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  • Get data from aspx.cs page to aspx page.

    - by Brad8118
    So I am using a jquery plug in that allows me to change the order of things in a list by dragging and dropping them. So my goal is to be able to grab a list of my objects (AlertInfo) and using it in a javascript function. I was able to use a json webservice call in a test project to pass the data to the page. But we don't have a webservice page now so I tried to grab it from a aspx.cs page and it hasn't worked. ///Aspx page: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "~/Alerts/GetAlerts", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { var data = eval("(" + msg.d + ")"); jQuery.each(data, function (rec) { AlertList[AlertList.length] = new objAlert(this.id, this.title, this.details, JSONDateSerializationFix(this.startdate), JSONDateSerializationFix(this.enddate)); UpdateDisplayList(); }) }, error: function (msg) { alert("BRAD" + msg); } The issue is that the Alerts page in "URL /Alerts/GetAlerts" is Alerts.aspx.cs. I can't figure out if I can use this ajax command to call a method in a aspx.cs page. //Code behind page aspx.cs [WebMethod] //[ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetAlerts() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(list); } public List GetAlertsList() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return list; ; } So I was hoping that I could load data into an asp control (dataList) and then grab the data //code behind page protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dataListAlertList.DataSource = GetAlertsList(); dataListAlertList.DataBind(); } public static List<AlertInfo> GetTestAlerts() { List<AlertInfo> list = new List<AlertInfo>(); list.Add(new AlertInfo("0", "Alert 1 Title", "Alert 1 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); list.Add(new AlertInfo("1", "Alert 2 Title", "Alert 2 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); return list; } //.aspx page $(document).ready(function () { var a1 = $("#dataListAlertList").val(); // do fun stuff now. } But I keep getting undefined....

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  • What makes a Winform position initially stale?

    - by msorens
    The code below demonstrates a very simple problem; I am hoping that I am just missing a setting that someone might be able to reveal. Goal (1) Launch main winform (MainForm). (2) Press button to display secondary winform (ShadowForm) that is semi-transparent and should exactly overlay MainForm. What Actually Happens Scenario 1: Launch main winform then press button: ShadowForm displays with correct size but incorrect location, lower and to the right (as if it was cascaded). Press button to close ShadowForm again. Press button once more to reopen ShadowForm and now it is in the correct position, covering MainForm. Scenario 2: Launch main winform, move it around, then press button: ShadowForm displays with correct size but incorrect location (where the MainForm was before moving it). Press button to close; press again to reopen and now ShadowForm is in the correct position. using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace LocationTest { static class Program { static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } public class MainForm : Form { ShadowForm shadowForm = new ShadowForm(); Button button1 = new Button(); System.ComponentModel.IContainer components = null; public MainForm() { this.SuspendLayout(); this.button1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(102, 44); this.button1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(75, 23); this.button1.Text = "button1"; this.button1.Click += new System.EventHandler(this.button1_Click); this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 266); this.Controls.Add(this.button1); this.ResumeLayout(false); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (shadowForm.Visible) { shadowForm.Hide(); } else { shadowForm.Size = Size; // this always works shadowForm.Location = Location; // this fails first time, but works second time! shadowForm.Show(); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (disposing && (components != null)) { components.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } } public class ShadowForm : Form { private System.ComponentModel.IContainer components = null; public ShadowForm() { this.SuspendLayout(); this.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.Black; this.FormBorderStyle = System.Windows.Forms.FormBorderStyle.None; this.Opacity = 0.5; this.Click += new System.EventHandler(this.ShadowForm_Click); this.ResumeLayout(false); } private void ShadowForm_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Hide(); } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (disposing && (components != null)) { components.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } } }

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  • How to replicate this button in CSS

