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  • performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

    - by oldbeamer
    Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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  • How to check if two records have a self-referencing relation?

    - by Machine
    Consider the following schema with users and their collegues (friends): Users User: columns: user_id: name: user_id as userId type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true autoincrement: true first_name: name: first_name as firstName type: string(45) notnull: true last_name: name: last_name as lastName type: string(45) notnull: true email: type: string(45) notnull: true unique: true relations: Collegues: class: User local: invitor foreign: invitee refClass: CollegueStatus equal: true onDelete: CASCADE onUpdate: CASCADE Join table: CollegueStatus: columns: invitor: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true invitee: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true status: type: enum(8) values: [pending, accepted, denied] default: pending notnull: true Now, let's say I two records, one for the user making a HTTP request (the logged in user), and one record for a user he wants to send a message to. I want to check if these users are collegues. Questions: Does Doctrine have any pre-build functionality to check if two records with with self-relations are related? If not, how would you write a method to check this? Where would you put said method? (In the User-class, UserTable-class etc) I could probably do something like this: public function (User $user1, User $user2) { // Ensure we load collegues if $user1 was fetched with DQL that // doesn't load this relation $collegues = $user1->get('Collegues'); $areCollegues = false; foreach($collegues as $collegue) { if($collegue['userId'] === $user2['userId']) { $areCollegues = true; break; } } return $areCollegues; } But this looks a neither efficient nor pretty. I just feel that it should be solved already for self-referencing relations to be nice to use.

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  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

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  • How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

    - by shane
    I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

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  • Optimize a MySQL count each duplicate Query

    - by Onema
    I have the following query That gets the city name, city id, the region name, and a count of duplicate names for that record: SELECT Country_CA.City AS currentCity, Country_CA.CityID, globe_region.region_name, ( SELECT count(Country_CA.City) FROM Country_CA WHERE City LIKE currentCity ) as counter FROM Country_CA LEFT JOIN globe_region ON globe_region.region_id = Country_CA.RegionID AND globe_region.country_code = Country_CA.CountryCode ORDER BY City This example is for Canada, and the cities will be displayed on a dropdown list. There are a few towns in Canada, and in other countries, that have the same names. Therefore I want to know if there is more than one town with the same name region name will be appended to the town name. Region names are found in the globe_region table. Country_CA and globe_region look similar to this (I have changed a few things for visualization purposes) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Country_CA` ( `City` varchar(75) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `RegionID` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CountryCode` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CityID` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`City`,`RegionID`), KEY `CityID` (`CityID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; AND CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `globe_region` ( `country_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_name` varchar(50) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`country_code`,`region_code`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; The query on the top does exactly what I want it to do, but It takes way too long to generate a list for 5000 records. I would like to know if there is a way to optimize the sub-query in order to obtain the same results faster. the results should look like this City CityID region_name counter sheraton 2349269 British Columbia 1 sherbrooke 2349270 Quebec 2 sherbrooke 2349271 Nova Scotia 2 shere 2349273 British Columbia 1 sherridon 2349274 Manitoba 1

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • SpeechRecognizer causes ANR... I need help with Android speech API.

    - by Dondo Chaka
    I'm trying to use Android's speech recognition package to record user speech and translate it to text. Unfortunately, when I attempt initiate listening, I get an ANR error that doesn't point to anything specific. As the SpeechRecognizer API indicates, a RuntimeException is thrown if you attempt to call it from the main thread. This would make me wonder if the processing was just too demanding... but I know that other applications use the Android API for this purpose and it is typically pretty snappy. java.lang.RuntimeException: SpeechRecognizer should be used only from the application's main thread Here is a (trimmed) sample of the code I'm trying to call from my service. Is this the proper approach? Thanks for taking the time to help. This has been a hurdle I haven't been able to get over yet. Intent intent = new Intent(RecognizerIntent.ACTION_RECOGNIZE_SPEECH); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_LANGUAGE_MODEL, RecognizerIntent.LANGUAGE_MODEL_FREE_FORM); intent.putExtra(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_CALLING_PACKAGE, "com.domain.app"); SpeechRecognizer recognizer = SpeechRecognizer .createSpeechRecognizer(this.getApplicationContext()); RecognitionListener listener = new RecognitionListener() { @Override public void onResults(Bundle results) { ArrayList<String> voiceResults = results .getStringArrayList(RecognizerIntent.EXTRA_RESULTS); if (voiceResults == null) { Log.e(getString(R.string.log_label), "No voice results"); } else { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Printing matches: "); for (String match : voiceResults) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), match); } } } @Override public void onReadyForSpeech(Bundle params) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Ready for speech"); } @Override public void onError(int error) { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Error listening for speech: " + error); } @Override public void onBeginningOfSpeech() { Log.d(getString(R.string.log_label), "Speech starting"); } }; recognizer.setRecognitionListener(listener); recognizer.startListening(intent);

