Search Results

Search found 6342 results on 254 pages for 'behavior'.

Page 219/254 | < Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >

• SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

  - by user1289508

  Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

  Read the article

• How to map keys in vim differently for different kinds of buffers

  - by Yogesh Arora

  The problem i am facing is that i have mapped some keys and mouse events for seraching in vim while editing a file. But those mappings impact the functionality if the quickfix buffer. I was wondering if it is possible to map keys depending on the buffer in which they are used. EDIT - I am adding more info for this question Let us consider a scenario. I want to map <C-F4> to close a buffer/window. Now this behavior could depend on a number of things. If i am editing a buffer it should just close that buffer without changing the layout of the windows. I am using buffkil plugin for this. It does not depend on extension of file but on the type of buffer. I saw in vim documentation that there are unlisted and listed buffer. So if it is listed buffer it should close using bufkill commands. If it is not a listed buffer it should use <c-w>c command to close buffer and changing the window layout. I am new at writing vim functions/scripts, can someone help me getting started on this

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

  - by Daniel Koverman

  I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

  Read the article

• If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

  - by tlm2021

  So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

  Read the article

• Array's index and argc signedness

  - by tusbar

  Hello, The C standard (5.1.2.2.1 Program startup) says: The function called at program startup is named main. [...] It shall be de?ned with a return type of int and with no parameters: int main(void) { /* ... */ } or with two parameters [...] : int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { /* ... */ } And later says: The value of argc shall be nonnegative. Why shouldn't argc be defined as an unsigned int, argc supposedly meaning 'argument count'? Should argc be used as an index for argv? So I started wondering if the C standard says something about the type of array's index. Is it signed? 6.5.2.1 Array subscripting: One of the expressions shall have type ‘‘pointer to object type’’, the other expression shall have integer type, and the result has type ‘‘type’’. It doesn't say anything about its signedness (or I didn't find it). It is pretty common to see codes using negatives array indexes (array[-1]) but isn't it undefined behavior? Should array's indexes be unsigned?

  Read the article

• Wicket: Where to add components? Constructor? Or onBeforeRender?

  - by gmallett

  I'm a Wicket newb. This may just be my ignorance of the Wicket lifecycle so please enlighten me! My understanding is that Wicket WebPage objects are instantiated once and then serialized. This has led to a point of confusion for me, see below. Currently I have a template class which I intend to subclass. I followed the example in the Wicket docs demonstrating how to override the template's behavior in the subclass: protected void onBeforeRender() { add(new Label("title", getTitle())); super.onBeforeRender(); } protected String getTitle() { return "template"; } Subclass: protected String getTitle() { return "Home"; } This works very well. What's not clear to me are the "best practices" for this. It seems like onBeforeRender() is called on every request for the page, no? This seems like there would be substantially more processing done on a page if everything is in onBeforeRender(). I could easily follow the example of the other Wicket examples and add some components in the constructor that I do not want to override, but then I've divided by component logic into two places, something I'm hesitant to do. If I add a component that I intend to be in all subclasses, should I add it to the constructor or onBeforeRender()?

  Read the article

• In Firefox, how do I bring an existing popup window with multiple tabs to the front using javascript

  - by brahn

  I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code generally works in Firefox, Safari, and IE8 (see here for Chrome woes). However, I have found a failure mode in Firefox that I don't know how to deal with: If for some reason the user has opened a second tab in the pop-up window and that second tab has focus within that window, the popupWindow.focus() command fails to have any effect. (If the first tab has focus within that window, everything works just great.) So, how can I focus the popup and the desired tab in Firefox? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body>

  Read the article

• Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

  - by JustJeff

  I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

  Read the article

• [IE6] Cannot upload non-existent file

  - by geff_chang

  I am asking the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/691323/trying-to-upload-a-non-existent-file-in-internet-explorer-form-is-not-submitted I'm not sure if the topic starter found a solution, since he did not post the answer. So, I'd like to ask you guys this question again. I have type=input in my form, and a submit button. If I type garbage input into the textbox (like the text "abc") in the file control's textbox, and click the submit button, the form is not submitted to the server. AND, no feedback is given to the user. Instead of this "Is-the-submit-button-broken?" behavior, is there a way I could notify the user that the file does not exist? (I am aware this is not possible, except with ActiveX, but I don't want to go into that) My client wants to hide the textbox of the file control, but I'm not sure if this is a good design. What do you guys suggest? (If it makes any difference, I am also using this jquery plugin: http://www.fyneworks.com/jquery/multiple-file-upload/)

