Search Results

Search found 5866 results on 235 pages for 'authentication'.

Page 221/235 | < Previous Page | 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228  | Next Page >

  • CSS rules not getting applied in JSPs ?

    - by lakshmanan
    Im building a web application using struts2. I have an authentication interceptor at the top of all the interceptors (I have set it up as such) which checks whether a user is logged in. If not, it will give a login page as result. In login page, I have some set of standard CSS rules which I use for all the JSPs in the app. But that login page coming via that interceptor is not getting applied with CSS rules. Don't know why. Here is my JSP login page. <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" href="styles/styles.css" type="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>Projit Login </title> </head> <body> <div id="header"> <h1>Projit</h1> </div> <div id="col1"> <s:form action="/login.action"> <s:textfield name="some field" label="Enter somefield" /> <s:textfield name="username" label="Username" /> <s:password name="password" label="Password" /> <s:submit value="Sign In" /> </s:form> </div> <div id="col2"> <h3>Login</h3> </div> <div id="footer"> some footer </div> </body> </html> the css file is present in WebContent/styles/styles.css I am using eclipse for development. this problem of CSS rules not getting applied occurs at times for other jsps as well inspite of the CSS file being present in the correct location. I guess there must be some URL thing behind this problem. I have tried hard but it is not working till now. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

    - by user193655
    My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

    Read the article

  • Reporting Services as PDF through WebRequest in C# 3.5 "Not Supported File Type"

    - by Heath Allison
    I've inherited a legacy application that is supposed to grab an on the fly pdf from a reporting services server. Everything works fine up until the point where you try to open the pdf being returned and adobe acrobat tells you: Adobe Reader could not open 'thisStoopidReport'.pdf' because it is either not a supported file type or because the file has been damaged(for example, it was sent as an email attachment and wasn't correctly decoded). I've done some initial troubleshooting on this. If I replace the url in the WebRequest.Create() call with a valid pdf file on my local machine ie: @"C:temp/validpdf.pdf") then I get a valid PDF. The report itself seems to work fine. If I manually type the URL to the reporting services report that should generate the pdf file I am prompted for user authentication. But after supplying it I get a valid pdf file. I've replace the actual url,username,userpass and domain strings in the code below with bogus values for obvious reasons. WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(@"http://x.x.x.x/reportServer?/reports/reportNam&rs:format=pdf&rs:command=render&rc:parameters=blahblahblah"); int totalSize = 0; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("validUser", "validPass", "validDomain"); request.Timeout = 360000; // 6 minutes in milliseconds. request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Post; request.ContentLength = 0; WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); Response.Clear(); BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(response.GetResponseStream()); Byte[] buffer = new byte[2048]; int count = reader.Read(buffer, 0, 2048); while (count > 0) { totalSize += count; Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); count = reader.Read(buffer, 0, 2048); } Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); Response.CacheControl = "private"; Response.Expires = 30; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=thisStoopidReport.pdf"); Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", totalSize.ToString()); reader.Close(); Response.Flush(); Response.End();

    Read the article

  • .NET 2.0 Process Elevation for App Installation

    - by Brian Gillespie
    We have an application written in both C++ and .NET that installs for all users in the Program Files folder. This application downloads new versions of itself (as MSI installers) and spawns the new installer process to replace itself. The install process as it exists today: Copy an install manager app (C#, .NET 2.0) to the temp directory. Call this 'Manager' Manager is executed with elevated privs per this article. The original application exits. Manager spawns the MSI installer (with elevated privs, since the copy is elevated) Manager spawns the new version of the app. The bug: The newly installed app is running in an elevated state. This causes problems I won't enumerate here. Ideally, the launch of the newly installed app would be run with the permissions of the original user. I can't figure out how to demote the app back to being the standard user after elevation. An inelegant hack: (yeah, yeah, this whole process is inelegant anyway) Copy the install manager to the temp directory Run the install manager with standard user privs. Lets call this instance 'LowlyManager'. Original application exits. LowlyManager spawns the app again, this time with elevated privs. Let's name this instance 'UpperManagement' UpperManagement spawns the installer UpperManagement exits gracefully, returning the exit code of the installer. LowlyManager interprets the error code from UpperManagement, and spawns the newly installed application. This time as the original invoker. Is there a better way to do this? (I've left out a bunch of other details before and after these steps that make the process smoother for the user, but this should be enough to understand the core of the problem I'm trying to solve.) Other requirements: We can't install as a per-user app The user shouldn't be presented with an authentication dialog box if UAC would have simply asked "are you sure you want to allow this?". I think this might kill a solution using WindowsImpersonationContext, but I'm not sure. The system needs to work on XP, Vista, and Windows 7 (even if there is a separate process for XP).

