events').click[0]; th.click(function() { clickHandler(); fix_table_colors('table.torrents'); }); }); }); While this is conceptually correct, clickHandler doesn't appear to actually be a function, and so I cannot call it. With a bit more digging in Firebug, I found that click[3] appears to hold the function I'm looking for (and click[10] my new one). I get an 'e is undefined' error on line 2 of tablesorter.min.js when using that, though. Am I even going down the right path? I have a feeling that with what I've found so far, I can make this work, but it's going to be much uglier than I would expect it needs to be.

    Read the article

  • overflow-y hides page contents in a webkit browsers (Chrome and Safari)

    - by Victor F
    Hi, I am currently making our website to be supported by all major browsers and I've met a very strange problem - oveflow-y attribute caused my data to be hidden. Below I've got an oversimplified code sample that works in IE and Firfox, but which doesn't work in Safari and Chrome. This is a 100% valid code and I am not sure why it doesn't display properly in webkit browsers. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title></title> </head> <body style="height: 100%;"> <form action="Webkit_Problem.html" style="height: 100%;"> <table style="height: 100%;> <tr> <td> <div style="overflow-y: auto; height: 100%;> THIS SHOULD BE VISIBLE </div> </td> </tr> </table> </form> </body> </html> http://www.alocet.com/VictorsTestFolder/Webkit_Problem.html (Live sample here) The only way to get it working is either remove the height:100% attributes for div or a table tag (which will ruin the purpose of my html), or add height:100% to html tag Does anyone has any suggestions? Thank you

    Read the article

  • ASP Button Calling JavaScript Function

    - by Steven
    I am attempting to construct my own date picker using code from several sources. Specifically, I am now attempting to have an asp:button display/hide the calendar. What am I doing wrong? myDate.ascx <%@ Control Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="myDate.ascx.vb" Inherits="Website.myDate" %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function toggleCalendar(myID) { var obj = document.getElementById(myID) obj.style.display = (obj.style.display == "none") ? "" : "none"; } </script> <asp:TextBox ID="dateText" runat="server" > </asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="dateBtn" runat="server" UseSubmitBehavior="false" Text="x" /> <asp:Calendar ID="dateCal" runat="server" > </asp:Calendar> myDate.ascx.vb Partial Public Class myDate Inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl Protected Sub Page_Load (ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Add OnClick event to call JavaScript to toggle calendar display' calBtn.Attributes.Add("OnClick", "toggleCalendar(" & cal.ClientID & ")") End Sub End Class HTML code for button (from browser) <input type="button" name="ctl03$calBtn" value="x" onclick="toggleCalendar(ctl03_cal);__doPostBack('ctl03$calBtn','')" id="ctl03_calBtn" />

    Read the article

  • php - correct search expression for bbpress

    - by billn
    I have a very purdy styled search box in my wordpress install, and looking for continuity I want the same for my bbpress forum - currently I'm failing. For WP I have: <div id="search"> <form action="<?php bloginfo('home') ?>" method="get"> <div class="hiddenFields"></div> <p><input name="s" id="s" maxlength="100" size="18" /><input class="submit" id="submit-button" type="submit" value="submit" /></p></form> </div> For bbPress The form 'method="get"' gets kicked out and of-course I need another expression. bbpress generally seems to use: <div class="search"><?php search_form(); ?></div> This wrecks everything - I get no styling attributes at all other than position... I can make it look fine (and consistent) with by removing the - but then it's obviously just a dummy with no search - any ideas to fix the latter? Thanks <div id="search"> <div class="hiddenFields"></div> <p><input name="s" id="s" maxlength="100" size="18" /><input class="submit" id="submit-button" type="submit" value="submit" /></p> </div>

    Read the article

  • How to make Resig's micro-templates XHTML compliant?

    - by mshelv
    Hello, I have been experimenting with John Resig's micro-template, which works great. However, the mark-up will not pass the XHTML 1.0 Transitional validation test. (Among other things, id attributes yield errors.) Replacing tags identifiers <, with [[,]], passes validation. Thus, I created a js script which at load time (jQuery document ready) converts the square brackets back to regular markers. This works fine in FF, but not in IE, Chrome, etc. Scripts embedded within CDATA tags validate as well. Question: Is there a way to insert micro-template in a script and still pass XHTML validation? My idea was to remove the CDATA tags once the page has been loaded. But there are probably smarter ways. (Note: I'd prefer not to inject HTML via js since the mark-up will be difficult to maintain.) PS: I looked at other js templates, but they are either not XHTML compliant or too bulky. TIA for any hints.

    Read the article

  • Blocking on DBCP connection pool (open and close connnection). Is database connection pooling in OpenEJB pluggable?

    - by topchef
    We use OpenEJB on Tomcat (used to run on JBoss, Weblogic, etc.). While running load tests we experience significant performance problems with handling JMS messages (queues). Problem was localized to blocking on database connection pool getting or releasing connection to the pool. Blocking prevented concurrent MDB instances (threads) from running hence performance suffered 10-fold and worse. The same code used to run on application servers (with their respective connection pool implementations) with no blocking at all. Example of thread blocked: Name: JMS Resource Adapter-worker-23 State: BLOCKED on org.apache.commons.pool.impl.GenericObjectPool@1ea6b4a owned by: JMS Resource Adapter-worker-19 Total blocked: 18,426 Total waited: 0 Stack trace: org.apache.commons.pool.impl.GenericObjectPool.returnObject(GenericObjectPool.java:916) org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolableConnection.close(PoolableConnection.java:91) - locked org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolableConnection@1bcba8 org.apache.commons.dbcp.managed.ManagedConnection.close(ManagedConnection.java:147) com.xxxxx.persistence.DbHelper.closeConnection(DbHelper.java:290) .... Couple of questions. I am almost certain that some transactional attributes and properties contribute to this blocking, but MDBs are defined as non-transactional (we use both annotations and ejb-jar.xml). Some EJBs do use container-managed transactions though (and we can observe blocking there as well). Are there any DBCP configurations that may fix blocking? Is DBCP connection pool implementation replaceable in OpenEJB? How easy (difficult) to replace it with another library? Just in case this is how we define data source in OpenEJB (openejb.xml): <Resource id="MyDataSource" type="DataSource"> JdbcDriver oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver JdbcUrl ${oracle.jdbc} UserName ${oracle.user} Password ${oracle.password} JtaManaged true InitialSize 5 MaxActive 30 ValidationQuery SELECT 1 FROM DUAL TestOnBorrow true </Resource>

    Read the article

  • Graph-structured databases and Php

    - by stagas
    I want to use a graph database using php. Can you point out some resources on where to get started? Is there any example code / tutorial out there? Or are there any other methods of storing data that relate to each other in totally random/abstract situations? - Very abstract example of the relations needed: John relates to Mary, both relate to School, John is Tall, Mary is Short, John has Blue Eyes, Mary has Green Eyes, query I want is which people are related to 'Short people that have Green Eyes and go to School' - answer John - Another example: TrackA -> ArtistA -> ArtistB -> AlbumA -----> [ label ] -> AlbumB -----> [ A ] -> TrackA:Remix -> Genre:House -> [ Album ] -----> [ label ] TrackB -> [ C ] [ B ] Example queries: Which Genre is TrackB closer to? answer: House - because it's related to Album C, which is related to TrackA and is related to Genre:House Get all Genre:House related albums of Label A : result: AlbumA, AlbumB - because they both have TrackA which is related to Genre:House - It is possible in MySQL but it would require a fixed set of attributes/columns for each item and a complex non-flexible query, instead I need every attribute to be an item by itself and instead of 'belonging' to something, to be 'related' to something.

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing Error - The unit test adapter failed to connect to the data source or to read the data

    - by michael.lukatchik
    I'm using VSTS 2K8 and I've set up a Unit Test Project. In it, I have a test class with a method that does a simple assertion. I'm using an Excel 2007 spreadsheet as my data source. My test method looks like this: [DataSource("System.Data.Odbc", "Dsn=Excel Files;dbq=|DataDirectory|\\MyTestData.xlsx;defaultdir=C:\\TestData;driverid=1046;maxbuffersize=2048;pagetimeout=5", "Sheet1", DataAccessMethod.Sequential)] [DeploymentItem("MyTestData.xlsx")] [TestMethod()] public void State_Value_Is_Set() { string expected = "MD"; string actual = TestContext.DataRow["State"] as string; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } As indicated in the method decoration attributes, my Excel spreadsheet is on my local C:/ Drive. In it, the sheet where all of my data is located is named "Sheet1". I've copied the Excel spreadsheet into my project and I've set its Build Action = "Content" and I've set its Copy to Output Directory = "Copy if Newer". When trying to run this simple unit test, I receive the following error: The unit test adapter failed to connect to the data source or to read the data. For more information on troubleshooting this error, see "Troubleshooting Data-Driven Unit Tests" (http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=62412) in the MSDN Library. Error details: ERROR [42S02] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] The Microsoft Office Access database engine could not find the object 'Sheet1'. Make sure the object exists and that you spell its name and the path name correctly. I've verified that the sheet name is spelled correctly (i.e. Sheet1) and I've verified that my data sources are set correctly. Web searches haven't turned up much at all. And I'm totally stumped. All help or input is appreciated!!!!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222  | Next Page >