Search Results

Search found 22481 results on 900 pages for 'andy may'.

Page 218/900 | < Previous Page | 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225  | Next Page >

  • Problem with GWT behind a reverse proxy - either nginx or apache

    - by Don Branson
    I'm having this problem with GWT when it's behind a reverse proxy. The backend app is deployed within a context - let's call it /context. The GWT app works fine when I hit it directly: http://host:8080/context/ I can configure a reverse proxy in front it it. Here's my nginx example: upstream backend { server 127.0.0.1:8080; } ... location / { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } But, when I run through the reverse proxy, GWT gets confused, saying: 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy 'C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy '0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. In other words, GWT isn't getting the word that it needs to prepend /context/ hen look for C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc, but only when the request comes throught proxy. A workaround is to add the context to the url for the web site: location /context/ { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } but that means the context is now part of the url that the user sees, and that's ugly. Anybody know how to make GWT happy in this case? Software versions: GWT - 1.7.0 (same problem with 1.7.1) Jetty - 6.1.21 (but the same problem existed under tomcat) nginx - 0.7.62 (same problem under apache 2.x) I've looked at the traffic between the proxy and the backend using DonsProxy, but there's nothing noteworthy there.

    Read the article

  • Converting non-delimited text into name/value pairs in Delphi

    - by robsoft
    I've got a text file that arrives at my application as many lines of the following form: <row amount="192.00" store="10" transaction_date="2009-10-22T12:08:49.640" comp_name="blah " comp_ref="C65551253E7A4589A54D7CCD468D8AFA" name="Accrington "/> and I'd like to turn this 'row' into a series of name/value pairs in a given TStringList (there could be dozens of these <row>s in the file, so eventually I will want to iterate through the file breaking each row into name/value pairs in turn). The problem I've got is that the data isn't obviously delimited (technically, I suppose it's space delimited). Now if it wasn't for the fact that some of the values contain leading or trailing spaces, I could probably make a few reasonable assumptions and code something to break a row up based on spaces. But as the values themselves may or may not contain spaces, I don't see an obvious way to do this. Delphi' TStringList.CommaText doesn't help, and I've tried playing around with Delimiter but I get caught-out by the spaces inside the values each time. Does anyone have a clever Delphi technique for turning the sample above into something resembling this? ; amount="192.00" store="10" transaction_date="2009-10-22T12:08:49.640" comp_name="blah " comp_ref="C65551253E7A4589A54D7CCD468D8AFA" name="Accrington " Unfortunately, as is usually the case with this kind of thing, I don't have any control over the format of the data to begin with - I can't go back and 'make' it comma delimited at source, for instance. Although I guess I could probably write some code to turn it into comma delimited - would rather find a nice way to work with what I have though. This would be in Delphi 2007, if it makes any difference.

    Read the article

  • "Work stealing" vs. "Work shrugging"?

    - by John
    Why is it that I can find lots of information on "work stealing" and nothing on "work shrugging" as a dynamic load-balancing strategy? By "work-shrugging" I mean busy processors pushing excessive work towards less loaded neighbours rather than idle processors pulling work from busy neighbours ("work-stealing"). I think the general scalability should be the same for both strategies. However I believe that it is much more efficient for busy processors to wake idle processors if and when there is definitely work for them to do than having idle processors spinning or waking periodically to speculatively poll all neighbours for possible work. Anyway a quick google didn't show up anything under the heading of "Work Shrugging" or similar so any pointers to prior-art and the jargon for this strategy would be welcome. Clarification/Confession In more detail:- By "Work Shrugging" I actually envisage the work submitting processor (which may or may not be the target processor) being responsible for looking around the immediate locality of the preferred target processor (based on data/code locality) to decide if a near neighbour should be given the new work instead because they don't have as much work to do. I am talking about an atomic read of the immediate (typically 2 to 4) neighbours' estimated q length here. I do not think this is any more coupling than implied by the thieves polling & stealing from their neighbours - just much less often - or rather - only when it makes economic sense to do so. (I am assuming "lock-free, almost wait-free" queue structures in both strategies). Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