    - by jasondavis
    I am trying to create a CSS theme switcher button like below. The top image shows what I have so far and the bottom image shows what I am trying to create. I am not the best at this stuff I am more of a back-end coder. I could really use some help. I have a live demo of the code here http://dabblet.com/gist/2230656 Just looking at what I have and the goal image, some differences. I need to add a gradient The border is not right on mine Radius is a little off Possibly some other stuff? Also here is the code...it can be changed anyway to improve this, the naming and stuff could be improved I am sure but I can use any help I can get. HTML <div class="switch-wrapper"> <div class="switcher left selected"> <span id="left">....</span> </div> <div class="switcher right"> <span id="right">....</span> </div> </div> CSS /* begin button styles */ .switch-wrapper{ width:400px; margin:220px; } .switcher { background:#507190; display: inline-block; max-width: 100%; box-shadow: 1px 1px 1px rgba(0,0,0,.3); position:relative; } #left, #right{ width:17px; height:11px; overflow:hidden; position:absolute; top:50%; left:50%; margin-top:-5px; margin-left:-8px; font: 0/0 a; } #left{ background-image: url(http://www.codedevelopr.com/assets/images/switcher.png); background-position: 0px px; } #right{ background-image: url(http://www.codedevelopr.com/assets/images/switcher.png); background-position: -0px -19px; } .left, .right{ width: 30px; height: 25px; border: 1px solid #3C5D7E; } .left{ border-radius: 6px 0px 0px 6px; } .right{ border-radius: 0 6px 6px 0; margin: 0 0 0 -6px } .switcher:hover, .selected { background: #27394b; box-shadow: -1px 1px 0px rgba(255,255,255,.4), inset 0 4px 5px rgba(0,0,0,.6), inset 0 1px 2px rgba(0,0,0,.6); }

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  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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  • Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

    - by JGB146
    I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

    - by valdo
    Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to get a physics engine like Nape working?

    - by Glacius
    Introduction: I think Nape is a relatively new engine so some of you may not know it. It's supposedly faster than box2d and I like that there is decent documentation. Here's the site: http://code.google.com/p/nape/ I'm relatively new to programming. I am decent at AS3's basic functionality, but every time I try to implement some kind of engine or framework I can't even seem to get it to work. With Nape I feel I got a little further than before but I still got stuck. My problem: I'm using Adobe CS5, I managed to import the SWC file like described here. Next I tried to copy the source of one of the demo's like this one and get it to work but I keep getting errors. I made a new class file, copied the demo source to it, and tried to add it to the stage. My stage code basically looks like this: import flash.Boot; // these 2 lines are as described in the tutorial new Boot(); var demo = new Main(); // these 2 are me guessing what I'm supposed to do addChild(demo); Well, it seems the source code is not even being recognized by flash as a valid class file. I tried editing it, but even if I get it recognized (give a package name and add curly brackets) but I still get a bunch of errors. Is it psuedo code or something? What is going on? My goal: I can imagine I'm going about this the wrong way. So let me explain what I'm trying to achieve. I basically want to learn how to use the engine by starting from a simple basic example that I can edit and mess around with. If I can't even get a working example then I'm unable to learn anything. Preferably I don't want to start using something like FlashDevelop (as I'd have to learn how to use the program) but if it can't be helped then I can give it a try. Thank you.

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  • ADO Exception in HQL query

    - by Yoav
    I have 2 classes: Project and DataStructure. Class Project contains member List<DataStructure. My goal is to load a Project and all its DataStructures in one call. public class Project { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual ISet<DataStructure> DataStructures { get { } set { } } } public class DataStructure { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual string Description { get { } set { } } public virtual Project Project { get { } set { } } public virtual IList<DataField> Fields { get { } set { } } } Note that DataStructure also contains a list of class DataField but I don’t want to load these right now. Mapping in Fluent NHibernate: public class ProjectMap : ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Table("PROJECTS"); Id(x => x.Pk, "PK"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); HasMany<DataStructure>(x => x.DataStructures).KeyColumn("FK_PROJECT"); } } public class DataStructureMap : ClassMap<DataStructure> { public DataStructureMap() { Table("DATA_STRUCTURES"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); Map(x => x.Description, "DESCRIPTION"); References<Project>(x => x.Project, "FK_PROJECT"); HasMany<DataField>(x => x.Fields).KeyColumn("FK_DATA_STRUCTURE"); } } This is my query: using (ISession session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("from Project pr left join pr.DataStructure"); project = query.List<Project>(); } query.List() returns this exception: NHibernate.Exceptions.GenericADOException: Could not execute query[SQL: SQL not available] ---> System.ArgumentException: The value "System.Object[]" is not of type "Project" and cannot be used in this generic collection.

