Search Results

Search found 5770 results on 231 pages for 'sense hofstede'.

Page 218/231 | < Previous Page | 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225  | Next Page >

  • Beyond Cloud Technology, Enabling A More Agile and Responsive Organization

    - by sxkumar
    This is the second part of the blog “Clouds, Clouds Everywhere But not a Drop of Rain”. In the first part,  I was sharing with you how a broad-based transformation makes cloud more than a technology initiative, I will describe in this section how it requires people (organizational) and process changes as well, and these changes are as critical as is the choice of right tools and technology. People: Most IT organizations have a fairly complex organizational structure. There are different groups, managing different pieces of the puzzle, and yet, they don't always work together. Provisioning a new application therefore may require a request to float endlessly through system administrators, DBAs and middleware admin worlds – resulting in long delays and constant finger pointing.  Cloud users expect end-to-end automation - which requires these silos to be greatly simplified, if not completely eliminated.  Most customers I talk to acknowledge this problem but are quick to admit that such a transformation is hard. As hard as it may be, I am afraid that the status quo is no longer an option. Sticking to an organizational structure that was created ages back will not only impede cloud adoption,  it also risks making the IT skills increasingly irrelevant in a world that is rapidly moving towards converged applications and infrastructure.   Process: Most IT organizations today operate with a mindset that they must fully "control" access to any and all types of IT services. This in turn leads to people clinging on to outdated manual approval processes .  While requiring approvals for scarce resources makes sense, insisting that every single request must be manually approved defeats the very purpose of cloud. Not only this causes delays, thereby at least partially negating the agility benefits, it also results in gross inefficiency. In a cloud environment, self-service access should be governed by policies, quotas that the administrators can define upfront . For a cloud initiative to be successful, IT organizations MUST be ready to empower users by giving them real control rather than insisting on brokering every single interaction between users and the cloud resources. Technology: From a technology perspective, cloud is about consolidation, standardization and automation. A consolidated and standardized infrastructure helps increase utilization and reduces cost. Additionally, it  enables a much higher degree of automation - thereby providing users the required agility while minimizing operational costs.  Obviously, automation is the key to cloud. Unfortunately it hasn’t received as much attention within enterprises as it should have.  Many organizations are just now waking up to the criticality of automation and it still often gets relegated to back burner in favor of other "high priority" projects. However, it is important to understand that without the right type and level of automation, cloud will remain a distant dream for most enterprises. This in turn makes the choice of the cloud management software extremely critical.  For a cloud management software to be effective in an enterprise environment, it must meet the following qualifications: Broad and Deep Solution It should offer a broad and deep solution to enable the kind of broad-based transformation we are talking about.  Its footprint must cover physical and virtual systems, as well as infrastructure, database and application tiers. Too many enterprises choose to equate cloud with virtualization. While virtualization is a critical component of a cloud solution, it is just a component and not the whole solution. Similarly, too many people tend to equate cloud with Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). While it is perfectly reasonable to treat IaaS as a starting point, it is important to realize that it is just the first stepping stone - and on its own it can only provide limited business benefits. It is actually the higher level services, such as (application) platform and business applications, that will bring about a more meaningful transformation to your enterprise. Run and Manage Efficiently Your Mission Critical Applications It should not only be able to run your mission critical applications, it should do so better than before.  For enterprises, applications and data are the critical business assets  As such, if you are building a cloud platform that cannot run your ERP application, it isn't truly a "enterprise cloud".  Also, be wary of  vendors who try to sell you the idea that your applications must be written in a certain way to be able to run on the cloud. That is nothing but a bogus, self-serving argument. For the cloud to be meaningful to enterprises, it should adopt to your applications - and not the other way around.  Automated, Integrated Set of Cloud Management Capabilities At the root of many of the problems plaguing enterprise IT today is complexity. A complex maze of tools and technology, coupled with archaic  processes, results in an environment which is inflexible, inefficient and simply too hard to manage. Management tool consolidation, therefore, is key to the success of your cloud as tool proliferation adds to complexity, encourages compartmentalization and defeats the very purpose that you are building the cloud for. Decision makers ought to be extra cautious about vendors trying to sell them a "suite" of disparate and loosely integrated products as a cloud solution.  An effective enterprise cloud management solution needs to provide a tightly integrated set of capabilities for all aspects of cloud lifecycle management. A simple question to ask: will your environment be more or less complex after you implement your cloud? More often than not, the answer will surprise you.  At Oracle, we have understood these challenges and have been working hard to create cloud solutions that are relevant and meaningful for enterprises.  And we have been doing it for much longer than you may think. Oracle was one of the very first enterprise software companies to make our products available on the Amazon Cloud. As far back as in 2007, we created new cloud solutions such as Cloud Database Backup that are helping customers like Amazon save millions every year.  Our cloud solution portfolio is also the broadest and most deep in the industry  - covering public, private, hybrid, Infrastructure, platform and applications clouds. It is no coincidence therefore that the Oracle Cloud today offers the most comprehensive set of public cloud services in the industry.  And to a large part, this has been made possible thanks to our years on investment in creating cloud enabling technologies. I will dedicated the third and final part of the blog “Clouds, Clouds Everywhere But not a Drop of Rain” to Oracle Cloud Technologies Building Blocks and how they mapped into our vision of Enterprise Cloud. Stay Tuned.

    Read the article

  • Using Unity – Part 5

    - by nmarun
    In the previous article of the series, I talked about constructor and property (setter) injection. I wanted to write about how to work with arrays and generics in Unity in this blog, after seeing how lengthy this one got, I’ve decided to write about generics in the next one. This one will only concentrate on arrays. My Product4 class has the following definition: 1: public interface IProduct 2: { 3: string WriteProductDetails(); 4: } 5:  6: public class Product4 : IProduct 7: { 8: public string Name { get; set; } 9: public ILogger[] Loggers { get; set; } 10:  11: public Product4(string productName, ILogger[] loggers) 12: { 13: Name = productName; 14: Loggers = loggers; 15: } 16:  17: public string WriteProductDetails() 18: { 19: StringBuilder productDetails = new StringBuilder(); 20: productDetails.AppendFormat("{0}<br/>", Name); 21: for (int i = 0; i < Loggers.Count(); i++) 22: { 23: productDetails.AppendFormat("{0}<br/>", Loggers[i].WriteLog()); 24: } 25: 26: return productDetails.ToString(); 27: } 28: } The key parts are line 4 where we declare an array of ILogger and line 5 where-in the constructor passes an instance of an array of ILogger objects. I’ve created another class – FakeLogger: 1: public class FakeLogger : ILogger 2: { 3: public string WriteLog() 4: { 5: return string.Format("Type: {0}", GetType()); 6: } 7: } It’s implementation is the same as what we had for the FileLogger class. Coming to the web.config file, first add the following aliases. The alias for FakeLogger should make sense right away. ILoggerArray defines an array of ILogger objects. I’ll tell why we need an alias for System.String data type. 1: <typeAlias alias="string" type="System.String, mscorlib" /> 2: <typeAlias alias="ILoggerArray" type="ProductModel.ILogger[], ProductModel" /> 3: <typeAlias alias="FakeLogger" type="ProductModel.FakeLogger, ProductModel"/> Next is to create mappings for the FileLogger and FakeLogger classes: 1: <type type="ILogger" mapTo="FileLogger" name="logger1"> 2: <lifetime type="singleton" /> 3: </type> 4: <type type="ILogger" mapTo="FakeLogger" name="logger2"> 5: <lifetime type="singleton" /> 6: </type> Finally, for the real deal: 1: <type type="IProduct" mapTo="Product4" name="ArrayProduct"> 2: <typeConfig extensionType="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration.TypeInjectionElement,Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration, Version=1.2.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35"> 3: <constructor> 4: <param name="productName" parameterType="string" > 5: <value value="Product name from config file" type="string"/> 6: </param> 7: <param name="loggers" parameterType="ILoggerArray"> 8: <array> 9: <dependency name="logger2" /> 10: <dependency name="logger1" /> 11: </array> 12: </param> 13: </constructor> 14: </typeConfig> 15: </type> Here’s where I’m saying, that if a type of IProduct is requested to be resolved, map it to type Product4. Furthermore, the Product4 has two constructor parameters – a string and an array of type ILogger. You might have observed the first parameter of the constructor is named ‘productName’ and that matches the value in the name attribute of the param element. The parameterType of ‘string’ maps to ‘System.String, mscorlib’ and is defined in the type alias above. The set up is similar for the second constructor parameter. The name matches the name of the parameter (loggers) and is of type ILoggerArray, which maps to an array of ILogger objects. We’ve also decided to add two elements to this array when unity resolves it – an instance of FileLogger and one of FakeLogger. The click event of the button does the following: 1: //unityContainer.RegisterType<IProduct, Product4>(); 2: //IProduct product4 = unityContainer.Resolve<IProduct>(); 3: IProduct product4 = unityContainer.Resolve<IProduct>("ArrayConstructor"); 4: productDetailsLabel.Text = product4.WriteProductDetails(); It’s worth mentioning here about the change in the format of resolving the IProduct to create an instance of Product4. You cannot use the regular way (the commented lines) to get an instance of Product4. The reason is due to the behavior of Unity which Alex Ermakov has brilliantly explained here. The corresponding output of the action is: You have a couple of options when it comes to adding dependency elements in the array node. You can: - leave it empty (no dependency elements declared): This will only create an empty array of loggers. This way you can check for non-null condition, in your mock classes. - add multiple dependency elements with the same name 1: <param name="loggers" parameterType="ILoggerArray"> 2: <array> 3: <dependency name="logger2" /> 4: <dependency name="logger2" /> 5: </array> 6: </param> With this you’ll see two instances of FakeLogger in the output. This article shows how Unity allows you to instantiate objects with arrays. Find the code here.

    Read the article

  • MVC2 and MVC Futures causing RedirectToAction issues

    - by Darragh
    I've been trying to get the strongly typed version of RedirectToAction from the MVC Futures project to work, but I've been getting no where. Below are the steps I've followed, and the errors I've encountered. Any help is much appreciated. I created a new MVC2 app and changed the About action on the HomeController to redirect to the Index page. Return RedirectToAction("Index") However, I wanted to use the strongly typed extensions, so I downloaded the MVC Futures from CodePlex and added a reference to Microsoft.Web.Mvc to my project. I addded the following "import" statement to the top of HomeContoller.vb Imports Microsoft.Web.Mvc I commented out the above RedirectToAction and added the following line: Return RedirectToAction(Of HomeController)(Function(c) c.Index()) So far, so good. However, I noticed if I uncomment out the first (non Generic) RedirectToAction, it was now causing the following compile error: Error 1 Overload resolution failed because no accessible 'RedirectToAction' can be called with these arguments: Extension method 'Public Function RedirectToAction(Of TController)(action As System.Linq.Expressions.Expression(Of System.Action(Of TController))) As System.Web.Mvc.RedirectToRouteResult' defined in 'Microsoft.Web.Mvc.ControllerExtensions': Data type(s) of the type parameter(s) cannot be inferred from these arguments. Specifying the data type(s) explicitly might correct this error. Extension method 'Public Function RedirectToAction(action As System.Linq.Expressions.Expression(Of System.Action(Of HomeController))) As System.Web.Mvc.RedirectToRouteResult' defined in 'Microsoft.Web.Mvc.ControllerExtensions': Value of type 'String' cannot be converted to 'System.Linq.Expressions.Expression(Of System.Action(Of mvc2test1.HomeController))'. Even though intelli-sense was showing 8 overloads (the original 6 non-generic overloads, plus the 2 new generic overloads from the Futures assembly), it seems when trying to complie the code, the compiler would only 'find' the 2 non-gneneric extension methods from the Futures assessmbly. I thought this might be an issue that I was using conflicting versions of the MVC2 assembly, and the futures assembly, so I added MvcDiaganotics.aspx from the Futures download to my project and everytyhing looked correct: ASP.NET MVC Assembly Information (System.Web.Mvc.dll) Assembly version: ASP.NET MVC 2 RTM (2.0.50217.0) Full name: System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 Code base: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Web.Mvc/2.0.0.0__31bf3856ad364e35/System.Web.Mvc.dll Deployment: GAC-deployed ASP.NET MVC Futures Assembly Information (Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll) Assembly version: ASP.NET MVC 2 RTM Futures (2.0.50217.0) Full name: Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null Code base: file:///xxxx/bin/Microsoft.Web.Mvc.DLL Deployment: bin-deployed This is driving me crazy! Becuase I thought this might be some VB issue, I created a new MVC2 project using C# and tried the same as above. I added the following "using" statement to the top of HomeController.cs using Microsoft.Web.Mvc; This time, in the About action method, I could only manage to call the non-generic RedirectToAction by typing the full commmand as follows: return Microsoft.Web.Mvc.ControllerExtensions.RedirectToAction<HomeController>(this, c => c.Index()); Even though I had a "using" statement at the top of the class, if I tried to call the non-generic RedirectToAction as follows: return RedirectToAction<HomeController>(c => c.Index()); I would get the following compile error: Error 1 The non-generic method 'System.Web.Mvc.Controller.RedirectToAction(string)' cannot be used with type arguments What gives? It's not like I'm trying to do anything out of the ordinary. It's a simple vanilla MVC2 project with only a reference to the Futures assembly. I'm hoping that I've missed out something obvious, but I've been scratching my head for too long, so I figured I'd seek some assisstance. If anyone's managed to get this simple scenario working (in VB and/or C#) could they please let me know what, if anything, they did differently? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Installshield Development Error durring the Installation process

    - by Alopekos
    Hey guys, I've been stuck by a problem for the past couple days that makes no sense to me. My installer builds fine in the Installshiled IDE but when it is about to finish the installation, int gets two errors then rollbacks: installation failure. Right when the install bar is at about 100%, an error box pops up that states this: "Error 1001.Exception occurred while initializing the installation: System.IO.FileLoadException: Attempt to load an unverifiable executable with fixups (IAT with more than 2 sections or a TLS section.) (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131019)." The box pops up once, then the installer flashes its status to "rollback" then pops up another error box, then once 'ok'ed it procedes to rollback as usual. I don't understand that error message so i looked in the msi loggings and found this: "InstallShield 13:20:08: Initializing Property Bag... InstallShield 13:20:08: Getting file count from property bag InstallShield 13:20:08: File Count : 7 InstallShield 13:20:08: Sorting Based On Order... InstallShield 13:20:08: This setup is running on a 32-bit Windows...No need to load ISBEW64.exe InstallShield 13:20:08: Registering file C:\Program Files\Cadwell\Easy III\QMWSChartDataServer.dll (32-bit) InstallShield 13:20:09: Registering file C:\Program Files\Cadwell\Easy III\DataDelivery.dll (32-bit) InstallShield 13:20:09: Registering file C:\Program Files\Cadwell\Easy III\QMGlobalData.dll (32-bit) InstallShield 13:20:09: Registering file C:\Program Files\Cadwell\Easy III\QMAdoDB.dll (32-bit) InstallShield 13:20:09: Registering file C:\Program Files\Cadwell\Easy III\QMPatientData.dll (32-bit) InstallShield 13:20:09: Registering file C:\Program Files\Cadwell\Easy III\MedShareGlobalData.dll (32-bit) InstallShield 13:20:09: Registering file C:\Program Files\Cadwell\Easy III\MedDirectory.dll (32-bit) InstallShield 13:20:09: Begin Comitting Property Bag InstallShield 13:20:09: Write KeyList count InstallShield 13:20:09: Finished Comitting Property Bag Action 13:20:09: _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.commit. Action 13:20:09: _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.rollback. Action 13:20:09: _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.install. Error 1001.Exception occurred while initializing the installation: System.IO.FileLoadException: Attempt to load an unverifiable executable with fixups (IAT with more than 2 sections or a TLS section.) (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131019). MSI (s) (34!84) [13:20:26:455]: Info 2769.Custom Action _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.install did not close 1 MSIHANDLEs. Action ended 13:20:26: InstallFinalize. Return value 3. Action 13:20:26: Rollback. Rolling back action: Rollback: _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.install Rollback: _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.rollback Error 1001.Exception occurred while initializing the installation: System.IO.FileLoadException: Attempt to load an unverifiable executable with fixups (IAT with more than 2 sections or a TLS section.) (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131019). MSI (s) (34!E8) [13:20:27:036]: Info 2769.Custom Action _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.rollback did not close 1 MSIHANDLEs. Rollback: _EBDE7916DF6AF3B644016C54F66930DC.commit Rollback: ISSelfRegisterFiles Rollback: Registering modules Rollback: Registering type libraries Rollback: Writing system registry values Rollback: Registering program identifiers" All rollbacking commands after this point. For some reason it looks like to me that installshield is trying to launch my program before it finishes the installation, even when I told it to prompt the user to decide to launch. Is this a registering command system that makes it attemp or what? I've been scouring the web all day and I've found some ideas, but I havent seen any solutions as of yet. The installers that I've tried(and failed) have always needed to be Setup.exes, when i try to build a .msi only setup I get this error message. It may help someone who knows more about this system than I do. Your project contains InstallShield prerequisites. A Setup.exe setup launcher is required if you are build a release that includes InstallShield prerequisites. Change your release settings to build Setup.exe, or remove the prerequisites from your project. -7076 There's nothing on the site that has anything from the error code, so I'm at a loss. Thanks for any help possible, I'm an intern and I'm fresh out of ideas... Josh System: XP SP3 Installshield 2010 Pro Install being tested on a VirtualPC

    Read the article

  • "Content is not allowed in prolog" when parsing perfectly valid XML on GAE

    - by Adrian Petrescu
    Hey guys, I've been beating my head against this absolutely infuriating bug for the last 48 hours, so I thought I'd finally throw in the towel and try asking here before I throw my laptop out the window. I'm trying to parse the response XML from a call I made to AWS SimpleDB. The response is coming back on the wire just fine; for example, it may look like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ListDomainsResponse xmlns="http://sdb.amazonaws.com/doc/2009-04-15/"> <ListDomainsResult> <DomainName>Audio</DomainName> <DomainName>Course</DomainName> <DomainName>DocumentContents</DomainName> <DomainName>LectureSet</DomainName> <DomainName>MetaData</DomainName> <DomainName>Professors</DomainName> <DomainName>Tag</DomainName> </ListDomainsResult> <ResponseMetadata> <RequestId>42330b4a-e134-6aec-e62a-5869ac2b4575</RequestId> <BoxUsage>0.0000071759</BoxUsage> </ResponseMetadata> </ListDomainsResponse> I pass in this XML to a parser with XMLEventReader eventReader = xmlInputFactory.createXMLEventReader(response.getContent()); and call eventReader.nextEvent(); a bunch of times to get the data I want. Here's the bizarre part -- it works great inside the local server. The response comes in, I parse it, everyone's happy. The problem is that when I deploy the code to Google App Engine, the outgoing request still works, and the response XML seems 100% identical and correct to me, but the response fails to parse with the following exception: com.amazonaws.http.HttpClient handleResponse: Unable to unmarshall response (ParseError at [row,col]:[1,1] Message: Content is not allowed in prolog.): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ListDomainsResponse xmlns="http://sdb.amazonaws.com/doc/2009-04-15/"><ListDomainsResult><DomainName>Audio</DomainName><DomainName>Course</DomainName><DomainName>DocumentContents</DomainName><DomainName>LectureSet</DomainName><DomainName>MetaData</DomainName><DomainName>Professors</DomainName><DomainName>Tag</DomainName></ListDomainsResult><ResponseMetadata><RequestId>42330b4a-e134-6aec-e62a-5869ac2b4575</RequestId><BoxUsage>0.0000071759</BoxUsage></ResponseMetadata></ListDomainsResponse> javax.xml.stream.XMLStreamException: ParseError at [row,col]:[1,1] Message: Content is not allowed in prolog. at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLStreamReaderImpl.next(Unknown Source) at com.sun.xml.internal.stream.XMLEventReaderImpl.nextEvent(Unknown Source) at com.amazonaws.transform.StaxUnmarshallerContext.nextEvent(StaxUnmarshallerContext.java:153) ... (rest of lines omitted) I have double, triple, quadruple checked this XML for 'invisible characters' or non-UTF8 encoded characters, etc. I looked at it byte-by-byte in an array for byte-order-marks or something of that nature. Nothing; it passes every validation test I could throw at it. Even stranger, it happens if I use a Saxon-based parser as well -- but ONLY on GAE, it always works fine in my local environment. It makes it very hard to trace the code for problems when I can only run the debugger on an environment that works perfectly (I haven't found any good way to remotely debug on GAE). Nevertheless, using the primitive means I have, I've tried a million approaches including: XML with and without the prolog With and without newlines With and without the "encoding=" attribute in the prolog Both newline styles With and without the chunking information present in the HTTP stream And I've tried most of these in multiple combinations where it made sense they would interact -- nothing! I'm at my wit's end. Has anyone seen an issue like this before that can hopefully shed some light on it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Grails - Simple hasMany Problem - Using CheckBoxes rather than HTML Select in create.gsp

    - by gav
    My problem is this: I want to create a grails domain instance, defining the 'Many' instances of another domain that it has. I have the actual source in a Google Code Project but the following should illustrate the problem. class Person { String name static hasMany[skills:Skill] static constraints = { id (visible:false) skills (nullable:false, blank:false) } } class Skill { String name String description static constraints = { id (visible:false) name (nullable:false, blank:false) description (nullable:false, blank:false) } } If you use this model and def scaffold for the two Controllers then you end up with a form like this that doesn't work; My own attempt to get this to work enumerates the Skills as checkboxes and looks like this; But when I save the Volunteer the skills are null! This is the code for my save method; def save = { log.info "Saving: " + params.toString() def skills = params.skills log.info "Skills: " + skills def volunteerInstance = new Volunteer(params) log.info volunteerInstance if (volunteerInstance.save(flush: true)) { flash.message = "${message(code: 'default.created.message', args: [message(code: 'volunteer.label', default: 'Volunteer'), volunteerInstance.id])}" redirect(action: "show", id: volunteerInstance.id) log.info volunteerInstance } else { render(view: "create", model: [volunteerInstance: volunteerInstance]) } } This is my log output (I have custom toString() methods); 2010-05-10 21:06:41,494 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Saving: ["skills":["1", "2"], "name":"Ian", "_skills":["", ""], "create":"Create", "action":"save", "controller":"volunteer"] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,495 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Skills: [1, 2] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,508 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Volunteer[ id: null | Name: Ian | Skills [Skill[ id: 1 | Name: Carpenter ] , Skill[ id: 2 | Name: Sound Engineer ] ]] Note that in the final log line the right Skills have been picked up and are part of the object instance. When the volunteer is saved the 'Skills' are ignored and not commited to the database despite the in memory version created clearly does have the items. Is it not possible to pass the Skills at construction time? There must be a way round this? I need a single form to allow a person to register but I want to normalise the data so that I can add more skills at a later time. If you think this should 'just work' then a link to a working example would be great. If I use the HTML Select then it works fine! Such as the following to make the Create page; <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name"> <label for="skills"><g:message code="volunteer.skills.label" default="Skills" /></label> </td> <td valign="top" class="value ${hasErrors(bean: volunteerInstance, field: 'skills', 'errors')}"> <g:select name="skills" from="${uk.co.bumbumtrain.Skill.list()}" multiple="yes" optionKey="id" size="5" value="${volunteerInstance?.skills}" /> </td> </tr> But I need it to work with checkboxes like this; <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name"> <label for="skills"><g:message code="volunteer.skills.label" default="Skills" /></label> </td> <td valign="top" class="value ${hasErrors(bean: volunteerInstance, field: 'skills', 'errors')}"> <g:each in="${skillInstanceList}" status="i" var="skillInstance"> <label for="${skillInstance?.name}"><g:message code="${skillInstance?.name}.label" default="${skillInstance?.name}" /></label> <g:checkBox name="skills" value="${skillInstance?.id.toString()}"/> </g:each> </td> </tr> The log output is exactly the same! With both style of form the Volunteer instance is created with the Skills correctly referenced in the 'Skills' variable. When saving, the latter fails with a null reference exception as shown at the top of this question. Hope this makes sense, thanks in advance! Gav

    Read the article

  • Android JSON HttpClient to send data to PHP server with HttpResponse

    - by Scoobler
    I am currently trying to send some data from and Android application to a php server (both are controlled by me). There is alot of data collected on a form in the app, this is written to the database. This all works. In my main code, firstly I create a JSONObject (I have cut it down here for this example): JSONObject j = new JSONObject(); j.put("engineer", "me"); j.put("date", "today"); j.put("fuel", "full"); j.put("car", "mine"); j.put("distance", "miles"); Next I pass the object over for sending, and receive the response: String url = "http://www.server.com/thisfile.php"; HttpResponse re = HTTPPoster.doPost(url, j); String temp = EntityUtils.toString(re.getEntity()); if (temp.compareTo("SUCCESS")==0) { Toast.makeText(this, "Sending complete!", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } The HTTPPoster class: public static HttpResponse doPost(String url, JSONObject c) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost request = new HttpPost(url); HttpEntity entity; StringEntity s = new StringEntity(c.toString()); s.setContentEncoding(new BasicHeader(HTTP.CONTENT_TYPE, "application/json")); entity = s; request.setEntity(entity); HttpResponse response; response = httpclient.execute(request); return response; } This gets a response, but the server is returning a 403 - Forbidden response. I have tried changing the doPost function a little (this is actually a little better, as I said I have alot to send, basically 3 of the same form with different data - so I create 3 JSONObjects, one for each form entry - the entries come from the DB instead of the static example I am using). Firstly I changed the call over a bit: String url = "http://www.orsas.com/ServiceMatalan.php"; Map<String, String> kvPairs = new HashMap<String, String>(); kvPairs.put("vehicle", j.toString()); // Normally I would pass two more JSONObjects..... HttpResponse re = HTTPPoster.doPost(url, kvPairs); String temp = EntityUtils.toString(re.getEntity()); if (temp.compareTo("SUCCESS")==0) { Toast.makeText(this, "Sending complete!", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } Ok so the changes to the doPost function: public static HttpResponse doPost(String url, Map<String, String> kvPairs) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost(url); if (kvPairs != null && kvPairs.isEmpty() == false) { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(kvPairs.size()); String k, v; Iterator<String> itKeys = kvPairs.keySet().iterator(); while (itKeys.hasNext()) { k = itKeys.next(); v = kvPairs.get(k); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair(k, v)); } httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); } HttpResponse response; response = httpclient.execute(httppost); return response; } Ok So this returns a response 200 int statusCode = re.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); However the data received on the server cannot be parsed to a JSON string. It is badly formatted I think (this is the first time I have used JSON): If in the php file I do an echo on $_POST['vehicle'] I get the following: {\"date\":\"today\",\"engineer\":\"me\"} Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong, or if there is a better way to achieve what I am trying to do? Hopefully the above makes sense!

    Read the article

  • iPhone - archiving array of custom objects

    - by Dylan
    I've been trying for hours and I cannot solve this problem. I'm making an app that saves unfinished Chess Games, so I'm trying to write an array to a file. This is what the array is, if it makes sense: -NSMutableArray savedGames --GameSave a ---NSMutableArray board; ----Piece a, b, c, etc. -----some ints ---NSString whitePlayer, blackPlayer; ---int playerOnTop, turn; --GameSave b ---NSMutableArray board; ----Piece a, b, c, etc. -----some ints ---NSString whitePlayer, blackPlayer; ---int playerOnTop, turn; etc. And these are my NSCoding methods: GameSave.m - (void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { [coder encodeObject:whitePlayer forKey:@"whitePlayer"]; [coder encodeObject:blackPlayer forKey:@"blackPlayer"]; [coder encodeInt:playerOnTop forKey:@"playerOnTop"]; [coder encodeInt:turn forKey:@"turn"]; [coder encodeObject:board forKey:@"board"]; } - (id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { self = [[GameSave alloc] init]; if (self != nil) { board = [coder decodeObjectForKey:@"board"]; whitePlayer = [coder decodeObjectForKey:@"whitePlayer"]; blackPlayer = [coder decodeObjectForKey:@"blackPlayer"]; playerOnTop = [coder decodeIntForKey:@"playerOnTop"]; turn = [coder decodeIntForKey:@"turn"]; } return self; } Piece.m - (void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { [coder encodeInt:color forKey:@"color"]; [coder encodeInt:piece forKey:@"piece"]; [coder encodeInt:row forKey:@"row"]; [coder encodeInt:column forKey:@"column"]; } - (id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { self = [[Piece alloc] init]; if (self != nil) { color = [coder decodeIntForKey:@"color"]; piece = [coder decodeIntForKey:@"piece"]; row = [coder decodeIntForKey:@"row"]; column = [coder decodeIntForKey:@"column"]; } return self; } And this is the code that tries to archive and save to file: - (void)saveGame { ChessSaverAppDelegate *delegate = (ChessSaverAppDelegate *) [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[delegate gameSave] setBoard:board]; NSMutableArray *savedGames = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:[self dataFilePath]]; if (savedGames == nil) { [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:[delegate gameSave] toFile:[self dataFilePath]]; } else { [savedGames addObject:[delegate gameSave]]; [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:savedGames toFile:[self dataFilePath]]; } } - (NSString *)dataFilePath { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"gameSaves.plist"]; } Sorry, here's the problem: After setting some breakpoints, an error is reached after this line from -saveGame: [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:savedGames toFile:[self dataFilePath]]; And this is what shows up in the console: 2010-05-11 17:04:08.852 ChessSaver[62065:207] *** -[NSCFType encodeWithCoder:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3d3cd30 2010-05-11 17:04:08.891 ChessSaver[62065:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFType encodeWithCoder:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3d3cd30' 2010-05-11 17:04:08.908 ChessSaver[62065:207] Stack: ( 32339035, 31077641, 32720955, 32290422, 32143042, 238843, 25827, 238843, 564412, 342037, 238843, 606848, 17686, 2733061, 4646817, 2733061, 3140430, 3149167, 3144379, 2837983, 2746312, 2773089, 41684313, 32123776, 32119880, 41678357, 41678554, 2777007, 9884, 9738 ) If it matters, -saveGame is called from a UIBarButton in a navigation controller. Any help is appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Best practices for using the Entity Framework with WPF DataBinding

    - by Ken Smith
    I'm in the process of building my first real WPF application (i.e., the first intended to be used by someone besides me), and I'm still wrapping my head around the best way to do things in WPF. It's a fairly simple data access application using the still-fairly-new Entity Framework, but I haven't been able to find a lot of guidance online for the best way to use these two technologies (WPF and EF) together. So I thought I'd toss out how I'm approaching it, and see if anyone has any better suggestions. I'm using the Entity Framework with SQL Server 2008. The EF strikes me as both much more complicated than it needs to be, and not yet mature, but Linq-to-SQL is apparently dead, so I might as well use the technology that MS seems to be focusing on. This is a simple application, so I haven't (yet) seen fit to build a separate data layer around it. When I want to get at data, I use fairly simple Linq-to-Entity queries, usually straight from my code-behind, e.g.: var families = from family in entities.Family.Include("Person") orderby family.PrimaryLastName, family.Tag select family; Linq-to-Entity queries return an IOrderedQueryable result, which doesn't automatically reflect changes in the underlying data, e.g., if I add a new record via code to the entity data model, the existence of this new record is not automatically reflected in the various controls referencing the Linq query. Consequently, I'm throwing the results of these queries into an ObservableCollection, to capture underlying data changes: familyOC = new ObservableCollection<Family>(families.ToList()); I then map the ObservableCollection to a CollectionViewSource, so that I can get filtering, sorting, etc., without having to return to the database. familyCVS.Source = familyOC; familyCVS.View.Filter = new Predicate<object>(ApplyFamilyFilter); familyCVS.View.SortDescriptions.Add(new System.ComponentModel.SortDescription("PrimaryLastName", System.ComponentModel.ListSortDirection.Ascending)); familyCVS.View.SortDescriptions.Add(new System.ComponentModel.SortDescription("Tag", System.ComponentModel.ListSortDirection.Ascending)); I then bind the various controls and what-not to that CollectionViewSource: <ListBox DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" Margin="5,5,5,5" Name="familyList" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource familyCVS}, Path=., Mode=TwoWay}" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource familyTemplate}" SelectionChanged="familyList_SelectionChanged" /> When I need to add or delete records/objects, I manually do so from both the entity data model, and the ObservableCollection: private void DeletePerson(Person person) { entities.DeleteObject(person); entities.SaveChanges(); personOC.Remove(person); } I'm generally using StackPanel and DockPanel controls to position elements. Sometimes I'll use a Grid, but it seems hard to maintain: if you want to add a new row to the top of your grid, you have to touch every control directly hosted by the grid to tell it to use a new line. Uggh. (Microsoft has never really seemed to get the DRY concept.) I almost never use the VS WPF designer to add, modify or position controls. The WPF designer that comes with VS is sort of vaguely helpful to see what your form is going to look like, but even then, well, not really, especially if you're using data templates that aren't binding to data that's available at design time. If I need to edit my XAML, I take it like a man and do it manually. Most of my real code is in C# rather than XAML. As I've mentioned elsewhere, entirely aside from the fact that I'm not yet used to "thinking" in it, XAML strikes me as a clunky, ugly language, that also happens to come with poor designer and intellisense support, and that can't be debugged. Uggh. Consequently, whenever I can see clearly how to do something in C# code-behind that I can't easily see how to do in XAML, I do it in C#, with no apologies. There's been plenty written about how it's a good practice to almost never use code-behind in WPF page (say, for event-handling), but so far at least, that makes no sense to me whatsoever. Why should I do something in an ugly, clunky language with god-awful syntax, an astonishingly bad editor, and virtually no type safety, when I can use a nice, clean language like C# that has a world-class editor, near-perfect intellisense, and unparalleled type safety? So that's where I'm at. Any suggestions? Am I missing any big parts of this? Anything that I should really think about doing differently?

    Read the article

  • Mercurial hg clone on Windows via ssh with copSSH issue

    - by Kyle Tolle
    I have a Windows Server 2008 machine (iis7) that has CopSSH set up on it. To connect to it, I have a Windows 7 machine with Mercurial 1.5.1 (and TortoiseHg) installed. I can connect to the server using PuTTY with a non-standard ssh port and a .ppk file just fine. So I know the server can be SSH'd into. Next, I wanted to use the CLI to connect via hg clone to get a private repo. I've seen elsewhere that you need to have ssh configured in your mercurial.ini file, so my mercurial.ini has a line: ssh = plink.exe -ssh -C -l username -P #### -i "C:/Program Files/PuTTY/Key Files/KyleKey.ppk" Note: username is filled in with the username I set up via copSSH. #### is filled in with the non-standard ssh port I've defined for copSSH. I try to do the command hg clone ssh://inthom.com but I get this error: remote: bash: inthom.com: command not found abort: no suitable response from remote hg! It looks like hg or plink parses the hostname such that it thinks that inthom.com is a command instead of the server to ssh to. That's really odd. Next, I tried to just use plink to connect by plink -P #### ssh://inthom.com, and I am then prompted for my username, and next password. I enter them both and then I get this error: bash: ssh://inthom.com: No such file or directory So now it looks like plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly. I fiddled around for a while trying to figure out how to do call hg clone with an empty ssh:// field and eventually figured out that this command allows me to reach the server and clone a test repo on the inthom.com server: hg clone ssh://!/Repos/test ! is the character I've found that let's me leave the hostname blank, but specify the repo folder to clone. What I really don't understand is how plink knows what server to ssh to at all. neither my mercurial.ini nor the command specify a server. None of the hg clone examples I've seen have a ! character. They all use an address, which makes sense, so you can connect to any repo via ssh that you want to clone. My only guess is that it somehow defaults to the last server I used PuTTY to SSH to, but I SSH'd into another server, and then tried to use plink to get to it, but plink still defaults to inthom.com (verified with the -v arg to plink). So I am at a loss as to how plink gets this server value at all. For "fun", I tried using TortoiseHg and can only clone a repo when I use ssh://!/Repos/test as the Source. Now, you can see that, since plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly, I had to specify the port number and username in the mercurial.ini file, instead of in the hostname like [email protected]:#### like you'd expect to. Trying to figure this out at first drove me insane, because I would get errors that the host couldn't be reached, which I knew shouldn't be the case. My question is how can I configure my setup so that ssh://[email protected]:####/Repos/test is parsed correctly as the username, hostname, port number, and repo to copy? Is it something wrong with the version of plink that I'm using, or is there some setting I may have messed up? If it is plink's fault, is there an alternative tool I can use? I'm going to try to get my friend set up to connect to this same repo, so I'd like to have a clean solution instead of this ! business. Especially when I have no idea how plink gets this default server, so I'm not sure if he'd even be able to get to inthom.com correctly. PS. I've had to use a ton of different tutorials to even get to this stage. Therefore, I haven't tried pushing any changes to the server yet. Hopefully I'll get this figured out and then I can try pushing changes to the repo.

    Read the article

  • Accessing Oracle DB through SQL Server using OPENROWSET

    - by Ken Paul
    I'm trying to access a large Oracle database through SQL Server using OPENROWSET in client-side Javascript, and not having much luck. Here are the particulars: A SQL Server view that accesses the Oracle database using OPENROWSET works perfectly, so I know I have valid connection string parameters. However, the new requirement is for extremely dynamic Oracle queries that depend on client-side selections, and I haven't been able to get dynamic (or even parameterized) Oracle queries to work from SQL Server views or stored procedures. Client-side access to the SQL Server database works perfectly with dynamic and parameterized queries. I cannot count on clients having any Oracle client software. Therefore, access to the Oracle database has to be through the SQL Server database, using views, stored procedures, or dynamic queries using OPENROWSET. Because the SQL Server database is on a shared server, I'm not allowed to use globally-linked databases. My idea was to define a function that would take my own version of a parameterized Oracle query, make the parameter substitutions, wrap the query in an OPENROWSET, and execute it in SQL Server, returning the resulting recordset. Here's sample code: // db is a global variable containing an ADODB.Connection opened to the SQL Server DB // rs is a global variable containing an ADODB.Recordset . . . ss = "SELECT myfield FROM mytable WHERE {param0} ORDER BY myfield;"; OracleQuery(ss,["somefield='" + somevalue + "'"]); . . . function OracleQuery(sql,params) { var s = sql; var i; for (i = 0; i < params.length; i++) s = s.replace("{param" + i + "}",params[i]); var e = "SELECT * FROM OPENROWSET('MSDAORA','(connect-string-values)';" + "'user';'pass','" + s.split("'").join("''") + "') q"; try { rs.Open("EXEC ('" + e.split("'").join("''") + "')",db); } catch (eobj) { alert("SQL ERROR: " + eobj.description + "\nSQL: " + e); } } The SQL error that I'm getting is Ad hoc access to OLE DB provider 'MSDAORA' has been denied. You must access this provider through a linked server. which makes no sense to me. The Microsoft explanation for this error relates to a registry setting (DisallowAdhocAccess). This is set correctly on my PC, but surely this relates to the DB server and not the client PC, and I would expect that the setting there is correct since the view mentioned above works. One alternative that I've tried is to eliminate the enclosing EXEC in the Open statement: rs.Open(e,db); but this generates the same error. I also tried putting the OPENROWSET in a stored procedure. This works perfectly when executed from within SQL Server Management Studio, but fails with the same error message when the stored procedure is called from Javascript. Is what I'm trying to do possible? If so, can you recommend how to fix my code? Or is a completely different approach necessary? Any hints or related information will be welcome. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • "Access is denied" JavaScript error when trying to access the document object of a programmatically-

    - by Bungle
    I have project in which I need to create an <iframe> element using JavaScript and append it to the DOM. After that, I need to insert some content into the <iframe>. It's a widget that will be embedded in third-party websites. I don't set the "src" attribute of the <iframe> since I don't want to load a page; rather, it is used to isolate/sandbox the content that I insert into it so that I don't run into CSS or JavaScript conflicts with the parent page. I'm using JSONP to load some HTML content from a server and insert it in this <iframe>. I have this working fine, with one serious exception - if the document.domain property is set in the parent page (which it may be in certain environments in which this widget is deployed), Internet Explorer (probably all versions, but I've confirmed in 6, 7, and 8) gives me an "Access is denied" error when I try to access the document object of this <iframe> I've created. It doesn't happen in any other browsers I've tested in (all major modern ones). This makes some sense, since I'm aware that Internet Explorer requires you to set the document.domain of all windows/frames that will communicate with each other to the same value. However, I'm not aware of any way to set this value on a document that I can't access. Is anyone aware of a way to do this - somehow set the document.domain property of this dynamically created <iframe>? Or am I not looking at it from the right angle - is there another way to achieve what I'm going for without running into this problem? I do need to use an <iframe> in any case, as the isolated/sandboxed window is crucial to the functionality of this widget. Here's my test code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Document.domain Test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> document.domain = 'onespot.com'; // set the page's document.domain </script> </head> <body> <p>This is a paragraph above the &lt;iframe&gt;.</p> <div id="placeholder"></div> <p>This is a paragraph below the &lt;iframe&gt;.</p> <script type="text/javascript"> var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'), doc; // create <iframe> element document.getElementById('placeholder').appendChild(iframe); // append <iframe> element to the placeholder element setTimeout(function() { // set a timeout to give browsers a chance to recognize the <iframe> doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; // get a handle on the <iframe> document alert(doc); if (doc.document) { // HEREIN LIES THE PROBLEM doc = doc.document; } doc.body.innerHTML = '<h1>Hello!</h1>'; // add an element }, 10); </script> </body> </html> I've hosted it at: http://troy.onespot.com/static/access_denied.html As you'll see if you load this page in IE, at the point that I call alert(), I do have a handle on the window object of the <iframe>; I just can't get any deeper, into its document object. Thanks very much for any help or suggestions! I'll be indebted to whomever can help me find a solution to this.

    Read the article

  • WPF, UserControl, and Commands? Oh my!

    - by Greg D
    (This question is related to another one, but different enough that I think it warrants placement here.) Here's a (heavily snipped) Window: <Window x:Class="Gmd.TimeTracker2.TimeTrackerMainForm" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:Gmd.TimeTracker2" xmlns:localcommands="clr-namespace:Gmd.TimeTracker2.Commands" x:Name="This" DataContext="{Binding ElementName=This}"> <Window.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="localcommands:TaskCommands.ViewTaskProperties" Executed="HandleViewTaskProperties" CanExecute="CanViewTaskPropertiesExecute" /> </Window.CommandBindings> <DockPanel> <!-- snip stuff --> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <!-- snip more stuff --> <Button Content="_Create a new task" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="btnAddTask" Click="HandleNewTaskClick" /> </Grid> </DockPanel> </Window> and here's a (heavily snipped) UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="Gmd.TimeTracker2.TaskStopwatchControl" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:Gmd.TimeTracker2" xmlns:localcommands="clr-namespace:Gmd.TimeTracker2.Commands" x:Name="This" DataContext="{Binding ElementName=This}"> <UserControl.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem x:Name="mnuProperties" Header="_Properties" Command="{x:Static localcommands:TaskCommands.ViewTaskProperties}" CommandTarget="What goes here?" /> </ContextMenu> </UserControl.ContextMenu> <StackPanel> <TextBlock MaxWidth="100" Text="{Binding Task.TaskName, Mode=TwoWay}" TextWrapping="WrapWithOverflow" TextAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=ElapsedTime}" TextAlignment="Center" /> <Button Content="{Binding Path=IsRunning, Converter={StaticResource boolToString}, ConverterParameter='Stop Start'}" Click="HandleStartStopClicked" /> </StackPanel> </UserControl> Through various techniques, a UserControl can be dynamically added to the Window. Perhaps via the Button in the window. Perhaps, more problematically, from a persistent backing store when the application is started. As can be seen from the xaml, I've decided that it makes sense for me to try to use Commands as a way to handle various operations that the user can perform with Tasks. I'm doing this with the eventual goal of factoring all command logic into a more formally-defined Controller layer, but I'm trying to refactor one step at a time. The problem that I'm encountering is related to the interaction between the command in the UserControl's ContextMenu and the command's CanExecute, defined in the Window. When the application first starts and the saved Tasks are restored into TaskStopwatches on the Window, no actual UI elements are selected. If I then immediately r-click a UserControl in the Window in an attempt to execute the ViewTaskProperties command, the CanExecute handler never runs and the menu item remains disabled. If I then click some UI element (e.g., the button) just to give something focus, the CanExecute handlers are run with the CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs's Source property set to the UI element that has the focus. In some respect, this behavior seems to be known-- I've learned that menus automat

    Read the article

  • Implementing touch-based rotation in cocoa touch

    - by ewoo
    I am wondering what is the best way to implement rotation-based dragging movements in my iPhone application. I have a UIView that I wish to rotate around its centre, when the users finger is touch the view and they move it. Think of it like a dial that needs to be adjusted with the finger. The basic question comes down to: 1) Should I remember the initial angle and transform when touchesBegan is called, and then every time touchesMoved is called apply a new transform to the view based on the current position of the finger, e.g., something like: - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint currentPoint = [touch locationInView:self]; //current position of touch if (([touch view] == self) && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:self.middle] <= ROTATE_RADIUS //middle is centre of view && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:self.middle] >= MOVE_RADIUS) { //will be rotation gesture //remember state of view at beginning of touch CGPoint top = CGPointMake(self.middle.x, 0); self.initialTouch = currentPoint; self.initialAngle = angleBetweenLines(self.middle, top, self.middle, currentPoint); self.initialTransform = self.transform; } } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint currentPoint = [touch locationInView:self]; //current position of touch if (([touch view] == self) && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:self.middle] <= ROTATE_RADIUS && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:self.middle] >= MOVE_RADIUS) { //a rotation gesture //rotate tile float newAngle = angleBetweenLines(self.middle, CGPointMake(self.middle.x, 0), self.middle, currentPoint); //touch angle float angleDif = newAngle - self.initialAngle; //work out dif between angle at beginning of touch and now. CGAffineTransform newTransform = CGAffineTransformRotate(self.initialTransform, angleDif); //create new transform self.transform = newTransform; //apply transform. } OR 2) Should I simply remember the last known position/angle, and rotate the view based on the difference in angle between that and now, e.g.,: - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint currentPoint = [touch locationInView:self]; //current position of touch if (([touch view] == self) && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:self.middle] <= ROTATE_RADIUS && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:self.middle] >= MOVE_RADIUS) { //will be rotation gesture //remember state of view at beginning of touch CGPoint top = CGPointMake(self.middle.x, 0); self.lastTouch = currentPoint; self.lastAngle = angleBetweenLines(self.middle, top, self.middle, currentPoint); } } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint currentPoint = [touch locationInView:self]; //current position of touch if (([touch view] == self) && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:middle] <= ROTATE_RADIUS && [Utility getDistance:currentPoint toPoint:middle] >= MOVE_RADIUS) { //a rotation gesture //rotate tile float newAngle = angleBetweenLines(self.middle, CGPointMake(self.middle.x, 0), self.middle, currentPoint); //touch angle float angleDif = newAngle - self.lastAngle; //work out dif between angle at beginning of touch and now. CGAffineTransform newTransform = CGAffineTransformRotate(self.transform, angleDif); //create new transform self.transform = newTransform; //apply transform. self.lastTouch = currentPoint; self.lastAngle = newAngle; } The second option makes more sense to me, but it is not giving very pleasing results (jaggy updates and non-smooth rotations). Which way is best (if any), in terms of performance? Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Looking for feedback on a first SAML implementation.

    - by morgancodes
    Hello, I've been tasked with designing a very simple SSO (single sign-on) process. My employer has specified that it should be implimented in SAML. I'd like to create messages that are absolutely as simple as possible while confirming to the SAML spec. I'd be really grateful if some of you would look at my request and response messages and tell me if they make sense for my purpose, if they include anything that doesn't need to be there, and if they are missing anything that does need to be there. Addionally, I'd like to know where in the response I should put additional information about the subject; in particular, the subject's email address. The interaction needs to work as follows: 1) User requests service from service provider at this point, the service provider knows nothing about the user. 2) Service provider requests authentication for user from identity provider 3) User is authenticated/registered by identity provider 4) Identity provider responds to Service provider with authentication success message, PLUS user's email address. Here's what I think the request should be: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <samlp:AuthnRequest xmlns:samlp="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:protocol" ID="abc" IssueInstant="1970-01-01T00:00:00.000Z" Version="2.0" AssertionConsumerServiceURL="http://www.IdentityProvider.com/loginPage"> <saml:Issuer xmlns:saml="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:assertion"> http://www.serviceprovider.com </saml:Issuer> <saml:Subject> <saml:NameID Format="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:nameid-format:transient">3f7b3dcf-1674-4ecd-92c8-1544f346baf8</saml:NameID> </saml:Subject> Here's what I think the response should be: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <samlp:Response xmlns:samlp="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:protocol" Destination="http://www.serviceprovider.com/desitnationURL" ID="123" IssueInstant="2008-11-21T17:13:42.872Z" Version="2.0"> <samlp:Status> <samlp:StatusCode Value="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:status:Success"/> </samlp:Status> <saml:Assertion xmlns:saml="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:assertion" Version="2.0"> <saml:Subject> <saml:NameID Format="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:nameid-format:transient">3f7b3dcf-1674-4ecd-92c8-1544f346baf8</saml:NameID> <saml:SubjectConfirmation Method="urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:profiles:SSO:browser"> <saml:SubjectConfirmationData InResponseTo="abc"/> </saml:SubjectConfirmation> </saml:Subject> <saml:AuthnStatement AuthnInstant="2008-11-21T17:13:42.899Z"> <saml:AuthnContext> <saml:AuthnContextClassRef>urn:oasis:names:tc:SAML:2.0:ac:classes:PasswordProtectedTransport</saml:AuthnContextClassRef> </saml:AuthnContext> </saml:AuthnStatement> </saml:Assertion> </samlp:Response> So, again, my questions are: 1) Is this a valid SAML interaction? 2) Can either the request or response xml be simplified? 3) Where in the response should I put the subject's email address? I really apprecaite your help. Thanks so much! -Morgan

    Read the article

  • Getting values from Dynamic elements.

    - by nCdy
    I'm adding some dynamic elements to my WebApp this way : (Language used is Nemerele (It has a simple C#-like syntax)) unless (GridView1.Rows.Count==0) { foreach(index with row = GridView1.Rows[index] in [0..GridView1.Rows.Count-1]) { row.Cells[0].Controls.Add ({ def TB = TextBox(); TB.EnableViewState = false; unless(row.Cells[0].Text == "&nbsp;") { TB.Text = row.Cells[0].Text; row.Cells[0].Text = ""; } TB.ID=TB.ClientID; TB.Width = 60; TB }); row.Cells[0].Controls.Add ({ def B = Button(); B.EnableViewState = false; B.Width = 80; B.Text = "?????????"; B.UseSubmitBehavior=false; // Makes no sense //B.OnClientClick="select(5);"; // HERE I CAN KNOW ABOUT TB.ID //B.Click+=EventHandler(fun(_,_) : void { }); // POST BACK KILL THAT ALL B }); } } This textboxes must make first field of GridView editable so ... but now I need to save a values. I can't do it on server side because any postback will Destroy all dynamic elements so I must do it without Post Back. So I try ... <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function CallPageMethod(methodName, onSuccess, onFail) { var args = ''; var l = arguments.length; if (l > 3) { for (var i = 3; i < l - 1; i += 2) { if (args.length != 0) args += ','; args += '"' + arguments[i] + '":"' + arguments[i + 1] + '"'; } } var loc = window.location.href; loc = (loc.substr(loc.length - 1, 1) == "/") ? loc + "Report.aspx" : loc; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: loc + "/" + methodName, data: "{" + args + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: onSuccess, fail: onFail }); } function select(index) { var id = $("#id" + index).html(); CallPageMethod("SelectBook", success, fail, "id",id); } function success(response) { alert(response.d); } function fail(response) { alert("&#1054;&#1096;&#1080;&#1073;&#1082;&#1072;."); } </script> So... here is a trouble string : var id = $("#id" + index).html(); I know what is ID here : TB.ID=TB.ClientID; (when I add it) but I have no idea how to send it on Web Form. If I can add something like this div : <div id="Result" onclick="select(<%= " TB.ID " %>);"> Click here. </div> from the code it will be really goal, but I can't add this element as from CodeBehind as a dynamic element. So how can I transfer TB.ID or TB.ClientID to some static div Or how can I add some clickable dynamic element without PostBack to not destroy all my dynamic elements. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • WCF Contract Name 'IMyService' could not be found?

    - by M3NTA7
    The contract name 'IMyService' could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service 'MyService'.. --- System.InvalidOperationException: The contract name 'IMyService' could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service 'MyService'. This is driving me crazy. I have a WCF web service that works on my dev machine, but when I copy it to a Virtual Machine that I am using for testing, I get the error that seems to indicate that I am not implementing the interface, but it does not make sense because the service does work on my windows xp IIS. the Virtual machine uses Windows Server 2003 IIS. Any ideas? One thing to note here is that I get this error on my VM even while just trying to access the service in a web browser as the client. Note: I am using principalPermissionMode="UseWindowsGroups", but that is not a problem on my local machine. I just add myself to the appropriate windows group. But no luck on my VM. system.serviceModel: <diagnostics> <messageLogging logEntireMessage="false" maxSizeOfMessageToLog="2147483647" /> </diagnostics> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="MyServiceBehaviors" name="MyService"> <endpoint binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttpBinding" name="MyService" bindingName="basicHttpBinding" bindingNamespace="http://my.test.com" contract="IMyService"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttpBinding" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxStringContentLength="2147483647" /> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="None" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="WindowsClientOverTcp" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxStringContentLength="2147483647" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttpBinding" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="MyServiceBehaviors"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseWindowsGroups" impersonateCallerForAllOperations="false" /> <serviceCredentials /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> Thanks, Glen

    Read the article

  • Delphi: Using Enumerators to filter TList<T: class> by class type?

    - by afrazier
    Okay, this might be confusing. What I'm trying to do is use an enumerator to only return certain items in a generic list based on class type. Given the following hierarchy: type TShapeClass = class of TShape; TShape = class(TObject) private FId: Integer; public function ToString: string; override; property Id: Integer read FId write FId; end; TCircle = class(TShape) private FDiameter: Integer; public property Diameter: Integer read FDiameter write FDiameter; end; TSquare = class(TShape) private FSideLength: Integer; public property SideLength: Integer read FSideLength write FSideLength; end; TShapeList = class(TObjectList<TShape>) end; How can I extend TShapeList such that I can do something similar to the following: procedure Foo; var ShapeList: TShapeList; Shape: TShape; Circle: TCircle; Square: TSquare; begin // Create ShapeList and fill with TCircles and TSquares for Circle in ShapeList<TCircle> do begin // do something with each TCircle in ShapeList end; for Square in ShapeList<TSquare> do begin // do something with each TSquare in ShapeList end; for Shape in ShapeList<TShape> do begin // do something with every object in TShapeList end; end; I've tried extending TShapeList using an adapted version of Primoz Gabrijelcic's bit on Parameterized Enumerators using a factory record as follows: type TShapeList = class(TObjectList<TShape>) public type TShapeFilterEnumerator<T: TShape> = record private FShapeList: TShapeList; FClass: TShapeClass; FIndex: Integer; function GetCurrent: T; public constructor Create(ShapeList: TShapeList); function MoveNext: Boolean; property Current: T read GetCurrent; end; TShapeFilterFactory<T: TShape> = record private FShapeList: TShapeList; public constructor Create(ShapeList: TShapeList); function GetEnumerator: TShapeFilterEnumerator<T>; end; function FilteredEnumerator<T: TShape>: TShapeFilterFactory<T>; end; Then I modified Foo to be: procedure Foo; var ShapeList: TShapeList; Shape: TShape; Circle: TCircle; Square: TSquare; begin // Create ShapeList and fill with TCircles and TSquares for Circle in ShapeList.FilteredEnumerator<TCircle> do begin // do something with each TCircle in ShapeList end; for Square in ShapeList.FilteredEnumerator<TSquare> do begin // do something with each TSquare in ShapeList end; for Shape in ShapeList.FilteredEnumerator<TShape> do begin // do something with every object in TShapeList end; end; However, Delphi 2010 is throwing an error when I try to compile Foo about Incompatible types: TCircle and TShape. If I comment out the TCircle loop, then I get a similar error about TSquare. If I comment the TSquare loop out as well, the code compiles and works. Well, it works in the sense that it enumerates every object since they all descend from TShape. The strange thing is that the line number that the compiler indicates is 2 lines beyond the end of my file. In my demo project, it indicated line 177, but there's only 175 lines. Is there any way to make this work? I'd like to be able to assign to Circle directly without going through any typecasts or checking in my for loop itself.

    Read the article

  • Oracle performance problem

    - by jreid42
    We are using an Oracle 11G machine that is very powerful; has redundant storage etc. It's a beast from what I have been told. We just got this DB for a tool that when I first came on as a coop had like 20 people using, now its upwards of 150 people. I am the only one working on it :( We currently have a system in place that distributes PERL scripts across our entire data center essentially giving us a sort of "grid" computing power. The Perl scripts run a sort of simulation and report back the results to the database. They do selects / inserts. The load is not very high for each script but it could be happening across 20-50 systems at the same time. We then have multiple data centers and users all hitting the same database with this same approach. Our main problem with this is that our database is getting overloaded with connections and having to drop some. We sometimes have upwards of 500 connections. These are old perl scripts and they do not handle this well. Essentially they fail and the results are lost. I would rather avoid having to rewrite a lot of these as they are poorly written, and are a headache to even look at. The database itself is not overloaded, just the connection overhead is too high. We open a connection, make a quick query and then drop the connection. Very short connections but many of them. The database team has basically said we need to lower the number of connections or they are going to ignore us. Because this is distributed across our farm we cant implement persistent connections. I do this with our webserver; but its on a fixed system. The other ones are perl scripts that get opened and closed by the distribution tool and thus arent always running. What would be my best approach to resolving this issue? The scripts themselves can wait for a connection to be open. They do not need to act immediately. Some sort of queing system? I've been suggested to set up a few instances of a tool called "SQL Relay". Maybe one in each data center. How reliable is this tool? How good is this approach? Would it work for what we need? We could have one for each data center and relay requests through it to our main database, keeping a pipeline of open persistent connections? Does this make sense? Is there any other suggestions you can make? Any ideas? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Sadly I am just a coop student working for a very big company and somehow all of this has landed all on my shoulders (there is literally nobody to ask for help; its a hardware company, everybody is hardware engineers, and the database team is useless and in India) and I am quite lost as what the best approach would be? I am extremely overworked and this problem is interfering with on going progress and basically needs to be resolved as quickly as possible; preferably without rewriting the whole system, purchasing hardware (not gonna happen), or shooting myself in the foot. HELP LOL!

    Read the article

  • Help with SVN+SSH permissions with CentOS/WHM setup

    - by Furiam
    Hi Folks, I'll try my best to explain how I'm trying to set up this system. Imagine a production server running WHM with various sites. We'll call these sites... site1, site2, site2 Now, with the WHM setup, each site has a user/group defined for them, we'll keep these users/groups called site1,site2 for simplicity reasons. Now, updating these sites is accomplished using SVN, and through the use of a post commit script to auto update these sites (With .svn blocked through the apache configuration). There are two regular maintainers of these sites, we'll call them Joe and Bob. Joe and Bob both have commandline access to the server through thier respective limited accounts. So I've done the easy bit, managed to get SVN working with these "maintainers" so that when an SVN commit occurs, the changes are checked out and go live perfectly. Here's the cavet, and ultimately my problem. User permissions. Through my testing of this setup, I've only managed to get it working by giving what is being updated permissions of 777, so that Joe and Bob can both read and write access to webfront directories for each of the sites. So, an example of how it's set up now: Joe and Bob both belong to a group called "Dev". I have the master /svn folders set up for both read and write access to this group, and it works great. Post commit triggers, updates the site, and then sets 777 on each file within the webfront. I then changed this to try and factor in group permission updates, instead of straight 777. Each folder in /home/site1/public_html intially gets given a chmod of 664, and each folder 775 Which looks a little something like this drwxrwxr-x . drwxrwxr-x .. drwxrwxr-x site1 site1 my_test_folder -rw-rw-r-- site1 site1 my_test_file So site1 is sthe owner and group owner of those files and folders. So I then added site1 to Joe and Bobs secondary groups so that the SVN update will correctly allow access to these files. Herein lies the problem now. When I wish to add a file or folder to /home/site1, say Bobs_file, it then looks like this drwxrwxr-x . drwxrwxr-x .. drwxr-xr-x Bob dev bobs_folder drwxrwxr-x site1 site1 my_test_folder -rw-rw-r-- Bob dev bobs_file -rw-rw-r-- site1 site1 my_test_file How can I get it so that with the set of user permissions Bob has available, to change the owner and group owner of that file to reflect "site1" "site1". As Bob belongs to Dev I can set the permissions correctly with CHMOd, but It appears CHGRP is throwing back operation errors. Now this was long winded enough to give an overview of exactly what I'm trying to accomplish, just incase I'm going about this arse-over-tit and there's a far easier solution. Here's my goals 2 people to update multiple user accounts specified given the structure of WHM Trying to maintain master user/group permissions of file and folders to the original user account, and not the account of the updatee. I like the security of SVN+SSH over just SVN. Don't want to run all this over root. I hope this made sense, and thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Installing Rails, MySQL, etc. everything goes wrong

    - by Rits
    I've been struggling with this for a few hours. Everything just stopped working and I can't get it to work anymore. I'm a noob at Ruby, Ruby on Rails and the Terminal in general. This is really frustrating me so I just try to describe my problem as detailed as possible hoping someone can give me a solution. I'm on Mac OS X Snow Leopard. I couldn't get Rails working at all just now: Could not find gem 'rails' headaches But after some tries of reinstalling it, it suddenly worked again. But now I just can't get MySQL to work, and it sometimes even breaks the Rails installation again. This is what I do: sudo gem uninstall rails sudo gem uninstall mysql sudo gem uninstall mysql2 After these commands, I check the installed gems with gem list. No MySQL gem is listed anymore, but I can still see rails (2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.2.6) . Is this normal? Does this mean I have 3 Rails installations? It doesn't make sense to me. Anyway, then I do this: sudo gem clean Which fails completely. I get a bunch of errors like this: Attempting to uninstall fcgi-0.8.7 Unable to uninstall fcgi-0.8.7: Gem::InstallError: cannot uninstall, check gem list -d fcgi It doesn't uninstall anything. At this point, I try to install everything again. I start with: sudo gem install rails Which succeeds (I think): Successfully installed rails-3.0.3 Successfully installed builder-2.1.2 2 gems installed Installing ri documentation for rails-3.0.3... File not found: lib Then, I update RubyGems: sudo gem update --system sudo gem install rubygems-update sudo update_rubygems Then it says I have 1.3.7 installed, so it succeeded, I think. So now I proceed with installing MySQL. I already got MySQL 5.5.8 installed on my machine. I did some research about installing MySQL on Snow Leopard, and it seems I have to use this command: sudo env ARCHFLAGS="-arch x86_64" gem install mysql -- --with-mysql-config=/usr/local/mysql/bin/mysql_config I get a bunch of errors like this: No definition for time_set_neg No definition for time_set_second_part No definition for time_equal No definition for error_errno At this point, I assume I got both Rails and the MySQL gem installed, so I try to start a new project. rails new user_group -d mysql It works! Rails is installed correctly. Now, I try generating a model. cd user_group rails generate model User It fails with this error: Could not find gem 'mysql2 (= 0, runtime)' in any of the gem sources listed in your Gemfile. Try running bundle install. So I try running bundle install. It installs a lot of gems. Then I try to generate my model again. I get this error: Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/mysql2-0.2.6/lib/mysql2/mysql2.bundle: dlopen(/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/mysql2-0.2.6/lib/mysql2/mysql2.bundle, 9): Library not loaded: libmysqlclient.16.dylib (LoadError) Referenced from: /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/mysql2-0.2.6/lib/mysql2/mysql2.bundle Reason: image not found - /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/mysql2-0.2.6/lib/mysql2/mysql2.bundle This is as far as I can get. What should I do? And why should this be so hard...

    Read the article

  • Mac OS X Server Open Directory does not push Software Update settings to clients

    - by joxl
    I have an Xserve G5 running Mac OS X Server 10.5.8 configured as an Open Directory master. I have also enabled and configured Software Update service on the machine. The SUS is configured to serve Tiger, Leopard and Snow Leopard clients (see http://discussions.apple.com/message.jspa?messageID=10297359#10297359) The clients bound to the OD are a variety of Mac's running OS X 10.4, 10.5 or 10.6. In Workgroup Manager, I have created 3 machine groups for each client OS. Each group is configured with a custom SUS URL, and the managed client computers are members accordingly (see http://discussions.apple.com/thread.jspa?messageID=10493154#10493154) My problem is that the server pushes the SUS settings to some of the client machines, but not all. When I first configured all this stuff on the server (a few weeks ago) I was closely monitoring a few of the client machines to confirm that they received the custom settings. I noticed that some of the clients (10.4/5/6 alike) seemed to get the settings immediately, others didn't show the new settings until after a reboot. As I said, results are mixed across OS's, but some clients will not "sync" at all. My immediate thought was to unbind/rebind the problematic machines. I did this on several client computers with no success. For example, today I was working on one of the Tiger clients. I noticed it was not pointed at my local SUS, so I checked the OD binding; it was fine. Just to be sure I unbound the machine. Next, I checked WM and confirmed the computer record was gone. I noticed the machine group still had a residual (broken?) member from the unbound client; I manually removed this. Finally, I re-bound the client to OD and re-added the machine to it's correct group in WM. Unfortunately, the client still pings apple's SUS for updates. Just to play it safe I rebooted the client, but to no avail, it will not see my local SUS. To confirm that there is nothing wrong with the server, or the client's connection to it, forcefully pointed the machine at my SUS: sudo defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate CatalogURL "$LOCAL_SUS_URL" and the machine successfully updated off my local server. Great, successful updates, but problem not solved. I've done exhaustive reading on discussions.apple.com (not saying I read everything, I'm just saying I have read a lot) without a good answer. The discouraging thing is that a lot of OD problems I've read about only result in the sysadmin completely reinstalling the server, or OD, or some other similarly heavy-handed operation. At this point, I am not willing to go that route. I still have hope that I can find the reason for this flaky behavior. If anyone can point me in a helpful direction it would be much appreciated. EDIT: Indeed, some files are being pushed to the client: # from client machine: $ sudo find /Library -type f -name com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist /Library/Managed Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist /Library/Managed Preferences/username/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist A few weeks ago, prior to my (previously mentioned) modifications, the SUS was still running "stock". Which meant it could not serve SL (10.6) machines. At that time, the Software Update settings were setup in WM under User Groups. This didn't make any sense because some users work on multiple machines with different OS's. Before creating Machine Groups in WM, I deleted all the SU settings from the User Group Preferences. This just makes the whole thing more confusing, because when I see a file here: /Library/Managed Preferences/username/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist I assume it's still remaining from the "old" settings, because I wouldn't think a Machine Setting belongs there. Despite all the com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist hanging around under the Managed Preferences, why does the client machine still call home to Apple and not my SUS? # on client machine: $ date Tue Jan 25 17:01:46 EST 2011 $ softwareupdate --list Software Update Tool Copyright 2002-2005 Apple No new software available. switch terminals... # on server: $ tail -n1 /var/log/swupd/swupd_access_log 10.x.x.x - - [25/Jan/2011:15:54:29 -0500] XXXX POST "/cgi-bin/SoftwareUpdateServerStats" 200 13 ... Notice the date of the client softwareupdate and the latest access to the SUS server; the server never heard a peep from that client.