    Read the article

  • Can't start the portable version of NetBeans 6.9.1 IDE

    - by Coder
    I downloaded the portable version of netbeans netbeans-6.9.1-201007282301-ml.zip from the netbeans site and changed the config file in etc/netbeans.conf as indicated on the netbeans site. The file contents are below. # ${HOME} will be replaced by JVM user.home system property #netbeans_default_userdir="${HOME}/.netbeans/6.9" netbeans_default_userdir=".netbeans/6.9" # Options used by NetBeans launcher by default, can be overridden by explicit # command line switches: netbeans_default_options="-J-client -J-Xss2m -J-Xms32m -J-XX:PermSize=32m -J-XX:MaxPermSize=200m -J-Dapple.laf.useScreenMenuBar=true -J-Dapple.awt.graphics.UseQuartz=true -J-Dsun.java2d.noddraw=true" # Note that a default -Xmx is selected for you automatically. # You can find this value in var/log/messages.log file in your userdir. # The automatically selected value can be overridden by specifying -J-Xmx here # or on the command line. # If you specify the heap size (-Xmx) explicitely, you may also want to enable # Concurrent Mark & Sweep garbage collector. In such case add the following # options to the netbeans_default_options: # -J-XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -J-XX:+CMSClassUnloadingEnabled -J-XX:+CMSPermGenSweepingEnabled # (see http://wiki.netbeans.org/wiki/view/FaqGCPauses) # Default location of JDK, can be overridden by using --jdkhome <dir>: #netbeans_jdkhome="/path/to/jdk" netbeans_jdkhome="C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_24\" # Additional module clusters, using ${path.separator} (';' on Windows or ':' on Unix): #netbeans_extraclusters="/absolute/path/to/cluster1:/absolute/path/to/cluster2" # If you have some problems with detect of proxy settings, you may want to enable # detect the proxy settings provided by JDK5 or higher. # In such case add -J-Djava.net.useSystemProxies=true to the netbeans_default_options. But it refuses to start when i try to run it. If i change the JDK path to something incorrect it complains that it can't find the jdk so i think the jdk path is correct. It also creates a .netbeans directory when i try to start it. I don't see any errors and it just doesn't do anything else observable. Does anybody know how to set up this version of netbeans? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

    - by David Easley
    Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

    - by Scott
    Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

    Read the article

  • Need some ignition for learning Embedded Systems

    - by Rahul
    I'm very much interested in building applications for Embedded Devices. I'm in my 3rd year Electrical Engineering and I'm passionate about coding, algorithms, Linux OS, etc. And also by Googling I found out that Linux OS is one of the best OSes for Embedded devices(may be/may not be). I want to work for companies which work on mobile applications. I'm a newbie/naive to this domain & my skills include C/C++ & MySQL. I need help to get started in the domain of Embedded Systems; like how/where to start off, Hardware prerequisites, necessary programming skills, also what kind of Embedded Applications etc. I've heard of ARM, firmware, PIC Micorcontrollers; but I don't know anything & just need proper introduction about them. Thanx. P.S: I'm currently reading Bjarne Struotsup's lecture in C++ at Texas A&M University, and one chapter in it describes about Embedded Systems Programming.

    Read the article

  • TFS Solution build cascading to several other builds even when common components were not modified

    - by Bob Palmer
    Hey all, here is the issue I am currently trying to work through. We are using Team Foundation Server 2008, and utilizing the automated build support out of the box. We have one very large project that encompasses a number of interrelated components and web sites, each of which is set up as a Visual Studio solution file. Many of these solutions are highly interrelated since they may contain applications, or contain common libraries or shared components. We have roughly 20 or so applications, three large web sites, and about 20 components. Each solution may include projects from other solutions. For example, a solution for a console app would also include the project files for all of the components it utilizes, since we need to ensure that when someone changes a component and rebuilds it, it is reflected in all of the projects that consume that component, and we can make sure nothing was broken. We have build projects for each solution, whether that's an application, component, or web site. For this example, we will call them solutions 01, 02, and 03. These reference multiple projects (both their own core project and test projects, plus the projects relating to various components). Solution 01 has projects A, B, and C. Solution 02 has projects C, D, and E. Solution 03 has projects E, F, and G. Now, for the problem. If I modify project A, the system will end up rebuilding all three solutions. Worse, all thirty solutions reference common projects used for data access (let's call it project H). Because they all share one project in common, if I modify any solution in my stack, even if it does not touch project H, I still end up kicking off every single build script. Any thoughts on how to address this? Ideally I would only want to kick off builds where their constituant projects were directly modified - i.e in the example below, if I modified project C, I would only rebuild solutions 01 and 02. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to handle "Remember me" in the Asp.Net Membership Provider

    - by RemotecUk
    Ive written a custom membership provider for my ASP.Net website. Im using the default Forms.Authentication redirect where you simply pass true to the method to tell it to "Remember me" for the current user. I presume that this function simply writes a cookie to the local machine containing some login credential of the user. What does ASP.Net put in this cookie? Is it possible if the format of my usernames was known (e.g. sequential numbering) someone could easily copy this cookie and by putting it on their own machine be able to access the site as another user? Additionally I need to be able to inercept the authentication of the user who has the cookie. Since the last time they logged in their account may have been cancelled, they may need to change their password etc so I need the option to intercept the authentication and if everything is still ok allow them to continue or to redirect them to the proper login page. I would be greatful for guidance on both of these two points. I gather for the second I can possibly put something in global.asax to intercept the authentication? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

    Read the article

  • .NET Remoting switching channels by itself.

    - by Casper
    Hi. We are having an odd problem with .NET Remoting. Basically, we have a server which registers two TcpChannels with ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(): one listens on port 50000, the other one listens on port 15000. We then have a client that registers a TcpChannel to be able to communicate with the server. We retrieve a an object from the server by calling Activator.GetObject() with the URI "tcp://serverip:50000/objectname" and this works fine, the client connects to the server on port 50000 and gets the object. However, when we start calling methods on that object, the connection to the channel on port 50000 is dropped, and a new connection is made to the channel on port 15000 automatically. This poses a real problem for us since we don't want traffic on port 15000 because that channel may not be bound to the same network adapter as the port 50000 channel on the server or that port may not be open in the firewall, which causes the remoting calls to fail naturally. This is very strange to us since the client has no knowledge in our code that there exists another channel on the server on port 15000 or what IP it listens on, yet it attempt to connect to it. Any help on this is greatly appreciated, /Casper c

    Read the article

  • Something is wrong with my C++ compilers [on hold]

    - by Karol Turbiarz
    WARNING!!! IT IS C++ but it uses domath ant rootBase LIBRARY, SOE I CAN MAKE SQARE ROOTS, AND OTHEr STUFF LIKE SIN, COS!!!!!! #include <iostream> #include <cstdio> #include <h.2> #include <time> #include <math> #include <domath> #include <rootBase> Then my code doesn't have any error (by the way I'm doing scientific calculator with squared root, line graphing, sin, cos, etc..) but then ... My debbuger finds problem here: if(math1 !== math2); MathCouldNotReadVoid2(); Which goes to void: void MathCouldNotReadVoid2(); { if(math1 ==! (math3 - math2)) { float decimalpoint(); using namespace std; using namespace fc; SquaredRoot(); float SquaredRootExponents(0.07839947388); float SquaredRootExponentFormForRootFormula((SquaredRootExponents *==)+ PiV); float SqRootFormulaStepOnePISHORTCUT(>=3.14'>DoMath<'<=7.2 * FgYt2 + 7.1107); } else main(); } That's the only one of my couple steps, for SquaredRoot, but it doesn't define the "=3.14'DoMath<'<=7.2*FgYt2+7.1107" step. I know some people may not know this type of "command" from the 'rootBase' library, but maybe some of you may know... Please help...Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Generate a set of strings with maximum edit distance

    - by Kevin Jacobs
    Problem 1: I'd like to generate a set of n strings of fixed length m from alphabet s such that the minimum Levenshtein distance (edit distance) between any two strings is greater than some constant c. Obviously, I can use randomization methods (e.g., a genetic algorithm), but was hoping that this may be a well-studied problem in computer science or mathematics with some informative literature and an efficient algorithm or three. Problem 2: Same as above except that adjacent characters cannot repeat; the i'th character in each string may not be equal to the i+1'th character. E.g., 'CAT', 'AGA' and 'TAG' are allowed, 'GAA', 'AAT', and 'AAA' are not. Background: The basis for this problem is bioinformatic and involves designing unique DNA tags that can be attached to biologically derived DNA fragments and then sequenced using a fancy second generation sequencer. The goal is to be able to recognize each tag, allowing for random insertion, deletion, and substitution errors. The specific DNA sequencing technology has a relatively low error rate per base (~1%), but is less precise when a single base is repeated 2 or more times (motivating the additional constraints imposed in problem 2).