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  • Basic drawing with Quartz 2D on iPhone

    - by wwrob
    My goal is to make a program that will draw points whenever the screen is touched. This is what I have so far: The header file: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ElSimView : UIView { CGPoint firstTouch; CGPoint lastTouch; UIColor *pointColor; CGRect *points; int npoints; } @property CGPoint firstTouch; @property CGPoint lastTouch; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIColor *pointColor; @property CGRect *points; @property int npoints; @end The implementation file: //@synths etc. - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { return self; } - (id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { if(self = [super initWithCoder:coder]) { self.npoints = 0; } return self; } - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; firstTouch = [touch locationInView:self]; lastTouch = [touch locationInView:self]; } - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; lastTouch = [touch locationInView:self]; points = (CGRect *)malloc(sizeof(CGRect) * ++npoints); points[npoints-1] = CGRectMake(lastTouch.x-15, lastTouch.y-15,30,30); [self setNeedsDisplay]; } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; lastTouch = [touch locationInView:self]; [self setNeedsDisplay]; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 2.0); CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor(context, [UIColor blackColor].CGColor); CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(context, pointColor.CGColor); for(int i=0; i<npoints; i++) CGContextAddEllipseInRect(context, points[i]); CGContextDrawPath(context, kCGPathFillStroke); } - (void)dealloc { free(points); [super dealloc]; } @end When I load this and click some points, it draws the first points normally, then then next points are drawn along with random ellipses (not even circles). Also I have another question: When is exactly drawRect executed?

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  • ScrollTo and toggle div

    - by user1466260
    I'm a big fan ov 8020.com and my goal is to create a porfolio with the same functionality like the one they have. Here is my markup This section should be hidden <section id="work-container"> <div id="work-list-51" class="work-details"> <h1> <div class="close-project"> </div> <div id="work-list-52" class="work-details"> <h1> <div class="close-project"> </div> <div id="work-list-53" class="work-details"> <h1> <div class="close-project"> </div> </section> This section will hold the thumbnails. When you click a thumbnail you will scroll to the top and the div will slidetoggle. <ul id="work-list"> <li id="work-list-51"><a data-page="51" href="#work-list-51"> <img width="230" height="230" alt="Mariann Rosa" src="sites/default/files/styles/square_thumbnail/public/field/image/mariann.jpg"> </a></li> <li id="work-list-52"><a data-page="52" href="#work-list-52"> <img width="230" height="230" alt="Mariann Rosa" src="sites/default/files/styles/square_thumbnail/public/field/image/mariann.jpg"> </a></li> <li id="work-list-53"><a data-page="53" href="#work-list-53"> <img width="230" height="230" alt="Mariann Rosa" src="sites/default/files/styles/square_thumbnail/public/field/image/mariann.jpg"> </a></li> </ul> I have come this far: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#work-list a").click(function(event){ event.preventDefault(); $('html, body').animate ( {scrollTop: $('#top').offset().top}, 800 ); }); $('#work-list a').click(function(e) { $('#work-container > div').hide(); $(this.hash).slideToggle(1600); }); }); It scrolls to top and the div becomes visible but it does not work correctly :)

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  • iPhone multi-touch move, scale and rotate, how to prevent scale?