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  • Possible to capture all events in a web browser?

    - by David
    I am working on a pet project and am at the research stage. Quick summary I am trying to intercept all form submits, onclick, and every single keydown. My library of choice is either jquery, or jquery + prototypejs. I figure I can batch up the events into a queue/stack and send it back to the server in time interval batches to keep performance relatively stable. Concerns Form submits and change's would be relatively simple.. Something like $("form :inputs").bind("change", function() { ... record event... }); But how to ensure I get precedence over the applications handlers as I have a habit of putting return false on a lot of my form handlers when there is a validation issue. As I understand it, that effectively stops the event in its tracks. My project For my smaller remote clients I will put their products onto a VPS or run it in my home data center. Currently I use a basic authentication system, given a username/password they see the website and then hopefully send me somewhat sane notes on what is broken or should be tweaked. As a better solution, I've written a simple proxy web server that does the above but allows me to have one DNS entry and then depending on credentials it makes an internal request relaying headers and re-writing URLS as needed. Every single html/text or application/* request is compressed and shoved into a sqlite table so I can partially replay what they've done. Now I am shifting to the frontend and would like to capture clicks, keydown's, and submits on everything on the page.

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  • Get the last checked checkboxes...

    - by Sara
    Hi everyone, I'm not sure how to accomplish this issue which has been confusing me for a few days. I have a form that updates a user record in MySQL when a checkbox is checked. Now, this is how my form does this: if (isset($_POST['Update'])) { $paymentr = $_POST['paymentr']; //put checkboxes array into variable $paymentr2 = implode(', ', $paymentr); //implode array for mysql $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentreceived=NULL"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentdate='0000-00-00'"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentreceived='Yes' WHERE id IN ($paymentr2)"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentdate=NOW() WHERE id IN ($paymentr2)"; $result = mysql_query($query); foreach ($paymentr as $v) { //should collect last updated records and put them into variable for emailing. $query = "SELECT id, refid, affid FROM transactions WHERE id = '$v'"; $result = mysql_query($query) or die("Query Failed: ".mysql_errno()." - ".mysql_error()."<BR>\n$query<BR>\n"); $trans = mysql_fetch_array($result, MYSQL_ASSOC); $transactions .= '<br>User ID:'.$trans['id'].' -- '.$trans['refid'].' -- '.$trans['affid'].'<br>'; } } Unfortunately, it then updates ALL the user records with the latest date which is not what I want it to do. The alternative I thought of was, via Javascript, giving the checkbox a value that would be dynamically updated when the user selected it. Then, only THOSE checkboxes would be put into the array. Is this possible? Is there a better solution? I'm not even sure I could wrap my brain around how to do that WITH Javascript. Does the answer perhaps lie in how my mysql code is written? Thanks - I sincerely appreciate it!!!

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  • INSERT stored procedure does not work?

    - by vikitor
    Hello, I'm trying to make an insertion from one database called suspension to the table called Notification in the ANimals database. My stored procedure is this: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[spCreateNotification] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @notRecID int, @notName nvarchar(50), @notRecStatus nvarchar(1), @notAdded smalldatetime, @notByWho int AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here INSERT INTO Animals.dbo.Notification values (@notRecID, @notName, @notRecStatus, null, @notAdded, @notByWho); END The null inserting is to replenish one column that otherwise will not be filled, I've tried different ways, like using also the names for the columns after the name of the table and then only indicate in values the fields I've got. I know it is not a problem of the stored procedure because I executed it from the sql server management studio and it works introducing the parameters. Then I guess the problem must be in the repository when I call the stored procedure: public void createNotification(Notification not) { try { DB.spCreateNotification(not.NotRecID, not.NotName, not.NotRecStatus, (DateTime)not.NotAdded, (int)not.NotByWho); } catch { return; } } It does not record the value in the database. I've been debugging and getting mad about this, because it works when I execute it manually, but not when I automatize the proccess in my application. Does anyone see anything wrong with my code? Thank you

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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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  • Forum achievements on a phpBB3 board?