  Read the article

• OnEditorActionListener called twice with same eventTime on SenseUI keyboard

  - by ydant

  On just one phone I am testing on (HTC Incredible, Android 2.2, Software 3.21.605.1), I am experiencing the following behavior. The onEditorAction event handler is being called twice (immediately) when the Enter key on the Sense UI keyboard is pressed. The KeyEvent.getEventTime() is the same for both times the event is called, leading me to this work-around: protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { [...] EditText text = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.txtBox); text.setOnEditorActionListener(new OnEditorActionListener() { private long lastCalled = -1; public boolean onEditorAction(TextView v, int actionId, KeyEvent event) { if ( event.getEventTime() == lastCalled ) { return false; } else { lastCalled = event.getEventTime(); handleNextButton(v); return true; } } }); [...] } The EditText is defined as: <EditText android:layout_width="150sp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtBox" android:imeOptions="actionNext" android:capitalize="characters" android:singleLine="true" android:inputType="textVisiblePassword|textCapCharacters|textNoSuggestions" android:autoText="false" android:editable="true" android:maxLength="6" /> On all other devices I've tested on, the action button is properly labeled "Next" and the event is only called a single time when that button is pressed. Is this a bug in Sense UI's keyboard, or am I doing something incorrectly? Thank you for any assistance.

  Read the article

• JavaScript for loop index strangeness

  - by pythonBOI

  I'm relatively new to JS so this may be a common problem, but I noticed something strange when dealing with for loops and the onclick function. I was able to replicate the problem with this code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function () { var buttons = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var i=0; i<2; i++) { buttons[i].onclick = function () { alert(i); return false; } } } </script> </head> <body> <a href="">hi</a> <br /> <a href="">bye</a> </body> </html> When clicking the links I would expect to get '0' and '1', but instead I get '2' for both of them. Why is this? BTW, I managed to solve my particular problem by using the 'this' keyword, but I'm still curious as to what is behind this behavior.

  Read the article

• Why is T() = T() allowed?

  - by Rimo

  I believe the expression T() creates an rvalue (by the Standard). However, the following code compiles (at least on gcc4.0): class T {}; int main() { T() = T(); } I know technically this is possible because member functions can be invoked on temporaries and the above is just invoking the operator= on the rvalue temporary created from the first T(). But conceptually this is like assigning a new value to an rvalue. Is there a good reason why this is allowed? Edit: The reason I find this odd is it's strictly forbidden on built-in types yet allowed on user-defined types. For example, int(2) = int(3) won't compile because that is an "invalid lvalue in assignment". So I guess the real question is, was this somewhat inconsistent behavior built into the language for a reason? Or is it there for some historical reason? (E.g it would be conceptually more sound to allow only const member functions to be invoked on rvalue expressions, but that cannot be done because that might break some existing code.)

  Read the article

• Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

  - by Kettch19

  I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

  Read the article

• Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

  - by The Demigeek

  I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

  Read the article

• HABTM selection seemingly ignores joinTable

  - by TheCapn

  I'm attempting to do a HABTM relationship between a Users table and Groups table. The problem is, that I when I issue this call: $this->User->Group->find('list'); The query that is issued is: SELECT [Group].[id] AS [Group__id], [Group].[name] AS [Group__name] FROM [groups] AS [Group] WHERE 1 = 1 I can only assume at this point that I have defined my relationship wrong as I would expect behavior to use the groups_users table that is defined on the database as per convention. My relationships: class User extends AppModel { var $name = 'User'; //...snip... var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Group' => array( 'className' => 'Group', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'group_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, ) ); //...snip... } class Group extends AppModel { var $name = 'Group'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ( 'User' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'group_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'user_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, )); } Is my understanding of HABTM wrong? How would I implement this Many to Many relationship where I can use CakePHP to query the groups_users table such that a list of groups the currently authenticated user is associated with is returned?

