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• Modify url in browser using javascript?

  - by user246114

  Hi, Is it possible to change the url in the user's browser without actually loading a page, using javascript? I don't think it is (could lead to unwanted behavior), I'm in a situation where this would be convenient though: I have a web app which displays reports generated by users. Layout roughly looks like: ----------------------------------------------------------- Column 1 | Column 2 ----------------------------------------------------------- Report A | Report B | Currently selected report contents here. Report C | right now the user would be looking at a url like: www.mysite.com/user123 To see the above page. When the user clicks the report names in column 1, I load the contents of that report in column 2 using ajax. This is convenient for the user, but the url in their browser remains unchanged. The users want to copy the url for a report to share with friends, so I suppose I could provide a button to generate a url for them, but it would just be more convenient for them to have it already as the url in their browser, something like: www.mysite.com/user123/reportb the alternate is to not load the contents of the report in column 2 using ajax, but rather a full page refresh. This would at least have a linkable url ready for the user in their url bar, but not as convenient as using ajax. Thanks

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• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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• Inconsistent canvas drawing in Android browser

  - by user2943466

  In putting together a small canvas app I've stumbled across a weird behavior that only seems to occur in the default browser in Android. When drawing to a canvas that has the globalCompositeOperation set to 'destination-out' to act as the 'eraser' tool, Android browser sometimes acts as expected, sometimes does not update the pixels in the canvas at all. the setup: context.clearRect(0,0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.drawImage(img, 0, 0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.globalCompositeOperation = 'destination-out'; draw a circle to erase pixels from the canvas: context.fillStyle = '#FFFFFF'; context.beginPath(); context.arc(x,y,25,0,TWO_PI,true); context.fill(); context.closePath(); a small demo to illustrate the issue can be seen here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/ and the javascript is here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/js/main.js this has been tested in multiple desktop and mobile browsers and behaves as expected. On Android native browser after refreshing the page sometimes it works, sometimes nothing happens. I've seen other hacks that move the canvas by a pixel in order to force a redraw but this is not an ideal solution.. Thanks all.

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• Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

  - by chernevik

  I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

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• OnEditorActionListener called twice with same eventTime on SenseUI keyboard

  - by ydant

  On just one phone I am testing on (HTC Incredible, Android 2.2, Software 3.21.605.1), I am experiencing the following behavior. The onEditorAction event handler is being called twice (immediately) when the Enter key on the Sense UI keyboard is pressed. The KeyEvent.getEventTime() is the same for both times the event is called, leading me to this work-around: protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { [...] EditText text = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.txtBox); text.setOnEditorActionListener(new OnEditorActionListener() { private long lastCalled = -1; public boolean onEditorAction(TextView v, int actionId, KeyEvent event) { if ( event.getEventTime() == lastCalled ) { return false; } else { lastCalled = event.getEventTime(); handleNextButton(v); return true; } } }); [...] } The EditText is defined as: <EditText android:layout_width="150sp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtBox" android:imeOptions="actionNext" android:capitalize="characters" android:singleLine="true" android:inputType="textVisiblePassword|textCapCharacters|textNoSuggestions" android:autoText="false" android:editable="true" android:maxLength="6" /> On all other devices I've tested on, the action button is properly labeled "Next" and the event is only called a single time when that button is pressed. Is this a bug in Sense UI's keyboard, or am I doing something incorrectly? Thank you for any assistance.

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• ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

  - by Daniel Koverman

  I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

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• C# / this. and List<T>

  - by user3533030

  I am having trouble understanding how to initialize a List of objects and use it with methods inside of a class. I understand the mechanics of the List, but not how to initialize it inside a method and use it later. For example, I want to have a class that creates the List when it is constructed. Then, I want to use a method of that class to add elements to the list. The elements in the list are objects defined by the SolidWorks API. So, to construct the List, I used... public class ExportPoints : Exporter { public List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints; public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); } public void createListOfFreePoints() { try { [imagine more code here] this.listOfSketchPoints.Add(pointTest); } catch (Exception e) { Debug.Print(e.ToString()); return; } } This fails during execution as if the listOfSketchPoints was never initialized as a List. So, I tried a hack and this worked: public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); this.listOfSketchPoints = listOfSketchPoints; } This approach creates the behavior that I want. However, it seems that I lack some understanding as to why this is necessary. Shouldn't it be possible to "initialize" a List that is a property of your object with a constructor? Why would you need to create the list, then assign the pointer of that new List to your property?