    Read the article

  • The remote server returned an error: NotFound.

    - by xscape
    Hi, I'm trying to retrieve a string in my old webservice but it give me an error of The remote server returned an error: NotFound. and its InnerException is {System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. --- System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClass5.b_4(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass2.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result)} this is the method which error prompted, this method returns a string format void client_ValidateUserEncryptedCompleted(object sender, DummyWS.ValidateUserEncryptedCompletedEventArgs e) { object token = e.Result; client = new DummyWS.MachineHistoryWSSoapClient(); if (token != null) { client.GetSummaryXMLAsync(token, "", ""); } } I am currently using Silverlight 4.0 and my ServiceReferences.ClientConfig is <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="MachineHistoryWSSoap" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost/MHVwsModified/MachineHistoryWS.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="MachineHistoryWSSoap" contract="DummyWS.MachineHistoryWSSoap" name="MachineHistoryWSSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> My Web.Config in my web service is <configuration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Windows.Forms, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /></assemblies></compilation> <authentication mode="Windows" /> </system.web> <system.webServer> <directoryBrowse enabled="true" /> </system.webServer> Any help will be aprreciated thank you.

    Read the article

  • Set maven to use archiva repositories WITHOUT using activeByDefault?

    - by Sam Levin
    I am very close to finally having a working setup with archiva and maven. The last thing that's really boggling me, is how to set up my internal and snapshot repositories - without using a profile which contains activeByDefault set to true. I am using a SUPER super pom - a company-wide pom which contains distributionManagement information for releases. I was thinking that I could specify the repositories in this pom, and configure the authentication settings in settings.xml? Can I use repositories tag without a profile? There should be no "profile" for my internal and snapshot repositories, as they will never change... What I'm trying to steer clear from, is using a "default" profile, which is active all the time. I hear activeByDefault is NOT a best practice and I don't intend to use it. With that said, how should I go about doing this? My internal repo is a mirror of the maven central repo, so I would like to lock down my developers to ONLY use our internal artifact server. Remember - I do NOT want a profile with activeByDefault set to true. I cannot stress this enough! Should I use Maven mirrors? Should I "add" additional repositories? If I take the repositories tag instead of the mirrors tag, will maven force builds to use ONLY my archiva settings, instead of the default maven central? Or is what I seek to accomplish able to be done using only the mirrors tag in maven? I know how to configure repo credentials when using repositories tag, but not with mirrors. How is this done? Is providing credentials for anything in mirrors tags the same as for anything in repositories tags? Am I missing something obvious? I've had it up to here with getting things up and running using maven. I know it will be worthwhile in the end, but it is surely causing me a ton of aggravation and resources seem to be sparse. Either that, or people are content using it however they please without regard to best-practices. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

    - by Erik Neu
    I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

    Read the article

  • NO FBML is working in iframe in facebook using PHP (ie or ff or anywhere else!)

    - by Cyprus106
    I have tried for three days now and gotten nowhere on this.... I absolutely can not get any "fb:" code to render anything! I've tried the exact code in the sandbox and it works fine. I've read through every search result I could find and gotten nowhere... I'm using a standard xd_receiver page, and in the body there's this line: < script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/XdCommReceiver.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Here's my index page. It's basically the stock facebook example code.... <?php require_once 'facebook-platform/php/facebook.php'; //Authentication Keys $appapikey = 'MY_KEY'; // obviously this is my real key $appsecret = 'MY_SECRET'; // same thing $facebook = new Facebook($appapikey, $appsecret); $user_id = $facebook->require_login(); ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> <head></head> <body> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> <? echo "<p>Hello, <fb:name uid=\"$user_id\" useyou=\"false\"></fb:name>!</p>"; ?> <script type="text/javascript"> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML"], function(){ FB.Facebook.init("<?php echo $appapikey; ?>", "xd_receiver.htm"); }); </script> </body> </html> oddly enough, when I put this code below where it echos the logged in user's name, it does show the id numbers of friends. But again, it won't render their names <?php friends.get API method echo "<p>Friends:"; $friends = $facebook->api_client->friends_get(); $friends = array_slice($friends, 0, 25); foreach ($friends as $friend) { echo "<br>".$friend." - <fb:name uid=\".$user_id.\" useyou=\"false\"></fb:name>"; } echo "</p>"; ?> Here's my settings: Canvas Callback URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Canvas URL http://apps.facebook.com/gogre_testapp/ FBML/iframe iframe Application Type Website Post-Remove URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Post-Authorize URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Please, somebody help me out! I've been trying unsuccessfully for days

    Read the article

  • Accidental Complexity in OpenSSL HMAC functions

    - by Hassan Syed
    SSL Documentation Analaysis This question is pertaining the usage of the HMAC routines in OpenSSL. Since Openssl documentation is a tad on the weak side in certain areas, profiling has revealed that using the: unsigned char *HMAC(const EVP_MD *evp_md, const void *key, int key_len, const unsigned char *d, int n, unsigned char *md, unsigned int *md_len); From here, shows 40% of my library runtime is devoted to creating and taking down **HMAC_CTX's behind the scenes. There are also two additional function to create and destroy a HMAC_CTX explicetly: HMAC_CTX_init() initialises a HMAC_CTX before first use. It must be called. HMAC_CTX_cleanup() erases the key and other data from the HMAC_CTX and releases any associated resources. It must be called when an HMAC_CTX is no longer required. These two function calls are prefixed with: The following functions may be used if the message is not completely stored in memory My data fits entirely in memory, so I choose the HMAC function -- the one whose signature is shown above. The context, as described by the man page, is made use of by using the following two functions: HMAC_Update() can be called repeatedly with chunks of the message to be authenticated (len bytes at data). HMAC_Final() places the message authentication code in md, which must have space for the hash function output. The Scope of the Application My application generates a authentic (HMAC, which is also used a nonce), CBC-BF encrypted protocol buffer string. The code will be interfaced with various web-servers and frameworks Windows / Linux as OS, nginx, Apache and IIS as webservers and Python / .NET and C++ web-server filters. The description above should clarify that the library needs to be thread safe, and potentially have resumeable processing state -- i.e., lightweight threads sharing a OS thread (which might leave thread local memory out of the picture). The Question How do I get rid of the 40% overhead on each invocation in a (1) thread-safe / (2) resume-able state way ? (2) is optional since I have all of the source-data present in one go, and can make sure a digest is created in place without relinquishing control of the thread mid-digest-creation. So, (1) can probably be done using thread local memory -- but how do I resuse the CTX's ? does the HMAC_final() call make the CTX reusable ?. (2) optional: in this case I would have to create a pool of CTX's. (3) how does the HMAC function do this ? does it create a CTX in the scope of the function call and destroy it ? Psuedocode and commentary will be useful.

    Read the article

  • What to Return? Error String, Bool with Error String Out, or Void with Exception

    - by Ranger Pretzel
    I spend most of my time in C# and am trying to figure out which is the best practice for handling an exception and cleanly return an error message from a called method back to the calling method. For example, here is some ActiveDirectory authentication code. Please imagine this Method as part of a Class (and not just a standalone function.) bool IsUserAuthenticated(string domain, string user, string pass, out errStr) { bool authentic = false; try { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; // No exception thrown? We must be good, then. authentic = true; } catch (Exception e) { errStr = e.Message().ToString(); } return authentic; } The advantages of doing it this way are a clear YES or NO that you can embed right in your If-Then-Else statement. The downside is that it also requires the person using the method to supply a string to get the Error back (if any.) I guess I could overload this method with the same parameters minus the "out errStr", but ignoring the error seems like a bad idea since there can be many reasons for such a failure... Alternatively, I could write a method that returns an Error String (instead of using "out errStr") in which a returned empty string means that the user authenticated fine. string AuthenticateUser(string domain, string user, string pass) { string errStr = ""; try { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; } catch (Exception e) { errStr = e.Message().ToString(); } return errStr; } But this seems like a "weak" way of doing things. Or should I just make my method "void" and just not handle the exception so that it gets passed back to the calling function? void AuthenticateUser(string domain, string user, string pass) { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; } This seems the most sane to me (for some reason). Yet at the same time, the only real advantage of wrapping those 2 lines over just typing those 2 lines everywhere I need to authenticate is that I don't need to include the "LDAP://" string. The downside with this way of doing it is that the user has to put this method in a try-catch block. Thoughts? Is there another way of doing this that I'm not thinking of?

    Read the article

  • Job queue manager with RPC interface

    - by admr
    I need a job queue manager that I can control over the Internet. It should be able to execute and stop processes, check on their status (ideally notice and execute some code when a process exits), respond to commands and also be able to report back to a server. Background: I have a GWT application that allows to create jobs to execute on a cloud instance (currently EC2). I want to push a "job packet" (data for a process to operate on etc) to S3, start a Linux EC2 instance (or use one that's already running), and tell a job manager on the instance to execute that job (possibly parallel to other jobs). It should then pull the "job packet" from S3, run a process that operates on that data and report back to the server that is running the server part of my GWT application with some information (e.g. exit code, stdout, stderr). If I have to write e.g. stdour/err to a file from the process and read that file, that's OK too. I would really like the manager to be "close" to the processes it runs, meaning I want to avoid using something like Runtime.exec from the JDK. It seems like I would have to do that if I used Quartz for example. I'm fine with the calls in both directions being asynchronous. I'm fine with any reasonable technology for the calls as long as I can easily build an interface for that in my GWT server side (e.g. HTTP requests to a servlet over SSL would be nice and trivial). The job manager does not need to have a very sophisticated queueing system. Running several processes either sequentially or in parallel should be fine. Determining how much compute time a process received during its lifetime would be nice (AFAIK, this might be challenging). I did not yet find any existing software that does this, including http://java-source.net/open-source/job-schedulers. I suspect I might have to build an RPC interface (with authentication etc, of course) around a job manager; maybe use something like Apache Commons Exec. In that case, I would prefer Java or Python for the job manager part. I would be happy to hear suggestions for either the former or latter scenario!

    Read the article

  • Finding underlying cause of Window 7 Account corruption.

    - by Carl Jokl
    I have been having trouble with my Sister's computer which I built. It is running Windows 7 Ultimate x64. The problem is that I have had problems with the accounts becoming corrupted. First problems manifest themselves in the form of Windows saying the profile failed to be loaded properly and a temporary profile. Eventually the account will not allow login at all. An error message along the lines the authentication service failing the login. I have found information about this problem and how to fix it. The problem being that something has corrupted the account profile and backing up and recreating the accounts fixes the problem. I have been able to fix things and get logins working again but over the period of usually about a week it happens again. Bit by bit the accounts corrupt and then it is back to square one. I am frustrated because I don't know what the underlying cause of the problem is i.e. what is causing the accounts to be corrupted in the first place. At the moment I am just treating the symptoms. I was hoping someone who may have more experience with dealing with this problem might be able to help me find the root cause. Some articles suggest that Norton Internet Security is a big culprit of this problem which is installed. I could try uninstalling Norton and see if it helps. The one thing which is different about this computer to any other I have built is that it has a solid state drive. Actually it has both a hard drive and solid state drive. The documents and settings i.e. the Users directory is stored on the hard drive. This was done following an article about moving the user account data onto a separate drive on Windows 7 which I found on the Internet. Moving the User accounts is more of a pain under Windows 7 and this solution involved creating a low level file system link to the folder from the boot drive (Solid State) to the Hard Drive. The idea is that the computer behaves just as if it is accessing the User's folder from the boot drive but actually the data is stored on the hard drive. This may have nothing to do with the cause of the problem but due to the problem being user account corruption it is a possibility I have not been able to rule out. Any help would be appreciated as I would be glad to see the back of this problem.

    Read the article

  • Validate an Xml file against a DTD with a proxy. C# 2.0

    - by Chris Dunaway
    I have looked at many examples for validating an XML file against a DTD, but have not found one that allows me to use a proxy. I have a cXml file as follows (abbreviated for display) which I wish to validate: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE cXML SYSTEM "http://xml.cxml.org/schemas/cXML/1.2.018/InvoiceDetail.dtd"> <cXML payloadID="123456" timestamp="2009-12-10T10:05:30-06:00"> <!-- content snipped --> </cXML> I am trying to create a simple C# program to validate the xml against the DTD. I have tried code such as the following but cannot figure out how to get it to use a proxy: private static bool isValid = false; static void Main(string[] args) { try { XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(args[0]); XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); settings.ProhibitDtd = false; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD; settings.ValidationEventHandler += new ValidationEventHandler(v_ValidationEventHandler); XmlReader validator = XmlReader.Create(r, settings); while (validator.Read()) ; validator.Close(); // Check whether the document is valid or invalid. if (isValid) Console.WriteLine("Document is valid"); else Console.WriteLine("Document is invalid"); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } static void v_ValidationEventHandler(object sender, ValidationEventArgs e) { isValid = false; Console.WriteLine("Validation event\n" + e.Message); } The exception I receive is System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required. which occurs on the line while (validator.Read()) ; I know I can validate against a DTD locally, but I don't want to change the xml DOCTYPE since that is what the final form needs to be (this app is solely for diagnostic purposes). For more information about the cXML spec, you can go to cxml.org. I appreciate any assistance. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How would a php or java client authenticate if I'm using WCF w/ forms auth?