  Read the article

• Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

  - by yarmiganosca

  Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

  Read the article

• How to avoid geometric slowdown with large Linq transactions?

  - by Shaul

  I've written some really nice, funky libraries for use in LinqToSql. (Some day when I have time to think about it I might make it open source... :) ) Anyway, I'm not sure if this is related to my libraries or not, but I've discovered that when I have a large number of changed objects in one transaction, and then call DataContext.GetChangeSet(), things start getting reaalllly slooowwwww. When I break into the code, I find that my program is spinning its wheels doing an awful lot of Equals() comparisons between the objects in the change set. I can't guarantee this is true, but I suspect that if there are n objects in the change set, then the call to GetChangeSet() is causing every object to be compared to every other object for equivalence, i.e. at best (n^2-n)/2 calls to Equals()... Yes, of course I could commit each object separately, but that kinda defeats the purpose of transactions. And in the program I'm writing, I could have a batch job containing 100,000 separate items, that all need to be committed together. Around 5 billion comparisons there. So the question is: (1) is my assessment of the situation correct? Do you get this behavior in pure, textbook LinqToSql, or is this something my libraries are doing? And (2) is there a standard/reasonable workaround so that I can create my batch without making the program geometrically slower with every extra object in the change set?

  Read the article

• iTunes Connect uploading issue

  - by CindySeattle

  Too bad that iTunes Connect changed its behavior recently. I'm providing an update to an existing app. I submitted new binary using the Loader without problem on the first try. Then I discovered that different from before, one has to reject the binaries in order to change screenshots. Too bad that the update is in the status of "In Review". Well, I have to rejected my binaries and begin to upload new screenshots, because I don't want to display screenshots of previous version. The new screen shots are uploaded but I'm stuck in "Developer rejected" status. Meaning I cannot upload the binaries and not able to change screenshots from that time on. The following error will appear when click Save Changes in either situations. "There was an error saving changes. Please try again later or contact iTunes Connect Support at [email protected]." I checked the source of the error page and think it's this error id="lcBoxWrapperHeaderTextUpdaterContainer" action="/WebObjects/iTunesConnect.woa/wo/7.0.0.9.7.7.1.1.1.1" errorId="ajaxContainerError" I have reported iTune Connect via the "Contact us" link on this issue but not get any response back for 2 days already. Very disappointing. Did anybody experience similar issue? How did you resolve this?

  Read the article

• Performance Problems with Django's F() Object

  - by JayhawksFan93

  Has anyone else noticed performance issues using Django's F() object? I am running Windows XP SP3 and developing against the Django trunk. A snippet of the models I'm using and the query I'm building are below. When I have the F() object in place, each call to a QuerySet method (e.g. filter, exclude, order_by, distinct, etc.) takes approximately 2 seconds, but when I comment out the F() clause the calls are sub-second. I had a co-worker test it on his Ubuntu machine, and he is not experiencing the same performance issues I am with the F() clause. Anyone else seeing this behavior? class Move (models.Model): state_meaning = models.CharField( max_length=16, db_index=True, blank=True, default='' ) drop = models.ForeignKey( Org, db_index=True, null=False, default=1, related_name='as_move_drop' ) class Split(models.Model): state_meaning = models.CharField( max_length=16, db_index=True, blank=True, default='' ) move = models.ForeignKey( Move, related_name='splits' ) pickup = models.ForeignKey( Org, db_index=True, null=False, default=1, related_name='as_split_pickup' ) pickup_date = models.DateField( null=True, default=None ) drop = models.ForeignKey( Org, db_index=True, null=False, default=1, related_name='as_split_drop' ) drop_date = models.DateField( null=True, default=None, db_index=True ) def get_splits(begin_date, end_date): qs = Split.objects \ .filter(state_meaning__in=['INPROGRESS','FULFILLED'], drop=F('move__drop'), # <<< the line in question pickup_date__lte=end_date) elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs1 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.filter(Q(drop_date__gte=begin_date) | Q(drop_date__isnull=True)) elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs2 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.exclude(move__state_meaning='UNFULFILLED') elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs3 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.order_by('pickup_date', 'drop_date') elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs7 took %.3f' % elapsed start = timer.clock() qs = qs.distinct() elapsed = timer.clock() - start print 'qs8 took %.3f' % elapsed

  Read the article

• do functions in sql server have different permissions rules?