    - by russhill
    I have existing code for tracking multi-touch positions and then moving, rotating and scaling the item - in this case an image - appropriately. The code works really well and in itself is perfect, however for this particular task, I need the movement and rotation ONLY. I have spent time trying to work out what is going on in this routine, but maths is not my strong point so wanted to see if anyone could assist? - (CGAffineTransform)incrementalTransformWithTouches:(NSSet *)touches { NSArray *sortedTouches = [[touches allObjects] sortedArrayUsingSelector:@selector(compareAddress:)]; NSInteger numTouches = [sortedTouches count]; // No touches if (numTouches == 0) { return CGAffineTransformIdentity; } // Single touch if (numTouches == 1) { UITouch *touch = [sortedTouches objectAtIndex:0]; CGPoint beginPoint = *(CGPoint *)CFDictionaryGetValue(touchBeginPoints, touch); CGPoint currentPoint = [touch locationInView:self.superview]; return CGAffineTransformMakeTranslation(currentPoint.x - beginPoint.x, currentPoint.y - beginPoint.y); } // If two or more touches, go with the first two (sorted by address) UITouch *touch1 = [sortedTouches objectAtIndex:0]; UITouch *touch2 = [sortedTouches objectAtIndex:1]; CGPoint beginPoint1 = *(CGPoint *)CFDictionaryGetValue(touchBeginPoints, touch1); CGPoint currentPoint1 = [touch1 locationInView:self.superview]; CGPoint beginPoint2 = *(CGPoint *)CFDictionaryGetValue(touchBeginPoints, touch2); CGPoint currentPoint2 = [touch2 locationInView:self.superview]; double layerX = self.center.x; double layerY = self.center.y; double x1 = beginPoint1.x - layerX; double y1 = beginPoint1.y - layerY; double x2 = beginPoint2.x - layerX; double y2 = beginPoint2.y - layerY; double x3 = currentPoint1.x - layerX; double y3 = currentPoint1.y - layerY; double x4 = currentPoint2.x - layerX; double y4 = currentPoint2.y - layerY; // Solve the system: // [a b t1, -b a t2, 0 0 1] * [x1, y1, 1] = [x3, y3, 1] // [a b t1, -b a t2, 0 0 1] * [x2, y2, 1] = [x4, y4, 1] double D = (y1-y2)*(y1-y2) + (x1-x2)*(x1-x2); if (D < 0.1) { return CGAffineTransformMakeTranslation(x3-x1, y3-y1); } double a = (y1-y2)*(y3-y4) + (x1-x2)*(x3-x4); double b = (y1-y2)*(x3-x4) - (x1-x2)*(y3-y4); double tx = (y1*x2 - x1*y2)*(y4-y3) - (x1*x2 + y1*y2)*(x3+x4) + x3*(y2*y2 + x2*x2) + x4*(y1*y1 + x1*x1); double ty = (x1*x2 + y1*y2)*(-y4-y3) + (y1*x2 - x1*y2)*(x3-x4) + y3*(y2*y2 + x2*x2) + y4*(y1*y1 + x1*x1); return CGAffineTransformMake(a/D, -b/D, b/D, a/D, tx/D, ty/D); } I have tried to read up on the way matrix's work, but cannot figure it out entirely. More likely to be the issue is the calculations, which as I mention is not my strong point. What I need from this routine is a transform that performs my movement and rotation but ignores scale - so the distance between the 2 finger touch points is ignored and scale is not affected. I have looked at other routines on the internet to handle multi-touch rotation but all the ones I tried had issues in some way or other (smoothness, jumping when lifting fingers etc), whereas the above code is spot on for move, scale and rotate actions. Any help appreciated!

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  • Wordpress Events List Date Problem

    - by Roger
    Hi, I'm having a problem displaying events in the correct order in wordpress. I think the problem is because wordpress is treating the date as a string and ordering it by the day because it's in british date format. The goal is to display a list of future events with the most current event at the top of the list. But I must use the british date format of dd/mm/yyyy. Do I need to go back to the drawing board or is there a way of converting the date to achieve the result I need? Thanks in advance :) <ul> <?php // Get today's date in the right format $todaysDate = date('d/m/Y');?> <?php query_posts('showposts=50&category_name=Training&meta_key=date&meta_compare=>=&meta_value=' . $todaysDate . '&orderby=meta_value&order=ASC'); ?> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <li> <h3><a href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"> <?php the_title(); ?> </a></h3> <?php $getDate = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'date', TRUE); $dateArray = explode('/', $getDate); ?> <?php if($getDate != '') { ?> <div class="coursedate rounded"><?php echo date('d F Y', mktime(0, 0, 0, $dateArray[1], $dateArray[0], $dateArray[2])); ?></div> <?php } ?> <p><?php get_clean_excerpt(140, get_the_content()); ?>...</p> <p><strong><a class="link" href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>">For further details and booking click here</a></strong></p> </li> <?php endwhile; ?> <?php else : ?> <li>Sorry, no upcoming events!</li> <?php endif; ?>

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  • jQuery - Show field based on value of a type-hidden on refresh.