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• Looking for PyQt4 embeddable terminal widget

  - by redShadow

  I wrote an application that, among other things, launches some "backend" processes to do some stuff. These subprocesses are very likely to fail or have unexpected behavior since they have to operate in quite hard conditions, so I prefer to give full control over them to the operator. NOTE: I am running these processes using a subprocess module based class instead of QProcess to have some more control functionality over the running process. At the moment, I'm using a QPlainTextEdit widget to which I append standard output/error from the subprocess, plus some buttons to quickly send some common signals (INT, STOP, CONT, KILL, ..), but: In some cases it would be useful to send some input too. Although it could be done with a text input box, I would prefer using something more "professional" Of course, there is no direct way to interpret special control characters, such as color codes, cursor movement, etc.. I had to implement an auto-scroll management of the console, but it is not guaranteed 100% to work nicely (sometimes the scroll locking doesn't work as expected, etc.) So: does anyone know something I could use to accomplish these needs? I found qtermwidget but it seems more oriented on handling a shell process (and the Python bindings seems to let you run /bin/bash only) by itself than communicating with an already existing process I/O.

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• C++ const-reference semantics?

  - by Kristoffer

  Consider the sample application below. It demonstrates what I would call a flawed class design. #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct B { B() : m_value(1) {} long m_value; }; struct A { const B& GetB() const { return m_B; } void Foo(const B &b) { // assert(this != &b); m_B.m_value += b.m_value; m_B.m_value += b.m_value; } protected: B m_B; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { A a; cout << "Original value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; cout << "Expected value: 3" << endl; a.Foo(a.GetB()); cout << "Actual value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; return 0; } Output: Original value: 1 Expected value: 3 Actual value: 4 Obviously, the programmer is fooled by the constness of b. By mistake b points to this, which yields the undesired behavior. My question: What const-rules should you follow when designing getters/setters? My suggestion: Never return a reference to a member variable if it can be set by reference through a member function. Hence, either return by value or pass parameters by value. (Modern compilers will optimize away the extra copy anyway.)

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• How to make a piece of WPF content take up the entire application window

  - by Bojin Li

  I'm working on an application that contains a number of content areas. I want to implement a behavior such that in response to user input, any of these content areas can be toggled to fit the entire application window, and optionally back to its original position again. I experimented with several approaches and none of them seem optimal for me. Here's what I tried to do: Use the ClipToBoundsProperty on the content I want to make "Full Screen": Doesn't work because only the CanvasPanel seems to fully respect this property. The application need to be localized so I would really like to avoid the CanvasPanel. Use a Grid and collapse the other content areas, such that only the one I want to see is visible, hence taking up the entire screen: This will probably work but doesn't seem easy to implement nor maintain. The "Full Screen" content area could be several levels deep, for example residing inside a Tabcontrol, so I would have to hide the tab headers too etc. Reconstruct the content area in a separate view and display it while hiding the rest: Seems easy enough to do with DataTemplates and my ViewModel objects, but any GUI/View only states are not preserved using this approach. Somehow "lift" the GUI/View I want to "Full Screen" into the separate view and display it while hiding the rest: I don't know how to do this or even if this is possible. Anyway if anyone knows a better approach I would love to know about it. Thanks a lot!

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• WPF Calling a custom command on a custom control (from a viewmodel?)

  - by user190615

  I want to take a snap of the visual tree of a custom wpf control when the user clicks a button in a toolbar. The control is bound to a viewmodel. I have a BitmapSource dp in the custom control holding the snapped image which is bound to a property on my VM. The BitmapSource dp on the control is updated via a custom command on the control. I've tied the toolbar button's command to call the controls command which updates the BitmapSource. Now the problem is the end result I want is when the user clicks the button, the control updates its image and then the vm offers to save this image. I cant wrap my mind around an mvvm way of doing this. One inelegant solution is that control fires an event after the image is updated which is routed to the viewmodel as a command(command behavior) but then if i want to do something else with the image on some other button click, all the commands bound to the events will fire. All thoughts appreciated. EDIT The command on the control is a RoutedCommand and the commands in my vm are Prism delegate commands.