  - by jcollum

  Here's the situation. I'm writing an automated test that walks the list of dependencies for a proc and determines if an acct has rights for all of the dependent objects. My code looks like this: exec sp_depends 'the_proc_name' -- run this query on the results of sp_depends: select case when exists ( select * from sys.database_permissions dp where grantee_principal_id=USER_ID('TheAccount') and major_id=object_id('dbo.theDependentObject') and minor_id=0 and state_desc = 'GRANT') then 'true' else 'false' end; It all seems to be working fine, but there's a hiccup when it encounters a function. I have one case where TheAccount doesn't have rights to a function (the query above returns false). However the proc that calls the function in question runs fine when running under TheAccount. So there's either something wrong with my test code or functions have special permission behavior in SQL-Server that I'm not aware of. Should I change the code to only search for 'DENY' instead of 'GRANT'? Do functions that are called in procs inherit the permissions of the calling proc except when the execute rights are explicitly denied? Does my code suck?

  Read the article

• Entity framework 4.0 compiled query with Where() clause issue

  - by Andrey Salnikov

  Hello, I encountered with some strange behavior of System.Data.Objects.CompiledQuery.Compile function - here is my code for compile simple query: private static readonly Func<DataContext, long, Product> productQuery = CompiledQuery.Compile((DataContext ctx, long id) => ctx.Entities.OfType<Data.Product>().Where(p => p.Id == id) .Select(p=>new Product{Id = p.Id}).SingleOrDefault()); where DataContext inherited from ObjectContext and Product is a projection of POCO Data.Product class. My data context in first run contains Data.Product {Id == 1L} and in second Data.Product {Id == 2L}. First using of compilled query productQuery(dataContext, 1L) works perfect - in result I have Product {Id == 1L} but second run productQuery(dataContext, 2L) always returns null, instead of context in second run contains single product with id == 2L. If I remove Where clause I will get correct product (with id == 2L). It seems that first id value caching while first run of productQuery, and therefore all further calls valid only when dataContext contains Data.Product {id==1L}. This issue can't be reproduced if I've used direct query instead of its precompiled version. Also, all tests I've performed on test mdf base using SQL Server 2008 express and Visual studio 2010 final from my ASP.net application.

  Read the article

• RichTextBox text is not shown C#

  - by user271077

  using richtextbox control programatically i'm appending text to the richtextbox . richTextBox1.AppendText("hello"); somehow the text appears in the richTextBox1.Text but is not shown in the form. any idea of what might be the problem? (I checked the forecolor seems ok). Thanks in advance Edit: found the root cause (had by mistake the initializeComponent() twice. ) private void InitializeComponent() { this.richTextBox1 = new System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox(); this.SuspendLayout(); // // richTextBox1 // this.richTextBox1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(114, 104); this.richTextBox1.Name = "richTextBox1"; this.richTextBox1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(100, 96); this.richTextBox1.TabIndex = 0; this.richTextBox1.Text = ""; // // Form1 // this.AutoScaleDimensions = new System.Drawing.SizeF(6F, 13F); this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Font; this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(284, 262); this.Controls.Add(this.richTextBox1); this.Name = "Form1"; this.Text = "Form1"; this.Load += new System.EventHandler(this.Form1_Load); this.ResumeLayout(false); } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.AppendText("hello world"); }` but still curious about why did this cause this weird behavior?

  Read the article

• C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

  - by Sam Schutte

  This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

  Read the article

• Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

  - by StackedCrooked

  Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

  Read the article

• Why <textarea> and <textfield> not taking font-family and font-size from body?

  - by metal-gear-solid

  Why Textarea and textfield not taking font-family and font-size from body? See live example here http://jsbin.com/ucano4 Code <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>texearea font</title> <style type="text/css"> body { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } </style> </head> <body> <form action="" method="get"> <textarea name="" cols="20" rows="4"></textarea> <input name="" type="text" /> </form> <p>some text here</p> </body> </html> If it's a usual behavior then should i write in css like this. i need same style in all body,textarea,input { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } And how many other elements in XHTML which will not take font styling from body {....}?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >