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  • delete element from xml using LINQ

    - by Shishir
    Hello I've a xml file like: <starting> <start> <site>mushfiq.com</site> <site>mee.con</site> <site>ttttt.co</site> <site>jkjhkhjkh</site> <site>jhkhjkjhkhjkhjkjhkh</site> <site>dasdasdasdasdasdas</site> </start> </starting> Now I need to delete any ... and value will randomly be given from a textbox. Here is my code : XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(@"AddedSites.xml"); var deleteQuery = from r in doc.Descendants("start") where r.Element("site").Value == txt.Text.Trim() select r; foreach (var qry in deleteQuery) { qry.Element("site").Remove(); } doc.Save(@"AddedSites.xml"); If I put the value of first element in the textbox then it can delete it, but if I put any value of element except the first element's value it could not able to delete! I need I'll put any value of any element...as it can be 2nd element or 3rd or 4th and so on.... can anyone help me out? thanks in advanced!

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  • Passenger, Nginx, and Capistrano - Passenger not launching Rails app at all

    - by Throlkim
    Essentially, my route is working perfectly, Passenger seems to be loading - all is hunky-dory. Except that nothing Railsy happens. Here's my Nginx log from starting the server to the first request (ignore the different domain/route - it's because I haven't moved the new domain over yet, and it's returning a 403 error because there's no index file in the public folder): [ pid=24559 file=ext/nginx/HelperServer.cpp:826 time=2009-11-10 00:49:13.227 ]: Passenger helper server started on PID 24559 [ pid=24559 file=ext/nginx/HelperServer.cpp:831 time=2009-11-10 00:49:13.227 ]: Password received. 2009/11/10 00:49:53 [error] 24578#0: *1 directory index of "/var/www/***/current/public/" is forbidden, client: 188.221.195.27, server: ***, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "***" 2009/11/10 00:49:54 [error] 24578#0: *1 open() "/var/www/***/current/public/favicon.ico" failed (2: No such file or directory), client: 188.221.195.27, server: ***, request: "GET /favicon.ico HTTP/1.1", host: "***", referrer: "***" Someone on the RubyOnRails IRC channel suggested that it might be a webserver permissions problem. I had a suspicion that it might be a filesystem permission problem, but then Nginx runs as www-data and Passenger as root. I can load static files from within the public directory fine, but no Rails application is being launched. Does anyone have an idea? My head is gradually melting away figuring this one out! Edit: Here's the vhost file: server { listen 80; server_name ***; passenger_enabled on; location / { root /var/www/***/current/public; index index.html index.htm; } #error_page 404 /404.html; # redirect server error pages to the static page /50x.html # error_page 500 502 503 504 /50x.html; location = /50x.html { root html; } }

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  • Changing the Android emulator locale automatically

    - by Christopher
    For automated testing (using Hudson) I have a script that generates a bunch of emulators for many combinations of Android OS version, screen resolution, screen density and language. This works fine, except for the language part. I need to find a way to change the Android system locale automatically. Here's some approaches I can think of, in order of preference: Extracting/editing/repacking a QEMU image directly before starting the emulator Running some sort of system-locale-changing APK on the emulator after startup Changing the locale settings on the emulator filesystem after startup Changing the locale settings in some SQLite DB on the emulator after startup Running a key sequence (via the emulator's telnet interface) that would open the settings app and change the locale Manually starting the emulator for each platform version, changing the locale by hand in the settings, saving it and archiving the images for later deployment Any ideas whether this can be done, either via the above methods or otherwise? Do you know where locale settings are persisted to/read from by the system? Solution: Thanks to dtmilano's info about the relevant properties, and some further investigation on my part, I came up with a solution even better and simpler simpler than all the ideas above! I have updated the answer below with the details.

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  • Getting MSDeploy working on our build/integration server - Is an MSBuild upgrade necessary?

    - by Jeff D
    We have what I think is a fairly standard build process: 1. Developer: Check in code 2. Build: Polls repo, sees change, and kicks off build that: 3. Build: Updates from repo, Builds w/ MSBuild, Runs unit tests w/ nunit, 4. Build: creates installer package Our security team allows us to pull from the build server, but does not allow the build server to push. So we generally rdp in, d/l the installers, and run them, which rules out the slick deployment services, so I would need to generate packages instead. I'd like to use MSDeploy, except that we have the following issues: We're on .net 3.5, and the MSBuild target (Package) that uses MSDeploy requires 4.0. Is there anything I'd need to install other than .net 4.0 RC for this? (Would MSBuild be part of that upgrade?) When I generate packages with MSDeploy, I see that I don't have just 1 file. There's a zip, deploy.cmd, SourceManifest.xml, and SetParameters.xml. What are all the other files for, and why wouldn't they all be in the 'package'? It sounds as if you can create packages by telling the system to look at a working IIS site. But if the packages are build from a CI environment, aren't you basically out of luck here? It feels like they designed some of this for small-scale developers deploying from their dev environment. That's a fine use case, but I'm interested in see what everyone's enterprise-experience is with the tool Any suggestions?

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  • Making Infragistics ultrawingrid, desired columns readonly

    - by Amit Ranjan
    I am stucked at the situation where I need to disable few columns of a each row ,except newly added row. That is I have 10 columns in grid and I want first three columns that are binded from the rows coming from db as disabled or read-only, rest are editable. if I add new row then all columns of new row must be enabled until and unless it is saved. I dont have any DataKey or Primary key for my existing row or new row. I have to check for some boolean values like IsNewRow. in my current scenario i am using this code block Private Sub dgTimeSheet_InitializeRow(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As Infragistics.Win.UltraWinGrid.InitializeRowEventArgs) Handles dgTimeSheet.InitializeRow ''if either column key is Project, Class or Milestone '' Activation.NoEdit = Disable and Activation.AllowEdit = Enable Dim index As Integer = e.Row.Index If e.Row.IsAddRow Then dgTimeSheet.Rows(index).Cells(PROJECT).Activation = Activation.AllowEdit dgTimeSheet.Rows(index).Cells(SERVICE_ISSUE_CLASS).Activation = Activation.AllowEdit dgTimeSheet.Rows(index).Cells(MILESTONE).Activation = Activation.AllowEdit Else dgTimeSheet.Rows(index).Cells(PROJECT).Activation = Activation.NoEdit dgTimeSheet.Rows(index).Cells(SERVICE_ISSUE_CLASS).Activation = Activation.NoEdit dgTimeSheet.Rows(index).Cells(MILESTONE).Activation = Activation.NoEdit End If CheckRows() End Sub but the problem is that if i click on disabled/readonly rows then newly added rows also gets disabled., which i dont want

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  • SSRS 2008: is it possible to make a report parameter NOT query-based for some linked report?

    - by Stefan Mohr
    I suspect the answer is no, but here goes.. I'm using the WebForms Report Viewer on a public-facing website to allow users to report on themselves or their users (if the user is an admin user). A report has a parameter called Users where an admin can pick a user from the list and generate a report from it. Mundane users can also view this report, but I programmatically create a linked report for each user and set the UserID value to their ID so they can only view themselves. This works well except that the UserID parameter is query-based, and not every user is visible in the list using default settings (the user list is based off date range parameters can provide, and only users we consider 'active' during the date range are visible). This is blowing up for mundane users that are not active for the default date range (which is the previous month). I suspect the flow of execution is something like this: Report loads with default parameters The linked report rules are now applied and the value of the UserID is overridden with the ID in the linked report UserID field is now hidden to prevent the user from changing it SSRS can't find the UserID default value in the query results (that I didn't even want it to run) so it displays an error The 'UserID' parameter is missing a value Through some testing I've found a perfect correlation between users not inside the default date range and users who can't view the report. Can anyone suggest a way to make the report usable for those users that aren't in the default list? The reports are created programmatically so I do have a fair bit of control over the situation. I would love to simply be able to mark a parameter in a linked report as no longer being query-based, but those properties are all read-only. I really, really don't want to have to create duplicate reports to accommodate these users but I'm at a bit of a loss right now. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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  • Problem with Informix JDBC, MONEY and decimal separator in string literals

    - by Michal Niklas
    I have problem with JDBC application that uses MONEY data type. When I insert into MONEY column: insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45') I got exception: Character to numeric conversion error The same SQL works from native Windows application using ODBC driver. I live in Poland and have Polish locale and in my country comma separates decimal part of number, so I tried: insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123,45') And it worked. I checked that in PreparedStatement I must use dot separator: 123.45. And of course I can use: insert into _money_test (amt) values (123.45) But some code is "general", it imports data from csv file and it was safe to put number into string literal. How to force JDBC to use DBMONEY (or simply dot) in literals? My workstation is WinXP. I have ODBC and JDBC Informix client in version 3.50 TC5/JC5. I have set DBMONEY to just dot: DBMONEY=. EDIT: Test code in Jython: import sys import traceback from java.sql import DriverManager from java.lang import Class Class.forName("com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver") QUERY = "insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45')" def test_money(driver, db_url, usr, passwd): try: print("\n\n%s\n--------------" % (driver)) db = DriverManager.getConnection(db_url, usr, passwd) c = db.createStatement() c.execute("delete from _money_test") c.execute(QUERY) rs = c.executeQuery("select amt from _money_test") while (rs.next()): print('[%s]' % (rs.getString(1))) rs.close() c.close() db.close() except: print("there were errors!") s = traceback.format_exc() sys.stderr.write("%s\n" % (s)) print(QUERY) test_money("com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver", 'jdbc:informix-sqli://169.0.1.225:9088/test:informixserver=ol_225;DB_LOCALE=pl_PL.CP1250;CLIENT_LOCALE=pl_PL.CP1250;charSet=CP1250', 'informix', 'passwd') test_money("sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver", 'jdbc:odbc:test', 'informix', 'passwd') Results when I run money literal with dot and comma: C:\db_examples>jython ifx_jdbc_money.py insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123,45') com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver -------------- [123.45] sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver -------------- there were errors! Traceback (most recent call last): File "ifx_jdbc_money.py", line 16, in test_money c.execute(QUERY) SQLException: java.sql.SQLException: [Informix][Informix ODBC Driver][Informix]Character to numeric conversion error C:\db_examples>jython ifx_jdbc_money.py insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45') com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver -------------- there were errors! Traceback (most recent call last): File "ifx_jdbc_money.py", line 16, in test_money c.execute(QUERY) SQLException: java.sql.SQLException: Character to numeric conversion error sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver -------------- [123.45]

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  • .htaccess - RewriteRules working, but browser address bar displaying full (unfriendly) URL

    - by axol
    Hey there, Haven't been able to find a solution to this around the net or these forums - apologise if I've missed something! My .htaccess RewriteRules are working well - have search-engine and user -friendly links in my web pages, and unfriendly database URLs running hidden in the background. Except when I added a RewriteRule to add "www." to the front of URLs if the user didn't enter it - to ensure only one appears in search engines. Here's what now happening, and I can't figure out why! My friendly URL structure for content is like this, and the database query string uses the first "importantword": www.example.com/importantword-nonimportantword/ .htaccess snippet: Options +FollowSymLinks Options -Indexes RewriteEngine on RewriteOptions MaxRedirects=10 RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^/$ index.php [L] RewriteRule ^(.*)-(.*)/overview/$ detail.php?categoryID=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www.example.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.example.com/$1 [L] What's happening since I added the last 2 lines: CASE 1: user types (or clicks) www.example.com/honda-vehicle/overview/ - Works correctly - They are taken to the correct page and the browser URL bar says: www.example.com/honda-vehicles/overview/ CASE 2: user types example.com - Works correctly - They are taken to www.example.com and the browser URL bar says: www.example.com CASE 3: user types (or clicks) example.com/honda-vehicles/overview/ i.e. without the prefix "www" - Does NOT work correctly - They are taken to the right page, but the browser URL bar displays the unfriendly URL: www.example.com/detail.php?categoryID=honda I figure there's some issue with the order of the RewriteRules, but it's doing my head in trying to logically step through it and figure it out! Any assistance at all or pointers would be most appreciated!

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  • jQuery plugin for Event Driven Architecture?

    - by leeand00
    Are there any Event Driven Architecture jQuery plugins? Step 1: Subscribing The subscribers subscribe to the event handler in the middle, and pass in a callback method, as well as the name of the event they are listening for... i.e. The two green subscribers will be listening for p0 events. And the blue subscriber will be listening for p1 events. Step 2: The p0 event is fired by another component to the Event Handler A p0 event is fired to the Event Handler The event handler notifies it's subscribers of the event, calling the callback methods they specified when they subscribed in Step 1: Subscribing. Note that the blue subscriber is not notified because it was not listening for p0 events. Step 3: The p1 event is fired a component to the Event Handler The p1 event is fired by another component Just as before except that now the blue subscriber receives the event through its callback and the other two green subscribers do not receive the event. Images by leeand00, on Flickr I can't seem to find one, but my guess is that they just call it something else in Javascript/jquery Also is there a name for this pattern? Because it isn't just a basic publisher/subscriber, it has to be called something else I would think.

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  • How to programmatically start a WPF application from a unit test?

    - by Lernkurve
    Problem VS2010 and TFS2010 support creating so-called Coded UI Tests. All the demos I have found, start with the WPF application already running in the background when the Coded UI Test begins or the EXE is started using the absolute path to it. I, however, would like to start my WPF application under test from the unit test code. That way it'll also work on the build server and on my peer's working copies. How do I accomplish that? My discoveries so far a) This post shows how to start a XAML window. But that's not what I want. I want to start the App.xaml because it contains XAML resources and there is application logic in the code behind file. b) The second screenshot on this post shows a line starting with ApplicationUnterTest calculatorWindow = ApplicationUnderTest.Launch(...); which is conceptually pretty much what I am looking for, except that again this example uses an absolute path the the executable file. c) A Google search for "Programmatically start WPF" didn't help either.

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  • Using Windows and MMSystem in Delphi

    - by Jose Martinez
    Hi I am making a program to open and close the cd reader in which I have thought to write data to CD, the problem is the basis of the problem, which use "uses Windows 'and' uses MMSystem" but the problem is that when I use both at the same time being "uses Windows, MMSystem" gives an error and the program does not compile, I am using Delphi 2010, the strange thing is that when I use only one either Windows or MMSystem works fine and compiles. The error when I try to compile is: 'Could not find program' The code in question is this: mciSendString ('Set cdaudio door open wait', nil, 0, handle); I have two things to ask you first is how I avoid the error when using the two (Windows and MMSystem) and the other question was if he could open the CD player without using MMSystem, bone using Windows API, but not where to start The source : program Project1; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses SysUtils,Windows,MMSystem; procedure opencd; begin mciSendString('Set cdaudio door open wait', nil, 0, 0); end; begin try Writeln('test'); except on E: Exception do Writeln(E.ClassName, ': ', E.Message); end; end. Image :

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  • Frame Buster Buster ... buster code needed

    - by Jeff Atwood
    Let's say you don't want other sites to "frame" your site in an <iframe>: <iframe src="http://yourwebsite.com"></iframe> So you insert anti-framing, frame busting JavaScript into all your pages: /* break us out of any containing iframes */ if (top != self) { top.location.replace(self.location.href); } Excellent! Now you "bust" or break out of any containing iframe automatically. Except for one small problem. As it turns out, your frame-busting code can be busted, as shown here: <script type="text/javascript"> var prevent_bust = 0 window.onbeforeunload = function() { prevent_bust++ } setInterval(function() { if (prevent_bust > 0) { prevent_bust -= 2 window.top.location = 'http://server-which-responds-with-204.com' } }, 1) </script> This code does the following: increments a counter every time the browser attempts to navigate away from the current page, via the window.onbeforeonload event handler sets up a timer that fires every millisecond via setInterval(), and if it sees the counter incremented, changes the current location to a server of the attacker's control that server serves up a page with HTTP status code 204, which does not cause the browser to nagivate anywhere My question is -- and this is more of a JavaScript puzzle than an actual problem -- how can you defeat the frame-busting buster? I had a few thoughts, but nothing worked in my testing: attempting to clear the onbeforeunload event via onbeforeonload = null had no effect adding an alert() stopped the process let the user know it was happening, but did not interfere with the code in any way; clicking OK lets the busting continue as normal I can't think of any way to clear the setInterval() timer I'm not much of a JavaScript programmer, so here's my challenge to you: hey buster, can you bust the frame-busting buster?

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  • How can I validate the result in an ASP.NET MVC editor template?

    - by Morten Christiansen
    I have created an editor template for representing selecting from a dynamic dropdown list and it works as it should except for validation, which I have been unable to figure out. If the model has the [Required] attribute set, I want that to invalidate if the default option is selected. The view model object that must be represented as the dropdown list is Selector: public class Selector { public int SelectedId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Pair<int, string>> Choices { get; private set; } public string DefaultValue { get; set; } public Selector() { //For binding the object on Post } public Selector(IEnumerable<Pair<int, string>> choices, string defaultValue) { DefaultValue = defaultValue; Choices = choices; } } The editor template looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <select class="template-selector" id="<%= ViewData.ModelMetadata.PropertyName %>.SelectedId" name="<%= ViewData.ModelMetadata.PropertyName %>.SelectedId"> <% var model = ViewData.ModelMetadata.Model as QASW.Web.Mvc.Selector; if (model != null) { %> <option><%= model.DefaultValue %></option><% foreach (var choice in model.Choices) { %> <option value="<%= choice.Value1 %>"><%= choice.Value2 %></option><% } } %> </select> I sort of got it to work by calling it from the view like this (where Category is a Selector): <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(n => n.Category.SelectedId)%> But it shows the validation error for not supplying a proper number and it does not care if I set the Required attribute.

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  • Logging in worker threads spawned from a pylons application does not seem to work

    - by TimM
    I have a pylons application where, under certain cirumstances I want to spawn multiple worker threads to process items in a queue. Right now we aren't making use of a ThreadPool (would be ideal, but we'll add that in later). The main problem is that the worker threads logging does not get written to the log files. When I run the code outside of the pylons application the logging works fine. So I think its something to do with the pylons log handler but not sure what. Here is a basic example of the code (trimmed down): import logging log = logging.getLogger(__name__) import sys from Queue import Queue from threading import Thread, activeCount def run(input, worker, args = None, simulteneousWorkerLimit = None): queue = Queue() threads = [] if args is not None: if len(args) > 0: args = list(args) args = [worker, queue] + args args = tuple(args) else: args = (worker, queue) # start threads for i in range(4): t = Thread(target = __thread, args = args) t.daemon = True t.start() threads.append(t) # add ThreadTermSignal inputData = list(input) inputData.extend([ThreadTermSignal] * 4) # put in the queue for data in inputData: queue.put(data) # block until all contents are downloaded queue.join() log.critical("** A log line that appears fine **") del queue for thread in threads: del thread del threads class ThreadTermSignal(object): pass def __thread(worker, queue, *args): try: while True: data = queue.get() if data is ThreadTermSignal: sys.exit() try: log.critical("** I don't appear when run under pylons **") finally: queue.task_done() except SystemExit: queue.task_done() pass Take note, that the log lin within the RUN method will show up in the log files, but the log line within the worker method (which is run in a spawned thread), does not appear. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks ** EDIT: I should mention that I tried passing in the "log" variable to the worker thread as well as redefining a new "log" variable within the thread and neither worked. ** EDIT: Adding the configuration used for the pylons application (which comes out of the INI file). So the snippet below is from the INI file. [loggers] keys = root [handlers] keys = wsgierrors [formatters] keys = generic [logger_root] level = WARNING handlers = wsgierrors [handler_console] class = StreamHandler args = (sys.stderr,) level = WARNING formatter = generic [handler_wsgierrors] class = pylons.log.WSGIErrorsHandler args = () level = WARNING format = generic

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  • Webclient using download file to grab file from server - handling exceptions

    - by baron
    Hello everyone, I have a web service in which I am manipulating POST and GET methods to facilitate upload / download functionality for some files in a client/server style architecture. Basically the user is able to click a button to download a specific file, make some changes in the app, then click upload button to send it back. Problem I am having is with the download. Say the user expects 3 files 1.txt, 2.txt and 3.txt. Except 2.txt does not exist on the server. So I have code like (on server side): public class HttpHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest { if (context.Request.HttpMethod == "GET") { GoGetIt(context) } } private static void GoGetIt(HttpContext context) { var fileInfoOfWhereTheFileShouldBe = new FileInfo(......); if (!fileInfoOfWhereTheFileShouldBe.RefreshExists()) { throw new Exception("Oh dear the file doesn't exist"); } ... So the problem I have is that when I run the application, and I use a WebClient on client side to use DownloadFile method which then uses the code I have above, I get: WebException was unhandled: The remote server returned an error: (500) Internal Server Error. (While debugging) If I attach to the browser and use http://localhost:xxx/1.txt I can step through server side code and throw the exception as intended. So I guess I'm wondering how I can handle the internal server error on the client side properly so I can return something meaningful like "File doesn't exist". One thought was to use a try catch around the WebClient.DownloadFile(address, filename) method but i'm not sure thats the only error that will occur i.e. the file doesn't exist.

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  • How to attach an event to IHTMLDocument2 link elements in Delphi?

    - by Sebastian
    I'm using this code to get all the links from an IHTMLDocument2: procedure DoDocumentComplete(const pDisp: IDispatch; var URL: OleVariant); var Document:IHTMLDocument2; Body:IHTMLElement; Links:IHTMLElementCollection; i:integer; tmp:IHTMLElement; begin try Document := (pDisp as IWebbrowser2).Document AS IHTMLDocument2; Body := Document.body; Links := Document.links; for i := 0 to (Links.length-1) do begin tmp := (Links.item(i, 0) as IHTMLElement); //tmp.onclick := HOW SHOULD I ADD THE CALLBACK HERE? //ShowMessage(tmp.innerText); end; except on E : Exception do ShowMessage(E.ClassName+' error raised, with message : '+E.Message); end; end; How could I attach a function/procedure to .onclick to do a simple task like show an alert with the anchor text when the link is clicked?

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  • How to find if an Oracle APEX session is expired

    - by Mathieu Longtin
    I have created a single-sign-on system for our Oracle APEX applications, roughly based on this tutorial: http://www.oracle.com/technology/oramag/oracle/09-may/o39security.html The only difference is that my master SSO login is in Perl, rather than another APEX app. It sets an SSO cookie, and the app can check if it's valid with a database procedure. I have noticed that when I arrive in the morning, the whole system doesn't work. I reload a page from the APEX app, it then sends me to the SSO page because the session was expired, I logon, and get redirected back to my original APEX app page. This usually works except first thing in the morning. It seems the APEX session is expired. In that case it seems to find the session, but then refuse to use it, and sends me back to the login page. I've tried my best to trace the problem. The "wwv_flow_custom_auth_std.is_session_valid" function returns true, so I'm assuming the session is valid. But nothing works until I remove the APEX session cookie. Then I can log back in easily. Anybody knows if there is another call that would tell me if the session is expired or not? Thanks

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  • Relation between [[Prototype]] and prototype in JavaScript

    - by Claudiu
    From http://www.jibbering.com/faq/faq_notes/closures.html : Note: ECMAScript defines an internal [[prototype]] property of the internal Object type. This property is not directly accessible with scripts, but it is the chain of objects referred to with the internal [[prototype]] property that is used in property accessor resolution; the object's prototype chain. A public prototype property exists to allow the assignment, definition and manipulation of prototypes in association with the internal [[prototype]] property. The details of the relationship between to two are described in ECMA 262 (3rd edition) and are beyond the scope of this discussion. What are the details of the relationship between the two? I've browsed through ECMA 262 and all I've read there is stuff like: The constructor’s associated prototype can be referenced by the program expression constructor.prototype, Native ECMAScript objects have an internal property called [[Prototype]]. The value of this property is either null or an object and is used for implementing inheritance. Every built-in function and every built-in constructor has the Function prototype object, which is the initial value of the expression Function.prototype Every built-in prototype object has the Object prototype object, which is the initial value of the expression Object.prototype (15.3.2.1), as the value of its internal [[Prototype]] property, except the Object prototype object itself. From this all I gather is that the [[Prototype]] property is equivalent to the prototype property for pretty much any object. Am I mistaken?

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  • Any Other Ideas for prototyping..

    - by davehamptonusa
    I've used Douglass Crockford's Object.beget, but augmented it slightly to: Object.spawn = function (o, spec) { var F = function () {}, that = {}, node = {}; F.prototype = o; that = new F(); for (node in spec) { if (spec.hasOwnProperty(node)) { that[node] = spec[node]; } } return that; }; This way you can "beget" and augment in one fell swoop. var fop = Object.spawn(bar, { a: 'fast', b: 'prototyping' }); In English that means, "Make me a new object called 'fop' with 'bar' as its prototype, but change or add the members 'a' and 'b'. You can even nest it the spec to prototype deeper elements, should you choose. var fop = Object.spawn(bar, { a: 'fast', b: Object.spawn(quux,{ farple: 'deep' }), c: 'prototyping' }); This can help avoid hopping into an object's prototype unintentionally in a long object name like: foo.bar.quux.peanut = 'farple'; If quux is part of the prototype and not foo's own object, your change to 'peanut' will actually change the protoype, affecting all objects prototyped by foo's prototype object. But I digress... My question is this. Because your spec can itself be another object and that object could itself have properties from it's prototype in your new object - and you may want those properties...(at least you should be aware of them before you decided to use it as a spec)... I want to be able to grab all of the elements from all of the spec's prototype chain, except for the prototype object itself... This would flatten them into the new object. Should I use: Object.spawn = function (o, spec) { var F = function () {}, that = {}, node = {}; F.prototype = o; that = new F(); for (node in spec) { that[node] = spec[node]; } that.prototype = o; return that; }; I would love thoughts and suggestions...

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  • Maven WTP webapp with maven-eclipse-plugin but without m2eclipse

    - by chrsk
    I use the eclipse:eclipse goal to generate an Eclipse Project environment. The deployment works fine. The goal creates the var classpath entries for all needed dependencies. With m2eclipse there was the Maven Container which defines an export folder which was WEB-INF/lib for me. But i don't want to rely on m2eclipse so i don't want to use it anymore. the class path entries which are generated by eclipse:eclipse goal don't have such a export folder. While booting the servlet container with WTP it publishes all resources and classes except the libraries to the context. Whats missing to publish the needed libs, or isn't that possible without m2eclipse integration? IDE Configuration Eclipse 3.5 JEE Galileo Maven 2 m2eclipse The maven-eclipse-plugin configuration <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-eclipse-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.8</version> <configuration> <projectNameTemplate>opensaga-[artifactId]</projectNameTemplate> <useProjectReferences>false</useProjectReferences> <downloadSources>false</downloadSources> <downloadJavadocs>false</downloadJavadocs> <wtpmanifest>true</wtpmanifest> <wtpversion>2.0</wtpversion> <wtpapplicationxml>true</wtpapplicationxml> <wtpContextName>opensaga-[artifactId]</wtpContextName> <additionalProjectFacets> <jst.java>5.0</jst.java> <jst.web>2.3</jst.web> </additionalProjectFacets> </configuration> </plugin>

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  • Suggestions for displaying code on webpages, MUST use <br> for newline

    - by bguiz
    Hi, I want to post code snippets online (wordpress.com blog) - and have its whitespace formatted nicely. See the answers suggested by this other SO question: Those would be OK, except that I like to copy code to clip board or clip entire pages using Evernote - and they use either the <pre> tag or <table> (or both) to format the code. So I end up with text whose newlines and white spaces ignored, e.g. string url = "<a href=\"" + someObj.getUrl() + "\" target=\"_blank\">"; // single line comments // second single line override protected void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { if(Attributes["class"]&nbsp;!= null) { //_year.CssClass = _month.CssClass = _day.CssClass = Attributes["class"]; } base.OnLoad(e); } Which I find rather annoying myself. I find that if the code was formatted using <br> tags, they copy/ clip porperly, e.g. string url = "<a href=\"" + someObj.getUrl() + "\" target=\"_blank\">"; // single line comments // second single line override protected void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { if(Attributes["class"]&nbsp;!= null) { //_year.CssClass = _month.CssClass = _day.CssClass = Attributes["class"]; } base.OnLoad(e); } I find this annoying myself, so I don't want to inflict it upon others when I post my own code. Please suggest methods of posting code snippets online that are able to do this. I would like to emphasise that syntax highlighting capability is secondary to correct white space markup. Thank you

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  • Javascript/Greasemonkey: search for something then set result as a value

    - by thewinchester
    Ok, I'm a bit of a n00b when it comes to JS (I'm not the greatest programmer) so please be gentle - specially if my questions been asked already somewhere and I'm too stupid to find the right answer. Self deprecation out of the way, let's get to the question. Problem There is a site me and a large group of friends frequently use which doesn't display all the information we may like to know - in this case an airline bookings site and the class of travel. While the information is buried in the code of the page, it isn't displayed anywhere to the user. Using a Greasemonkey script, I'd like to liberate this piece of information and display it in a suitable format. Here's the psuedocode of what I'm looking to do. Search dom for specified element define variables Find a string of text If found Set result to a variable Write contents to page at a specific location (before a specified div) If not found Do nothing I think I've achieved most of it so far, except for the key bits of: Searching for the string: The page needs to search for the following piece of text in the page HEAD: mileageRequest += "&CLASSES=S,S-S,S-S"; The Content I need to extract and store is between the second equals (=) sign and the last comma ("). The contents of this area can be any letter between A-Z. I'm not fussed about splitting it up into an array so I could use the elements individually at this stage. Writing the result to a location: Taking that found piece of text and writing it to another location. Code so far This is what I've come up so far, with bits missing highlighted. buttons = document.getElementById('buttons'); ''Search goes here var flightClasses = document.createElement("div"); flightClasses.innerHTML = '<div id="flightClasses"> ' + '<h2>Travel classes</h2>' + 'For the above segments, your flight classes are as follows:' + 'write result here' + '</div>'; main.parentNode.insertBefore(flightClasses, buttons); If anyone could help me, or point me in the right direction to finish this off I'd appreciate it.

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  • Scaling gwt's "Contacts" (sample project) AppController with MVP

    - by brad
    I'm just learning GWT so I'm still trying to sort out all of its quirks and features. I'm reading through the example they give illustrating the MVP pattern, and I pretty much get it, except I'm wondering about one thing. The AppController they use implements the ValueChangeHandler interface and the onValueChange method is triggered when history changes. My problem is with this onValueChange in the AppController (i've included it below for anyone who hasn't seen the sample project). It's doing a string comparison on the history token sent in and instantiating the appropriate presenter to handle the action. This is all fine and dandy for the sample app with 3 actions, but how would one scale this to a real app with many more actions? Sticking to this pattern would lead to a pretty large/ugly else if, but I'm still too new to GWT (and java) to infer a better pattern for larger apps. Any help is greatly appreciated! public class AppController implements Presenter, ValueChangeHandler<String> { ... public void onValueChange(ValueChangeEvent<String> event) { String token = event.getValue(); if (token != null) { Presenter presenter = null; if (token.equals("list")) { presenter = new ContactsPresenter(rpcService, eventBus, new ContactsView()); } else if (token.equals("add")) { presenter = new EditContactPresenter(rpcService, eventBus, new EditContactView()); } else if (token.equals("edit")) { presenter = new EditContactPresenter(rpcService, eventBus, new EditContactView()); } if (presenter != null) { presenter.go(container); } } } }

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  • Using a custom MvcHttpHandler v2.0 Breaking change from 1.0 to 2.0 ?

    - by Myster
    Hi I have a site where part is webforms (Umbraco CMS) and part is MVC This is the HttpHandler to deal with the MVC functionality: public class Mvc : MvcHttpHandler { protected override void ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) { httpContext.Trace.Write("Mvc.ashx", "Begin ProcessRequest"); string originalPath = httpContext.Request.Path; string newPath = httpContext.Request.QueryString["mvcRoute"]; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(newPath)) newPath = "/"; httpContext.Trace.Write("Mvc.ashx", "newPath = "+newPath ); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(newPath, false); base.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } } Full details of how this is implemented here This method works well in an MVC 1.0 website. However when I upgrade this site to MVC 2.0 following the steps in Microsoft's upgrade documentation; everything compiles, except at runtime I get this exception: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /mvc.ashx Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 This resource and it's dependencies are found fine in MVC 1.0 but not in MVC 2.0, is there an extra dependency I'd need to add? Is there something I'm missing? Is there a change in the way MVC 2.0 works?

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  • Ninject woes... 404 error problems

    - by jbarker7
    We are using the beloved Ninject+Ninject.Web.Mvc with MVC 2 and are running into some problems. Specifically dealing with 404 errors. We have a logging service that logs 500 errors and records them. Everything is chugging along just perfectly except for when we attempt to enter a non-existent controller. Instead of getting the desired 404 we end up with a 500 error: Cannot be null Parameter name: service [ArgumentNullException: Cannot be null Parameter name: service] Ninject.ResolutionExtensions.GetResolutionIterator(IResolutionRoot root, Type service, Func`2 constraint, IEnumerable`1 parameters, Boolean isOptional) +188 Ninject.ResolutionExtensions.TryGet(IResolutionRoot root, Type service, IParameter[] parameters) +15 Ninject.Web.Mvc.NinjectControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +36 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +68 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +118 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +46 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +63 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, Object extraData) +13 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +8679426 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +155 I did some searching and found some similar issues, but those 404 issues seem to be unrelated. Any help here would be great. Thanks! Josh

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