    - by VIVA LA NWO
    I recently started a new community. The forum software is phpBB3, and so far so good. In an attempt to make my community more unique and interesting, I had to idea of having user achievements. Let me give you a quick run-down. Each user has achievements that they can earn (these will probably be across all users), for example an achievement for when a user hits 1,000 posts, when they upload an avatar, when one of their topics gets 1,000 views and so on. Each achievement has points, for example an achievement like uploading an avatar will be 10 points and reaching 10,000 points will grant 50 achievement points. If anyone here plays World of Warcraft you may be seeing where I'm getting the ideas from. :) What I'm struggling to get my head around though is how exactly to code this... I could keep a record of all users activity and add it to a special database table possibly, and then check via cron every minute or so if any user has met achievement criteria... but then I also want it controllable through the ACP so I can easily add new achievements and change their points etc. My mind is pretty blank when it comes to anything but the most simple things. What I really posted here for was feedback on the idea and how you all think I should go about doing this. The coding part should be pretty simple for me once I get my head around how phpBBB MODs need to be written. Thanks for reading, and I look forward to your replies. :)

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  • White Screen of Death (WSOD) in Browser

    - by nickyt
    Here's the specs: ASP.NET 3.5 using ASP.NET AJAX AJAX Control Toolkit jQuery 1.3.2 web services IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 SP1 SQLServer 2005 SP3 Site is SSL Here's the problem: I'm getting the White Screen of Death (WSOD) in pretty much any browser (at least FireFox and IE 7/8). We have an application that uses one popup window for updating records. Most of the time when you click on the [Edit] button to edit a record, the popup window opens and loads the update page. However, after editing records for a while, all of a sudden the popup window will open, but it stays blank and just hangs. The URL is in the address bar. Loading up Fiddler I noticed that the request for the update page is never sent which leads me to believe it's some kind of lockup on the client-side. If I copy the same URL that's in the popup window into a new browser window, the page generally loads fine. Observations: - Since the request is never sent to the server, it's definitely something client-side - Only appears to happen when there is some semblance of traffic on the site which is weird because this appears to be contained within client-side code - There is a web service being called in the background every few seconds checking if the user is logged on, but this doesn't cause the freeze. I'm really at a loss here. I've googled WSOD but not much seems to appear related to my specific WSOD. Any ideas?

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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  • Compare system date with a date field in SQL

    - by JeT_BluE
    I am trying to compare a date record in SQL Server with the system date. In my example the user first register with his name and date of birth which are then stored in the database. The user than logs into the web application using his name only. After logging in, his name is shown on the side where it says "Welcome "player name" using Sessions. What I am trying to show in addition to his name is a message saying "happy birthday" if his date of birth matches the system date. I have tried working with System.DateTime.Now, but what I think is that it is also comparing the year, and what I really want is the day and the month only. I would really appreciate any suggestion or help. CODE In Login page: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String name = TextBox1.Text; String date = System.DateTime.Today.ToShortDateString(); SqlConnection myconn2 = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["User"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd2 = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataReader reader; myconn2.Open(); cmd2 = new SqlCommand("Select D_O_B from User WHERE Username = @username", myconn2); cmd2.Parameters.Add("@username", SqlDbType.NVarChar).Value = name; cmd2.Connection = myconn2 cmd2.ExecuteNonQuery(); reader = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read().ToString() == date) { Session["Birthday"] = "Happy Birthday"; } } Note: I using the same reader in the code above this one, but the reader here is with a different connection. Also, reader.Read() is different than reader.HasRows? Code in Web app Page: string date = (string)(Session["Birthday"]); // Retrieving the session Label6.Text = date;

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  • How can click on a java show link programatically?