    - by Toran Billups
    I have a generic proof of concept WCF service that is using forms authentication to secure access. All works great when my client is .NET (vb code below) Dim client As SupplierServiceClient = New SupplierServiceClient() client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]" client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password" Dim SupplierList As List(Of Supplier) = client.GetSuppliers() but as I want this to interop w/ anyone who can do SOAP 1.1/1.2 - how would a PHP or Java client connect? My WCF web.config is listed below (fyi) <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.SupplierService" behaviorConfiguration="NorthwindBehavior"> <endpoint address="" name="wsHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="wsHttp"/> <endpoint address="https://server/SampleApplicationWCF/SupplierService.svc/Basic" name="basicHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttp"/> <endpoint contract="IMetadataExchange" binding="mexHttpBinding" address="mex"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="NorthwindBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel>

    Read the article

  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net login problem.

    - by Catarrunas
    Hello, im building a asp.net web site with 2.0 framework. I've been "fighting" with web.config, i've changed it quiet some times. So to start from scracht this is what i have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <configuration> <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="ABC" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> <location path="Members"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"/> </system.web></configuration> It works fine im my machine. I've created the users for the login and the role to access the "Members" folder. But in my host company, it doesnt work. I have the aspnet database from my computer in that databese "jsilvaqqc.mdf". When i try to log on pops up box requiring autentication. But i've alreadu given that in the log in form. Do i need aspnet "authentication" tag? Why dont i need it in my machine if i access the same database? Thanks for you help.

    Read the article

  • Combined sign in and registration page?

    - by Ryan
    This is somewhat against rails convention but I am trying to have one controller that manages both user session authentication and user registration. I am having troubles figuring out how to go about this. So far I am merging the User Controller and the Sessions Controller and having the 'new' method deliver both a new usersession and a new user instance. With the new routes in rails 3 though, I am having trouble figuring out how to generate forms for these items. Below is the code: user_controller.rb class UserController < ApplicationController def new @user_session = UserSession.new @user = User.new end def create_user @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:notice] = "Account Successfully Registered" redirect_back_or_default signup_path else render :action => new end end def create_session @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default login_path else render :action => new end end end views/user/new.html.erb <div id="login_section"> <% form_for @user_session do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.submit "Login", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> <div id="registration_section"> <% form_for @user do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.label :password_confirmation, "Password Confirmation" %> <%= f.text_field :password_confirmation %> <%= f.submit "Register", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> I imagine I will need to use :url = something for those forms, but I am unsure how to specify. Within routes.rb I have yet to specify either Usersor UserSessions as resources (not convinced that this is the best way to do it... but I could be). I would like, however, the registration and login on the same page and have implemented this by doing the following: routes.rb match 'signup' => 'user#new' match 'login' => 'user#new' What's the best way to go about solving this?

    Read the article

  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

    Read the article

  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

    Read the article

  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

    Read the article

  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

    Read the article

  • I'm searching for a messaging platform (like XMPP) that allows tight integration with a web applicat

    - by loxs
    Hi, At the company I work for, we are building a cluster of web applications for collaboration. Things like accounting, billing, CRM etc. We are using a RESTfull technique: For database we use CouchDB Different applications communicate with one another and with the database via http. Besides, we have a single sign on solution, so that when you login in one application, you are automatically logged to the other. For all apps we use Python (Pylons). Now we need to add instant messaging to the stack. We need to support both web and desktop clients. But just being able to chat is not enough. We need to be able to achieve all of the following (and more similar things). When somebody gets assigned to a task, they must receive a message. I guess this is possible with some system daemon. There must be an option to automatically group people in groups by lots of different properties. For example, there must be groups divided both by geographical location, by company division, by job type (all the programers from different cities and different company divisions must form a group), so that one can send mass messages to a group of choice. Rooms should be automatically created and destroyed. For example when several people visit the same invoice, a room for them must be automatically created (and they must auto-join). And when all leave the invoice, the room must be destroyed. Authentication and authorization from our applications. I can implement this using custom solutions like hookbox http://hookbox.org/docs/intro.html but then I'll have lots of problems in supporting desktop clients. I have no former experience with instant messaging. I've been reading about this lately. I've been looking mostly at things like ejabberd. But it has been a hard time and I can't find whether what I want is possible at all. So I'd be happy if people with experience in this field could help me with some advice, articles, tales of what is possible etc.

    Read the article

  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

    Read the article

  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

    Read the article

  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228  | Next Page >