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• Gmail Sync on Android phone

  - by sunocky

  Android has the Gmail push features, which means the new message arrives in the mailbox without checking or refreshing the mailbox. As I understand, the sync processes are like these: 1) User turns on the sync 2) There will be a alert msg and the sync flag in the Gmail DB of this device will be True 3) When a new email reach the Gmail Server, it will check if the device sync value, if it's True then send the email OK, here, I don't quite understand how exactly does it work, For a WiFi and cell signal connection, does the phone has a TCP socket open keep listening to the Gmail Server, or when a new email arrives the Server send a SMS alert to the phone, and then it will open the data channel to fetch the email? Are the two ways of connections have different approaches? And second question is which method is the priority one? Say when you are in the middle of receiving data(emails), and suddenly the phone connect to a wireless network, will the data socket be closed and then reopened for the WiFi one? What's the behavior for the case when carrier's data channel and WiFi flips? I have also downloaded the source code, anyone knows which part should I be looking into in order to solves my questions? I found a folder called "email" inside the folder "package", should I be looking at its code? I know I asked quite some questions here, I'd appreciate if you know the answer for any of them, thanks very much!

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• Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

  - by bcrist

  I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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• (iphone) How to access CGRect member variable inside c++ class?

  - by Eugene

  i have a c++ class with CGrect variable and i'm getting segfault when trying to access it. class Parent { //with some virtual functions/dtors }; class Child { public: void SetRect(CGRect rect) { mRect = rect; } CGRect GetRect() { return mRect; } int GetIndex() { return mIndex; } private: CGRect mRect; int mIndex; }; i'm doing CGRect rect = childPtr->GetRect(); from object c code and it segfaults. I printed *childPtr just before the call and rect looks fine with intended data value. int index = childPtr->GetIndex(); from same object c code(*.mm), works fine though. Any idea why I'm getting segfaults? Thank you edit - It's got something to do with virtual functions. (gdb) p singlePuzzlePiece-GetRect() Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_PROTECTION_FAILURE at address: 0x00000001 0x00000001 in ?? () Cannot access memory at address 0x1 The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB remains in the frame where the signal was received. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal on" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (at 0x1) will be abandoned. (gdb) Somehow, the function is not properly compiled?

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• Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

  - by siemaa

  Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

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• When are temporaries created as part of a function call destroyed?

  - by Michael Mrozek

  Is a temporary created as part of an argument to a function call guaranteed to stay around until the called function ends, even if the temporary isn't passed directly to the function? There's virtually no chance that was coherent, so here's an example: class A { public: A(int x) : x(x) {printf("Constructed A(%d)\n", x);} ~A() {printf("Destroyed A\n");} int x; int* y() {return &x;} }; void foo(int* bar) { printf("foo(): %d\n", *bar); } int main(int argc, char** argv) { foo(A(4).y()); } If A(4) were passed directly to foo it would definitely not be destroyed until after the foo call ended, but instead I'm calling a method on the temporary and losing any reference to it. I would instinctively think the temporary A would be destroyed before foo even starts, but testing with GCC 4.3.4 shows it isn't; the output is: Constructed A(4) foo(): 4 Destroyed A The question is, is GCC's behavior guaranteed by the spec? Or is a compiler allowed to destroy the temporary A before the call to foo, invaliding the pointer to its member I'm using?

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• Writing all the html of a document with jquery instead of in the page body?

  - by Robert

  I'm a UI person currently working on a web application, where most of the people I work with are back end developers. I'm currently at a disagreement with them about whether or not the above is a prudent thing to do. This application doe use quite a bit of JavaScript, and wouldn't even work without it unfortunately. This being the case, One of the back end developers that I'm working with is claiming that pages could and even SHOULD be build completely with JavaScript or jquery. This caught me completely off guard. We're talking about div tags, lists, background images and text here. I'm trying to explain to him that this isn't the right way to do things at all, and from a best practices perspective: content(html) should be separate from presentation(css), and behavior(script etc.). I know that it's possible to write html in jquery, although I haven't done it, but am I wrong in my thinking that this isn't the way things should be done. Is it even possible to write ALL the code with jquery? would love to hear any thoughts either way, as I will be discussing this with him again tomorrow.

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• (JQuery) How to call a custom function before following link

  - by morpheous

  I want to achieve the following behavior in a page link. When the link is clicked, I want to: First, send (POST) some data back to the server Second, allow the browser to navigate to the url that the link was pointing to. I am relatively new to JQuery, and here is my first attempt below. I will be grateful to any jQuery gurus in here to fillin the blanks (and maybe point out how the snippet below may be improved). <html> <head>test page</head> <body> <div><a id="hotlink" href="http://www.example.com">Clik and see</a></div> </body> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('hotlink').click(function(){ //AJAX Post data here ... //follow the link url (i.e. navigate/browse to the link) ... }); }); </script> </html>

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• android service using SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead of SystemClock.uptimeMillis() works in emulator but not in samsung captivate ?

  - by Aleadam

  First question here in stackoverflow :) I'm running a little android 2.2 app to log cpu frequency usage. It is set up as a service that will write the data every 10 seconds using a new thread. The code for that part is very basic (see below). It works fine, except that it would not keep track of time while the phone is asleep (which, I know, is the expected behavior). Thus, I changed the code to use SystemClock.elapsedRealTime() instead. Problem is, in emulator both commands are equivalent, but in the phone the app will start the thread but it will never execute the mHandler.postAtTime command. Any advice regarding why this is happening or how to overcome the issue is greatly appreciated. PS: stopLog() is not being called. That's not the problem. mUpdateTimeTask = new Runnable() { public void run() { long millis = SystemClock.uptimeMillis() - mStartTime; int seconds = (int) (millis / 1000); int minutes = seconds / 60; seconds = seconds % 60; String freq = readCPU (); if (freq == null) Toast.makeText(CPU_log_Service.this, "CPU frequency is unreadable.\nPlease make sure the file has read rights.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); String str = new String ((minutes*60 + seconds) + ", " + freq + "\n"); if (!writeLog (str)) stopLog(); mHandler.postAtTime(this, mStartTime + (((minutes * 60) + seconds + 10) * 1000)); }}; mStartTime = SystemClock.uptimeMillis(); mHandler.removeCallbacks(mUpdateTimeTask); mHandler.postDelayed(mUpdateTimeTask, 100);

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• Perl Linux::Inotify2 - can't respond to events anymore

  - by alcy

  I am getting some really weird behavior when using Linux::Inotify2 module for watching a directory for any newly created files. I had made a test script to see how it worked, and once that was done, I went on to incorporating its usage in the other scripts, in which it didn't work. Then, when I tried my earlier test script again to find some information, strangely that stopped working as well. It hasn't worked since then. There were no package/distro upgrades during that time. The problem is that it has stopped responding to events. Here's the test script: #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use Linux::Inotify2; my $inotify = new Linux::Inotify2 or die "unable to create new inotify object: $!"; my $dir = "/my/dir"; $inotify->watch($dir, IN_CREATE, sub { my $e = shift; print $e->fullname; }) or die " Can't watch $!"; 1 while $inotify->poll; A strace on the running script kills the script. Otherwise when strace is used when starting the script, then it does seem to read the new events, but there's no response to those events. Any suggestions for debugging this further ?

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• “User Control” uses an incorrect event

  - by Lijo

  Hi, I am using two instances of a user control. But when I click on a button in the user control, both of the instances calls the function corresponding to the first event (AcknowledgeReceipt()) However, when I remove the first user control and clicks on the btnRequestClarification, it calls the correct method (RequestClarification()) Is there a way to correct this behavior? acknowledgeModificationPopupCtrl = (ConfirmationPopup)this.LoadControl("~/ConfirmationPopup.ascx"); plHConfirmationPopup.Controls.Add(acknowledgeModificationPopupCtrl); acknowledgeModificationPopupCtrl.ContinueClick += new EventHandler(AcknowledgeReceipt); RequiredFieldValidator reqFValidatorAcknowledge = (RequiredFieldValidator)acknowledgeModificationPopupCtrl.FindControl("reqValidatorTxt"); reqFValidatorAcknowledge.ValidationGroup = "AcknowledgeReceipt"; acknowledgeModificationPopupCtrl.ValidationGroup = "AcknowledgeReceipt"; btnAcknowledgeReceipt.Attributes.Add("onclick", "validateconfirmPopup('true','xx' ,’yyy','Note' ,'true'); return false;"); requestModificationPopupCtrl = (ConfirmationPopup)this.LoadControl("~/ConfirmationPopup.ascx"); plHConfirmationPopup.Controls.Add(requestModificationPopupCtrl); requestModificationPopupCtrl.ContinueClick += new EventHandler(RequestClarification); RequiredFieldValidator reqFValidator = (RequiredFieldValidator)requestModificationPopupCtrl.FindControl("reqValidatorTxt"); reqFValidator.ValidationGroup = "request"; requestModificationPopupCtrl.ValidationGroup = "request"; btnRequestClarification.Attributes.Add("onclick", "validateconfirmPopup('true',’kkk' ,’lll','ff' ,'true'); return false;"); Thanks Lijo