    Read the article

  • How do I use UIImagePickerController just to display the camera and not take a picture?

    - by Thomas
    Hello All: I'd like to know how to open the camera inside of a pre-defined frame (not the entire screen). When the view loads, I have a box, and inside it, I want to display what the camera sees. I don't want to snap a picture, just basically use the camera as a viewfinder. I have searched this site and have not yet found what I'm looking for. Please help. Thanks! Thomas Update 1: Here is what I have tried so far. 1.) I added UIImageView to my xib. 2.) Connect the following outlet to the UIImageView in IB IBOutlet UIImageView *cameraWindow; 3.) I put the following code in viewWillAppear -(void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; NSLog(@"viewWillAppear ran"); } But this method does not run, as evident by the absence of NSLog statement from my console. Please help! Thanks, Thomas Update 2: OK I got it to run by putting the code in viewDidLoad but my camera still doesn't show up...any suggestions? Anyone....? I've been reading the UIImagePickerController class reference, but am kinda unsure how to make sense of it. I'm still learning iPhone, so it's a bit of a struggle. Please help! - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Create a bool variable "camera" and call isSourceTypeAvailable to see if camera exists on device BOOL camera = [UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable:UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]; // If there is a camera, then display the world throught the viewfinder if(camera) { UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; // Since I'm not actually taking a picture, is a delegate function necessary? picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; NSLog(@"Camera is available"); } // Otherwise, do nothing. else NSLog(@"No camera available"); } Thanks! Thomas Update 3: A-HA! Found this on the Apple Class Reference. Discussion The delegate receives notifications when the user picks an image or movie, or exits the picker interface. The delegate also decides when to dismiss the picker interface, so you must provide a delegate to use a picker. If this property is nil, the picker is dismissed immediately if you try to show it. Gonna play around with the delegate now. Then I'm going to read on wtf a delegate is. Backwards? Whatever :-p Update 4: The two delegate functions for the class are – imagePickerController:didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo: – imagePickerControllerDidCancel: and since I don't actually want to pick an image or give the user the option to cancel, I am just defining the methods. They should never run though....I think.

    Read the article

  • Installed Perl DBI Module Can't Be Found

    - by Russell C.
    I'm trying to setup a Perl development environment on my Mac laptop and have been having a really hard time getting it working. I thought I had everything configured correctly but when I try to run a sample script it is reporting errors with the DBI module and can't access the DB. Here is what is reported in the Apache error logs: [Fri Apr 30 23:11:33 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] Can't locate DBI.pm in @INC (@INC contains: /Library/Perl/Updates/5.10.0/darwin-thread-multi-2level /Library/Perl/Updates/5.10.0 /System/Library/Perl/5.10.0/darwin-thread-multi-2level /System/Library/Perl/5.10.0 /Library/Perl/5.10.0/darwin-thread-multi-2level /Library/Perl/5.10.0 /Network/Library/Perl/5.10.0/darwin-thread-multi-2level /Network/Library/Perl/5.10.0 /Network/Library/Perl /System/Library/Perl/Extras/5.10.0/darwin-thread-multi-2level /System/Library/Perl/Extras/5.10.0 .) at main.pm line 5. I downloaded and installed both modules manually to work with MAMP using the following commands as specified in this forum post: For DBI 1. cd /Library/Perl/DBI-1.611 2. sudo Perl Makefile.PL 3. sudo make 4. sudo make install For DBD 1. cd /Library/Perl/DBD-mysql-4.014 2. sudo Perl Makefile.PL --mysql_config=/Applications/MAMP/Library/bin/mysql_config 3. sudo make 4. sudo make install What I noticed while running the above commands is that the files seems to be getting installed in the '/opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/' directory which doesn't seem to be one of the search directories that Apache mentions in the error at the beginning of this post. Here is what I'm seeing during the install: $ sudo make install Files found in blib/arch: installing files in blib/lib into architecture dependent library tree Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/auto/DBI/DBI.bundle Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/auto/DBI/dbipport.h Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/auto/DBI/DBIXS.h Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/auto/DBI/dbixs_rev.h Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/auto/DBI/Driver.xst Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/auto/DBI/Driver_xst.h Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBI.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/TASKS.pod Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBD/DBM.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBD/File.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBD/Gofer.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBI/Changes.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBI/DBD.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBI/Profile.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBI/ProxyServer.pm Installing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/DBI/PurePerl.pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBD::DBM.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBD::File.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBD::Gofer.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBI.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBI::DBD.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBI::Profile.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBI::ProxyServer.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/DBI::PurePerl.3pm Installing /opt/local/share/man/man3/TASKS.3pm Installing /opt/local/bin/dbiprof Installing /opt/local/bin/dbiproxy Writing /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/auto/DBI/.packlist Appending installation info to /opt/local/lib/perl5/5.8.9/darwin-2level/perllocal.pod My question is, what am I doing wrong and how can I either 1) Get Apache to look in the right directory where the DBD & DBI modules are installed or 2) Update the way I'm installing the module to install them into one of the search directories. I honestly don't know what option makes more sense and could use guidance on that as well. As you can probably tell I'm pretty lost at the moment. Please help!!!

    Read the article

  • php script gets two ajax requests, only returns one?

    - by Dan.StackOverflow
    I'll start from the beginning. I'm building a wordpress plugin that does double duty, in that it can be inserted in to a post via a shortcode, or added as a sidebar widget. All it does is output some js to make jquery.post requests to a local php file. The local php file makes a request to a webservice for some data. (I had to do it this way instead of directly querying the web service with jquery.ajax because the url contains a license key that would be public if put in the js). Anyway, When I am viewing a page in the wordpress blog that has both the sidebar widget and the plugin output via shortcode only one of the requests work. I mean it works in that it gets a response back from the php script. Once the page is loaded they both work normally when manually told to. Webpage view - send 2 post requests to my php script - both elements should be filed in, but only one is. My php script is just: <?php if(isset($_POST["zip"])) { // build a curl object, execute the request, // and basically just echo what the curl request returns. } ?> Pretty basic. here is some js some people wanted to see: function widget_getActivities( zip ){ jQuery("#widget_active_list").text(""); jQuery.post("http://localhost/wordpress/wp-content/ActiveAjax.php", { zip: zip}, function(text) { jQuery(text).find("asset").each(function(j, aval){ var html = ""; html += "<a href='" + jQuery(aval).find("trackback").text() + "' target='new'> " + jQuery(aval).find("assetName").text() + "</a><b> at </b>"; jQuery("location", aval).each(function(i, val){ html += jQuery("locationName", val).text() + " <b> on </b>"; }); jQuery("date", aval).each(function(){ html += jQuery("startDate", aval).text(); <!--jQuery("#widget_active_list").append("<div id='ActivityEntry'>" + html + " </div>");--> jQuery("#widget_active_list") .append(jQuery("<div>") .addClass("widget_ActivityEntry") .html(html) .bind("mouseenter", function(){ jQuery(this).animate({ fontSize: "20px", lineHeight: "1.2em" }, 50); }) .bind("mouseleave", function(){ jQuery(this).animate({ fontSize: "10px", lineHeight: "1.2em" }, 50); }) ); }); }); }); } Now imagine there is another function identical to this one except everything that is prepended with 'widget_' isn't prepended. These two functions get called separately via: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ w_zip = jQuery("#widget_zip").val(); widget_getActivities( w_zip ); jQuery("#widget_updateZipLink").click(function() { //start function when any update link is clicked widget_c_zip = jQuery("#widget_zip").val(); if (undefined == widget_c_zip || widget_c_zip == "" || widget_c_zip.length != 5) jQuery("#widget_zipError").text("Bad zip code"); else widget_getActivities( widget_c_zip ); }); }) I can see in my apache logs that both requests are being made. I'm guessing it is some sort of race condition but that doesn't make ANY sense. I'm new to all this, any ideas? EDIT: I've come up with a sub-optimal solution. I have my widget detect if the plugin is also being used on the page, and if so it waits for 3 seconds before performing the request. But I have a feeling this same thing is going to happen if multiple clients perform a page request at the same time that triggers one of the requests to my php script, because I believe the problem is in the php script, which is scary.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225  | Next Page >