    - by Sebhael
    Hello, I'm trying to create something in jQuery and having a bit of problems with it. I'm not too adept on the framework, so I'm sure this is all wrong. Anyways, the ultimate goal is a full form that contains 3 radio buttons - depending on the value of the button, a LI is shown. I have all of that done, but my problem is coming with validation. If something fails then the page is reloaded and the div that was selected doesn't show without clicking another radio first, then back to the original. This process is basically the same as someone came up with here. Here's what I got so far. HTML <li> <label> License (radio) </label> <label for="commercial" class="checkBox"> Commercial </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="commercial" id="commercial" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'commercial'); ?> /> <label for="abandonware" class="checkBox"> Abandonware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="abandonware" id="abandonware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'abandonware'); ?> /> <label for="freeware" class="checkBox"> Freeware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="freeware" id="freeware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'freeware'); ?> /> </li> This is followed by three LI's that contain id="commercial, abandonware, and freeware" and class="licenseli" My jQuery is, as said, something from here. $('li.licenseli').hide(); $('input[name=license]:radio').change(function(){ var Type = $(this).val(); // Get value of radio $('li.licenseli').slideUp(); // Hide non-selected $('li#'+Type).slideDown(); // Show Selected }); So what I need help with is I have a hidden input that retrieves the value of the radio box from validation - I want to take this value (or the radio's if possible?) and have the original selected option's LI already visible.

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  • Storing a NTFS Security Descriptor in C

    - by Doori Bar
    My goal is to store a NTFS Security Descriptor in its identical native state. The purpose is to restore it on-demand. I managed to write the code for that purpose, I was wondering if anybody mind to validate a sample of it? (The for loop represents the way I store the native descriptor) This sample only contains the flag for "OWNER", but my intention is to apply the same method for all of the security descriptor flags. I'm just a beginner, would appreciate the heads up. Thanks, Doori Bar #define _WIN32_WINNT 0x0501 #define WINVER 0x0501 #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> #include "accctrl.h" #include "aclapi.h" #include "sddl.h" int main (void) { DWORD lasterror; PSECURITY_DESCRIPTOR PSecurityD1, PSecurityD2; HANDLE hFile; PSID owner; LPTSTR ownerstr; BOOL ownerdefault; int ret = 0; unsigned int i; hFile = CreateFile("c:\\boot.ini", GENERIC_READ | ACCESS_SYSTEM_SECURITY, FILE_SHARE_READ, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS, NULL); if (hFile == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { fprintf(stderr,"CreateFile() failed. Error: INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE\n"); return 1; } lasterror = GetSecurityInfo(hFile, SE_FILE_OBJECT, OWNER_SECURITY_INFORMATION , &owner, NULL, NULL, NULL, &PSecurityD1); if (lasterror != ERROR_SUCCESS) { fprintf(stderr,"GetSecurityInfo() failed. Error: %lu;\n", lasterror); ret = 1; goto ret1; } ConvertSidToStringSid(owner,&ownerstr); printf("ownerstr of PSecurityD1: %s\n", ownerstr); /* The for loop represents the way I store the native descriptor */ PSecurityD2 = malloc( GetSecurityDescriptorLength(PSecurityD1) * sizeof(unsigned char) ); for (i=0; i < GetSecurityDescriptorLength(PSecurityD1); i++) ((unsigned char *) PSecurityD2)[i] = ((unsigned char *) PSecurityD1)[i]; if (IsValidSecurityDescriptor(PSecurityD2) == 0) { fprintf(stderr,"IsValidSecurityDescriptor(PSecurityD2) failed.\n"); ret = 2; goto ret2; } if (GetSecurityDescriptorOwner(PSecurityD2,&owner,&ownerdefault) == 0) { fprintf(stderr,"GetSecurityDescriptorOwner() failed."); ret = 2; goto ret2; } ConvertSidToStringSid(owner,&ownerstr); printf("ownerstr of PSecurityD2: %s\n", ownerstr); ret2: free(owner); free(ownerstr); free(PSecurityD1); free(PSecurityD2); ret1: CloseHandle(hFile); return ret; }

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  • Is there a potential for resource leak/double free here?