    Read the article

  • Model login constraints based on time

    - by DaDaDom
    Good morning, for an existing web application I need to implement "time based login constraints". It means that for each user, later maybe each group, I can define timeslots when they are (not) allowed to log in into the system. As all data for the application is stored in database tables, I need to somehow create a way to model this idea in that way. My first approach, I will try to explain it here: Create a tree of login constraints (called "timeslots") with the main "categories", like "workday", "weekend", "public holiday", etc. on the top level, which are in a "sorted" order (meaning "public holiday" has a higher priority than "weekday") for each top level node create subnodes, which have a finer timespan, like "monday", "tuesday", ... below that, create an "hour" level: 0, 1, 2, ..., 23. No further details are necessary. set every member to "allowed" by default For every member of the system create a 1:n relationship member:timeslots which defines constraints, e.g. a member A may have A:monday-forbidden and A:tuesday-forbidden Do a depth-first search at every login and check if the member has a constraint. Why a depth first search? Well, I thought that it may be that a member has the rules: A:monday->forbidden, A:monday-10->allowed, A:mondey-11->allowed So a login on monday at 12:30 would fail, but one at 10:30 succeed. For performance reasons I could break the relational database paradigm and set a flag for every entry in the member-to-timeslots-table which is set to true if the member has information set for "finer" timeslots, but that's a second step. Is this model in principle a good idea? Are there existing models? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Sql Serve - Cascade delete has multiple paths

    - by Anders Juul
    Hi all, I have two tables, Results and ComparedResults. ComparedResults has two columns which reference the primary key of the Results table. My problem is that if a record in Results is deleted, I wish to delete all records in ComparedResults which reference the deleted record, regardless of whether it's one column or the other (and the columns may reference the same Results row). A row in Results may deleted directly or through cascade delete caused by deleting in a third table. Googling this could indicate that I need to disable cascade delete and rewrite all cascade deletes to use triggers instead. Is that REALLY nessesary? I'd be prepared to do much restructuring of the database to avoid this, as my main area is OO programming, and databases should 'just work'. It is hard to see, however, how a restructuring could help as I would just move the problem around... Or am I missing something? I am also a bit at a loss as to why my initial construct should even be a problem for the Sql Server?! Any comments welcome and much appreciated! Anders, Denmark

    Read the article

  • How to restrain one's self from the overwhelming urge to rewrite everything?

    - by Scott Saad
    Setup Have you ever had the experience of going into a piece of code to make a seemingly simple change and then realizing that you've just stepped into a wasteland that deserves some serious attention? This usually gets followed up with an official FREAK OUT moment, where the overwhelming feeling of rewriting everything in sight starts to creep up. It's important to note that this bad code does not necessarily come from others as it may indeed be something we've written or contributed to in the past. Problem It's obvious that there is some serious code rot, horrible architecture, etc. that needs to be dealt with. The real problem, as it relates to this question, is that it's not the right time to rewrite the code. There could be many reasons for this: Currently in the middle of a release cycle, therefore any changes should be minimal. It's 2:00 AM in the morning, and the brain is starting to shut down. It could have seemingly adverse affects on the schedule. The rabbit hole could go much deeper than our eyes are able to see at this time. etc... Question So how should we balance the duty of continuously improving the code, while also being a responsible developer? How do we refrain from contributing to the broken window theory, while also being aware of actions and the potential recklessness they may cause? Update Great answers! For the most part, there seems to be two schools of thought: Don't resist the urge as it's a good one to have. Don't give in to the temptation as it will burn you to the ground. It would be interesting to know if more people feel any balance exists.

    Read the article

  • How to access non-first matches with xpath in Selenium RC ?

    - by Gj
    I have 20 labels in my page: In [85]: sel.get_xpath_count("//label") Out[85]: u'20' And I can get the first one be default: In [86]: sel.get_text("xpath=//label") Out[86]: u'First label:' But, unlike the xpath docs I've found, I'm getting an error trying to subscript the xpath to get to the second label's text: In [87]: sel.get_text("xpath=//label[2]") ERROR: An unexpected error occurred while tokenizing input The following traceback may be corrupted or invalid The error message is: ('EOF in multi-line statement', (216, 0)) ERROR: An unexpected error occurred while tokenizing input The following traceback may be corrupted or invalid The error message is: ('EOF in multi-line statement', (1186, 0)) --------------------------------------------------------------------------- Exception Traceback (most recent call last) /Users/me/<ipython console> in <module>() /Users/me/selenium.pyc in get_text(self, locator) 1187 'locator' is an element locator 1188 """ -> 1189 return self.get_string("getText", [locator,]) 1190 1191 /Users/me/selenium.pyc in get_string(self, verb, args) 217 218 def get_string(self, verb, args): --> 219 result = self.do_command(verb, args) 220 return result[3:] 221 /Users/me/selenium.pyc in do_command(self, verb, args) 213 #print "Selenium Result: " + repr(data) + "\n\n" 214 if (not data.startswith('OK')): --> 215 raise Exception, data 216 return data 217 Exception: ERROR: Element xpath=//label[2] not found What gives?

    Read the article

  • Horizontally align rows in multiple tables using web user control

    - by goku_da_master
    I need to align rows in different tables that are layed out horizontally. I'd prefer to put the html code in a single web user control so I can create as many instances of that control as I want and lay them out horizontally. The problem is, the text in the rows needs to wrap. So some rows may expand vertically and some may not (see the example below). When that happens, the rows in the other tables aren't aligned horizontally. I know I can accomplish all this by using a single table, but that would mean I'd have to duplicate the name, address and phone html code instead of dynamically creating new instances of my user control (in reality there are many more fields than this, but I'm keeping it simple). Is there any way to do this whether with div's, tables or something else? Here's the problem: Mary Jane's address field expands 2 lines, causing her phone field to not align properly with John's and Bob's. Name: John Doe Name: Mary Jane Name: Bob Smith Address: 123 broadway Address: Some really long address Address: Short address Phone: 123-456 that takes up multiple lines Phone: 111-2222 Phone: 456-789 I'm not restricted in any way how to do this (other than using asp.net), but I'd prefer to use a single web control that I instantiate X times at design time (in this example, it's 3 times). I'm using VS2008, and .Net 3.5

    Read the article

  • Java problem: Could not find main class HelloWorld

    - by Newbie
    I am new to java(a real novice). I installed Java 1.7.0 in the following folder C:\Program Files\Java The environment variable which I set are CLASSPATH : C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.7.0\jre\lib\rt.jar; Path : C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.7.0\bin; JAVA_HOME : C:\Program Files\Java; I have presented here the class names which are in my system. Next I wrote a program(HelloWorld.java) import java.io.*; class HelloWorld { public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("Hello World!"); } } When I am compiling using javac HelloWorld.java it is compiling fine. But after I issue java HelloWorld I am encountering the below error Error: Could not find main class HelloWorld Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: HelloWorld at sun.launcher.LauncherHelper.checkAndLoadMain(LauncherHelper.java:198) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: HelloWorld at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:299) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:288) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:287) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:422) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:325) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:355) at sun.launcher.LauncherHelper.checkAndLoadMain(LauncherHelper.java:195) After a bit of google search I found that may be something wrong in the environment variable. I tried to play with that but no luck. I know that it may be a very simple thing for the real java developers(actually basic) but for me as of now no luck! I even RESTARTED the machine and then again I tried to run but with same fate. OS: Windows XP(Version 2002) with Service pack 3 Help needed . Thanks .

    Read the article

  • Best practice - When to evaluate conditionals of function execution

    - by Tesserex
    If I have a function called from a few places, and it requires some condition to be met for anything it does to execute, where should that condition be checked? In my case, it's for drawing - if the mouse button is held down, then execute the drawing logic (this is being done in the mouse movement handler for when you drag.) Option one says put it in the function so that it's guaranteed to be checked. Abstracted, if you will. public function Foo() { DoThing(); } private function DoThing() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } The problem I have with this is that when reading the code of Foo, which may be far away from DoThing, it looks like a bug. The first thought is that the condition isn't being checked. Option two, then, is to check before calling. public function Foo() { if (condition) DoThing(); } This reads better, but now you have to worry about checking from everywhere you call it. Option three is to rename the function to be more descriptive. public function Foo() { DoThingOnlyIfCondition(); } private function DoThingOnlyIfCondition() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } Is this the "correct" solution? Or is this going a bit too far? I feel like if everything were like this function names would start to duplicate their code. About this being subjective: of course it is, and there may not be a right answer, but I think it's still perfectly at home here. Getting advice from better programmers than I is the second best way to learn. Subjective questions are exactly the kind of thing Google can't answer.

    Read the article

  • Recursive list of lists in XSL

    - by Paul Tomblin
    I have a recursive nodes that I'm trying to set up for jquery-checktree. The nodes look like foo/bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED /bar/ID /NAME /bar/ID /NAME /bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED /bar/ID /NAME /CHECKED Where any bar may or may not have one or more bar nodes below it, but any bar will have ID and NAME and might have a CHECKED. and I want to turn that into <ul> <li><input type="checkbox" name="..." value="..." checked="checked"></input> <label for="...">...</label> <ul> <li><input type="checkbox" name="..." value="..." checked="checked"></input> <label for="...">...</label> </li> </ul> <li>....</li> </ul> I can get the first level by doing: <ul class="tree"> <xsl:for-each select="/foo/bar/"> <li><input type="checkbox" name="{ID}" value="{ID}"> <xsl:if test="CHECKED = 'Y'"><xsl:attribute name="checked">checked</xsl:attribute></xsl:if> </input><label for="{ID}"><xsl:value-of select="NAME"/></label> </li> </xsl:for-each> </ul> But I don't know how to recurse down to the embedded "bar" within the "bar", down to however many levels there might be.

    Read the article

  • FluentValidation + s#arp

    - by csetzkorn
    Hi, Did someone implement something like this: http://www.jeremyskinner.co.uk/2010/02/22/using-fluentvalidation-with-an-ioc-container/ in s#arp? Thanks. Christian PS: Hi, I have made a start in using FluentValidation in S#arp. I have implemented a Validator factory: public class ResolveType { private static IWindsorContainer _windsorContainer; public static void Initialize(IWindsorContainer windsorContainer) { _windsorContainer = windsorContainer; } public static object Of(Type type) { return _windsorContainer.Resolve(type); } } public class CastleWindsorValidatorFactory : ValidatorFactoryBase { public override IValidator CreateInstance(Type validatorType) { return ResolveType.Of(validatorType) as IValidator; } } I think I will use services which can be used by the controllers etc.: public class UserValidator : AbstractValidator { private readonly IUserRepository UserRepository; public UserValidator(IUserRepository UserRepository) { Check.Require(UserRepository != null, "UserRepository may not be null"); this.UserRepository = UserRepository; RuleFor(user => user.Email).NotEmpty(); RuleFor(user => user.FirstName).NotEmpty(); RuleFor(user => user.LastName).NotEmpty(); } } public interface IUserService { User CreateUser(User User); } public class UserService : IUserService { private readonly IUserRepository UserRepository; private readonly UserValidator UserValidator; public UserService ( IUserRepository UserRepository ) { Check.Require(UserRepository != null, "UserRepository may not be null"); this.UserRepository = UserRepository; this.UserValidator = new UserValidator(UserRepository); } public User CreateUser(User User) { UserValidator.Validate(User); ... } } Instead of putting concrete validators in the service, I would like to use the above factory somehow. Where do I register it and how in s#arp (Global.asax)? I believe s#arp is geared towards the nhibernator validator. How do I deregister it? Thanks. Best wishes, Christian

    Read the article

  • HTTP: can GET and POST requests from a same machine come from different IPs?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I'm pretty sure I remember reading --but cannot find back the links anymore-- about this: on some ISP (including at least one big ISP in the U.S.) it is possible to have a user's GET and POST request appearing to come from different IPs. (note that this is totally programming related, and I'll give an example below) I'm not talking about having your IP adress dynamically change between two requests. I'm talking about this: IP 1: 123.45.67.89 IP 2: 101.22.33.44 The same user makes a GET, then a POST, then a GET again, then a POST again and the servers see this: - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 So altough it's the same user, the webserver sees different IPs for the GET and the POSTs. Surely seen that HTTP is a stateless protocol this is perfectly legit right? I'd like to find back the explanation as to how/why certain ISP have their networks configured such that this may happen. I'm asking because someone asked me to implement the following IP filter and I'm pretty sure it is fundamentally broken code (breaking havoc for at least one major american ISP users). Here's a Java servlet filter that is supposed to protect against some attacks. The reasoning is that: "For any session filter checks that IP address in the request is the same that was used when session was created. So in this case session ID could not be stolen for forming fake sessions." http://www.servletsuite.com/servlets/protectsessionsflt.htm However I'm pretty sure this is inherently broken because there are ISPs where you may see GET and POST coming from different IPs. Any info on this subject is very welcome.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225  | Next Page >