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• Unnecessary Redundancy with Tables.

  - by Stacey

  My items are listed as follows; This is just a summary of course. But I'm using a method shown for the "Detail" table to represent a type of 'inheritence', so to speak - since "Item" and "Downloadable" are going to be identical except that each will have a few additional fields relevant only to them. My question is in this design pattern. This sort of thing appears many, many times in our projects - is there a more intelligent way to handle it? I basically need to normalize the tables as much as possible. I'm extremely new to databases and so this is all very confusing to me. There are 5 items. Awards, Items, Purchases, Tokens, and Downloads. They are all very, very similar, except each has a few pieces of data relevant only to itself. I've tried to use a declaration field (like an enumerator 'Type' field) in conjunction with nullable columns, but I was told that is a bad approach. What I have done is take everything similar and place it in a single table, and then each type has its own table that references a column in the 'base' table. The problem occurs with relationships, or junctions. Linking all of these back to a customer. Each type takes around 2 additional tables to properly junction all of the data together- and as such, my database is growing very, very large. Is there a smarter practice for this kind of behavior? Item ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Product ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Store | GUID [ FK ] Details | GUID [FK] Downloadable ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Url | nvarchar(2048) Details | GUID [FK] Details ID | GUID Price | decimal Description | text Peripherals [ JUNCTION ] ID | GUID Detail | GUID [FK] Store ID | GUID Addresses | GUID Addresses ID | GUID Name | nvarchar(64) State | int [FK] ZipCode | int Address | nvarchar(64) State ID | int Name | varchar(32)

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• Strangest LINQ to SQL case I have ever seen

  - by kubaw

  OK, so this is the strangest issue in .net programming I have ever seen. It seems that object fields are serialized in .net web services in order of field initialization. It all started with Flex not accepting SOAP response from .net web service. I have found out that it was due to the order of serialized fields was statisfying the order of fields in declared serializable class. It had something to do with generic lists and LINQ to SQL but I can't find out what. This one is really hard to reproduce. Example to get the idea: [Serializable] public class SomeSample { public int A; public int B; public int C; } I was querying some data tables within asmx web service using linq and returning list of SomeSample objects: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, C = 3 }).ToList(); Now the list was once more iterated and B field was applied some value (ex. 2). However the returned soap envelope contained following excerpt: <A>1</A><C>3</C><B>2</B> Please notice the order of serialization. If I initially initialized all fields: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 }).ToList(); object was serialized in correct order. I must add, that in both cases the debugger shows exactly the same content of "r" variable. Am I losing my mind or is this normal behavior? Thanks in advance.

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• Kill process started with System.Diagnostic.Process.Start("FileName")

  - by PedroC88

  Hello; I am trying to create an app that will perform actions on specific times (much like the Windows Task Scheduler). I am currently using Process.Start() to lunch the file (or exe) required by the task. I am initiating a process by calling a file (an .mp3) and the process starts WMP (since it is the default application), so far so good. Now I wan't to kill that process. I know that it is normal behavior for the Process.Start(string, string) to return nothing (null in C#) in this case. So I am asking how can i close WMP when I called it through Process.Start(string, string)?? Edit: Please note that I am not opening WMP directly with Process.Start() and this is the line with which I run the process: VB: Me._procs.Add(Process.Start(Me._procInfo)) C#: this._procs.Add(Process.Start(this._procInfo)) _procInfo is a ProcessStartInfo instance. _procInfo.FileName is "C:\route\myFile.mp3". That is why WMP opens. In any case, all of the Start() methods, except for the instance-one which returns a boolean, return nothing (null in C#), because WMP is not the process that was directly created (please note that WMP is run and the song does play).

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