    - by nhed
    The following sample (not compiled so I won't vouch for syntax) pulls two resources from resource pools (not allocated with new), then "binds" them together with MyClass for the duration of a certain transaction. The transaction, implemented here by myFunc, attempts to protect against leakage of these resources by tracking their "ownership". The local resource pointers are cleared when its obvious that instantiation of MyClass was successful. The local catch, as well as the destructor ~MyClass return the resources to their pool (double-frees are protected by teh above mentioned clearing of the local pointers). Instantiation of MyClass can fail and result in an exception at two steps (1) actual memory allocation, or (2) at the constructor body itself. I do not have a problem with #1, but in the case of #2, if the exception is thrown AFTER m_resA & m_resB were set. Causing both the ~MyClass and the cleanup code of myFunc to assume responsibility for returning these resources to their pools. Is this a reasonable concern? Options I have considered, but didn't like: Smart pointers (like boost's shared_ptr). I didn't see how to apply to a resource pool (aside for wrapping in yet another instance). Allowing double-free to occur at this level but protecting at the resource pools. Trying to use the exception type - trying to deduce that if bad_alloc was caught that MyClass did not take ownership. This will require a try-catch in the constructor to make sure that any allocation failures in ABC() ...more code here... wont be confused with failures to allocate MyClass. Is there a clean, simple solution that I have overlooked? class SomeExtResourceA; class SomeExtResourceB; class MyClass { private: // These resources come out of a resource pool not allocated with "new" for each use by MyClass SomeResourceA* m_resA; SomeResourceB* m_resB; public: MyClass(SomeResourceA* resA, SomeResourceB* resB): m_resA(resA), m_resB(resB) { ABC(); // ... more code here, could throw exceptions } ~MyClass(){ if(m_resA){ m_resA->Release(); } if(m_resB){ m_resB->Release(); } } }; void myFunc(void) { SomeResourceA* resA = NULL; SomeResourceB* resB = NULL; MyClass* pMyInst = NULL; try { resA = g_pPoolA->Allocate(); resB = g_pPoolB->Allocate(); pMyInst = new MyClass(resA,resB); resA=NULL; // ''ownership succesfully transfered to pMyInst resB=NULL; // ''ownership succesfully transfered to pMyInst // Do some work with pMyInst; ...; delete pMyInst; } catch (...) { // cleanup // need to check if resA, or resB were allocated prior // to construction of pMyInst. if(resA) resA->Release(); if(resB) resB->Release(); delete pMyInst; throw; // rethrow caught exception } }

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  • How do I determine if a property was overriden?

    - by Benjamin
    Hello I am doing a project that where I need to register all the properties, because of the system being so huge it would require a lot of work to register all the properties that i want to be dependent for the purpose of Xaml. The goal is to find all properties that are on the top of the tree. so basically public class A{ public int Property1 { get; set; } } public class B : A{ public int Property2 { get; set; } public virtual int Property3 { get; set; } } public class C : B{ public override int Property3 { get; set; } public int Property4 { get; set; } public int Property5 { get; set; } } The end result would be something like this A.Prorperty1 B.Property2 B.Property3 C.Property4 C.Property5 If you notice I don't want to accept overridden properties because of the way I search for the properties if I do something like this C.Property3 for example and it cannot find it it will check C's basetype and there it will find it. This is what I have so far. public static void RegisterType( Type type ) { PropertyInfo[] properties = type.GetProperties( BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.GetProperty | BindingFlags.SetProperty ); if ( properties != null && properties.Length > 0 ) { foreach ( PropertyInfo property in properties ) { // if the property is an indexers then we ignore them if ( property.Name == "Item" && property.GetIndexParameters().Length > 0 ) continue; // We don't want Arrays or Generic Property Types if ( (property.PropertyType.IsArray || property.PropertyType.IsGenericType) ) continue; // Register Property } } } What I want are the following: Public properties, that are not overridden, not static, not private Either get and set properties are allowed They are not an array or a generic type They are the top of the tree ie C class in the example is the highest (The property list example is exactly what I am looking for) They are not an indexer property ( this[index] ) Any help will be much appreciated =).

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  • Using images in QListWidget, is this possible?