    - by Jules
    I'm trying to develop a new feature for our vb.net order entry system. At the moment I provide an assisted paypal login which loops through transactions and copies the transactions. My program then looks at this data and copies it into text boxes. The operator then approves and saves the record. So my code uses IHTMLFormElement and loops round form elements and adds values. However I only really use this to log in to paypal. See my code... Dim theObject As Object = Nothing theObject = "https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_login-run" WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Navigate2(theObject) While WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.ReadyState <> tagREADYSTATE.READYSTATE_COMPLETE Application.DoEvents() End While Dim HtmlDoc As IHTMLDocument2 = CType(WebBrowPayPal.AxWebBrowser1.Document, IHTMLDocument2) Dim FormCol As IHTMLElementCollection = HtmlDoc.forms Dim iForms As Integer = FormCol.length Dim i As Integer Dim x As Integer For i = 0 To iForms - 1 Dim oForm As IHTMLFormElement = CType(FormCol.item(CType(i, Object), CType(i, Object)), IHTMLFormElement) For x = 0 To oForm.length - 1 If oForm.elements(x).tagname = "INPUT" Then If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_email" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "[email protected]" End If If oForm.elements(x).name = "login_password" Then oForm.elements(x).value = "mypassword" End If If oForm.elements(x).type = "submit" Or _ oForm.elements(x).type = "SUBMIT" Then oForm.elements(x).click() End If End If Next Next i I'm now trying this page https://www.paypal.com/uk/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_history&nav=0.3.0 Which is the history page, which allows you to search on the paypal transaction id. Unfortunately you need to click on 'find a transaction' which then uses some javascript to shows the post fields. So the problem is that the fields I need to use are hidden. How can I click on this java link in code ?

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  • Need little assistance

    - by Umaid
    I am iterating in current days, so need little assistance for (int I=-1; I<30; I++) { for (int J=0; J=30; J++) { for (int K=1; K=30; K++) { SELECT rowid,Month, Day, Advice from MainCategory where Month= 'May ' and Day in ((cast(strftime('%d',date('now','I day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','J day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','K day')) as Integer))); } } } What if i want to go in reverse order also for (int I=-1; I<30; I--) { for (int J=0; J=30; J--) { for (int K=1; K=30; K--) { SELECT rowid,Month, Day, Advice from MainCategory where Month= 'May ' and Day in ((cast(strftime('%d',date('now','I day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','J day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','K day')) as Integer))); } } } On every previous click, i want to fetch 3 records so do i need to iterate till 3 or make it on all record 30 in a month from which i want to fetch.

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  • What's the difference between these LINQ queries ?

    - by SnAzBaZ
    I use LINQ-SQL as my DAL, I then have a project called DB which acts as my BLL. Various applications then access the BLL to read / write data from the SQL Database. I have these methods in my BLL for one particular table: public IEnumerable<SystemSalesTaxList> Get_SystemSalesTaxList() { return from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists select s; } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.SalesTaxID == strSalesTaxID).FirstOrDefault(); } public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { return Get_SystemSalesTaxList().Where(s => s.ZipCode == strZipCode).FirstOrDefault(); } All pretty straight forward I thought. Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode is always returning a null value though, even when it has a ZIP Code that exists in that table. If I write the method like this, it returns the row I want: public SystemSalesTaxList Get_SystemSalesTaxListByZipCode(string strZipCode) { var salesTax = from s in db.SystemSalesTaxLists where s.ZipCode == strZipCode select s; return salesTax.FirstOrDefault(); } Why does the other method not return the same, as the query should be identical ? Note that, the overloaded Get_SystemSalesTaxList(string strSalesTaxID) returns a record just fine when I give it a valid SalesTaxID. Is there a more efficient way to write these "helper" type classes ? Thanks!

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  • MySQL Need some help with a query

    - by Jules
    I'm trying to fix some data by adding a new field. I have a backup from a few months ago and I have restored this database to my server. I'm looking at table called pads, its primary key is PadID and the field of importance is called RemoveMeDate. In my restored (older) database there is less records with an actual date set in RemoveMeDate. My control date is 2001-01-01 00:00:00 meaning that the record is not hidden aka visible. What I need to do is select all the records from the older database / table with the control date and join with those from the newer db /table where the control date is not set. I hope I've explained that correctly. I'll try again, with numbers. I have 80,000 visible records in the older table (with control date set) and 30,000 in the newer db/table. I need to select the 50,000 from the old database, to perform an update query. Heres my query, which I'd can't get to work as I'd like. jules-fix-reasons is the old database, jules is the newer one. select p.padid from `jules-fix-reasons`.`pads` p JOIN `jules`.`pads` ON p.padid = `jules`.`pads`.`PadID` where p.RemoveMeDate <> '2001-01-01 00:00:00' AND `jules`.`pads`.RemoveMeDate = '2001-01-01 00:00:00'

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  • Oracle - UPSERT with update not executed for unmodified values

    - by Buthrakaur
    I'm using following update or insert Oracle statement at the moment: BEGIN UPDATE DSMS SET SURNAME = :SURNAME, FIRSTNAME = :FIRSTNAME, VALID = :VALID WHERE DSM = :DSM; IF (SQL%ROWCOUNT = 0) THEN INSERT INTO DSMS (DSM, SURNAME, FIRSTNAME, VALID) VALUES (:DSM, :SURNAME, :FIRSTNAME, :VALID); END IF; END; This runs fine except that the update statement performs dummy update if the data is same as the parameter values provided. I would not mind the dummy update in normal situation, but there's a replication/synchronization system build over this table using triggers on tables to capture updated records and executing this statement frequently for many records simply means that I'd cause huge traffic in triggers and the sync system. Is there any simple method how to reformulate this code that the update statement wouldn't update record if not necessary without using following IF-EXISTS check code which I find not sleek enough and maybe also not most efficient for this task? DECLARE CNT NUMBER; BEGIN SELECT COUNT(1) INTO CNT FROM DSMS WHERE DSM = :DSM; IF SQL%FOUND THEN UPDATE DSMS SET SURNAME = :SURNAME, FIRSTNAME = :FIRSTNAME, VALID = :VALID WHERE DSM = :DSM AND (SURNAME != :SURNAME OR FIRSTNAME != :FIRSTNAME OR VALID != :VALID); ELSE INSERT INTO DSMS (DSM, SURNAME, FIRSTNAME, VALID) VALUES (:DSM, :SURNAME, :FIRSTNAME, :VALID); END IF; END;

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  • NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

    - by chiccodoro
    I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • Chinese records of sqlite databse are in not accessable in iphone app

    - by Mas
    Hi! I'm creating an iphone app. In which I'm reading data from the sqlite db and presenting it in the tableview control. Problem is that the data is in chinese language. Due to unknown reason, when I read/fetch record from the sqlite table, some records are presented and other are missed by objc. Even objc reads some columns of the missing values, But returns the nil results of the some columns. In reality these columns are not empty. I tried many solutions but didn't find any suitable. Same database is working perfectly in the android version of the app. Any one can help here is the code of reading the chinese records from table Quote *q = [[Quote alloc] init]; q.catId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); q.subCatId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 1); q.quote = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 2)]; and here is the some records which iphone misses ??????·??? ??????,????????! ??????,??????? Thanks

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  • Rails database relationships

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I have three models that I want to interact with each other. Kase, Person and and Company. I have (I think) setup the relationships correctly: class Kase < ActiveRecord::Base #HAS ONE COMPANY has_one :company #HAS MANY PERSONS has_many :persons class Person < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :persons def to_s; companyname; end I have put the select field on the create new Kase view, and the create new Person view as follows: <li>Company<span><%= f.select :company_id, Company.all %> </span></li> All of the above successfully shows a drop down menu dynamically populated with the company names within Companies. What I am trying to do is display the contact of the Company record within the kase and person show.html.erb. For example, If I have a company called "Acme, Inc." and create a new Kase called "Random Case" and choose within the create new case page "Acme, Inc." from the companies drop down menu. I would then want to display "Acme, Inc" along with "Acme, Inc. Mobile" etc. on the "Random Case" show.html.erb. I hope this makes sense to somebody! Thanks, Danny

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