    - by Neko
    Hi, again. :) As with the last few times I posted here, I have a question about QT, which I am using to create a chat messenger client. To display the list of online users, I'm using a QListWidget, as created like this: listWidget = new QListWidget(horizontalLayoutWidget); listWidget->setObjectName("userList"); QSizePolicy sizePolicy1(QSizePolicy::Preferred, QSizePolicy::Expanding); sizePolicy1.setHorizontalStretch(0); sizePolicy1.setVerticalStretch(0); sizePolicy1.setHeightForWidth(listWidget->sizePolicy().hasHeightForWidth()); listWidget->setSizePolicy(sizePolicy1); listWidget->setMinimumSize(QSize(30, 0)); listWidget->setMaximumSize(QSize(150, 16777215)); listWidget->setBaseSize(QSize(100, 0)); listWidget->setContextMenuPolicy(Qt::CustomContextMenu); Users are shown by constantly refreshing the list, like this: (Note: There are different channels, with different userlists, so refreshing it is the most efficient thing to do, as far as I know.) void FMessenger::refreshUserlist() { if (currentPanel == 0) return; listWidget = this->findChild<QListWidget *>(QString("userList")); listWidget->clear(); QList<FCharacter*> charList = currentPanel->charList(); QListWidgetItem* charitem = 0; FCharacter* character; foreach(character, charList) { charitem = new QListWidgetItem(character->name()); // charitem->setIcon(QIcon(":/Images/status.png")); listWidget->addItem(charitem); } } This has always worked perfectly. The line that I commented out is the one I have problems with: my current goal is to be able to display a user's online status with an image, which represents whether they are busy, away, available, etc. Using setIcon() does absolutely nothing though, apparently; the items still show up as they used to, without icons. I'm aware that this is probably not the way this function needs to be used, but I have found little documentation about it online, and absolutely no useful examples of implementations. My question is, can anybody help me with fixing this problem? Any help would be appreciated terrifically, like always!

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  • SQL not yielding expected results

    - by AnonJr
    I have three tables related to this particular query: Lawson_Employees: LawsonID (pk), LastName, FirstName, AccCode (numeric) Lawson_DeptInfo: AccCode (pk), AccCode2 (don't ask, HR set up), DisplayName tblExpirationDates: EmpID (pk), ACLS (date), EP (date), CPR (date), CPR_Imported (date), PALS (date), Note The goal is to get the data I need to report on all those who have already expired in one or more certification, or are going to expire in the next 90 days. Some important notes: This is being run as part of a vbScript, so the 90-day date is being calculated when the script is run. I'm using 2010-08-31 as a placeholder since its the result at the time this question is being posted. All cards expire at the end of the month. (which is why the above date is for the end of August and not 90 days on the dot) A valid EP card supersedes ACLS certification, but only the latter is required of some employees. (wasn't going to worry about it until I got this question answered, but if I can get the help I'll take it) The CPR column contains the expiration date for the last class they took with us. (NULL if they didn't take any classes with us) The CPR_Imported column contains the expiration date for the last class they took somewhere else. (NULL if they didn't take it elsewhere, and bravo for following policy) The distinction between CPR classes is important for other reports. For purposes of this report, all we really care about is which one is the most current - or at least is currently current. If I have to, I'll ignore ACLS and PALS for the time being as it is non-compliance with CPR training that is the big issue at the moment. (not that the others won't be, but they weren't mentioned in the last meeting...) Here's the query I have so far, which is giving me good data: SELECT iEmp.LawsonID, iEmp.LastName, iEmp.FirstName, dept.AccCode2, dept.DisplayName, Exp.ACLS, Exp.EP, Exp.CPR, Exp.CPR_Imported, Exp.PALS, Exp.Note FROM (Lawson_Employees AS iEmp LEFT JOIN Lawson_DeptInfo AS dept ON dept.AccCode = iEmp.AccCode) LEFT JOIN tblExpirationDates AS Exp ON iEmp.LawsonID = Exp.EmpID WHERE iEmp.CurrentEmp = 1 AND ((Exp.ACLS <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.ACLS IS NOT NULL) OR (Exp.CPR <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.CPR_Imported <= #2010-08-31#) OR (Exp.PALS <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.PALS IS NOT NULL)) ORDER BY dept.AccCode2, iEmp.LastName, iEmp.FirstName; After perusing the result set, I think I'm missing some expiration dates that should be in the result set. Am I missing something? This is the sucky part of being the only developer in the department... no one to ask for a little help.

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  • Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

    - by Owen
    Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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  • JUnit for Functions with Void Return Values

    - by RobotNerd
    I've been working on a Java application where I have to use JUnit for testing. I am learning it as I go. So far I find it to be useful, especially when used in conjunction with the Eclipse JUnit plugin. After playing around a bit, I developed a consistent method for building my unit tests for functions with no return values. I wanted to share it here and ask others to comment. Do you have any suggested improvements or alternative ways to accomplish the same goal? Common Return Values First, there's an enumeration which is used to store values representing test outcomes. public enum UnitTestReturnValues { noException, unexpectedException // etc... } Generalized Test Let's say a unit test is being written for: public class SomeClass { public void targetFunction (int x, int y) { // ... } } The JUnit test class would be created: import junit.framework.TestCase; public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { // ... } Within this class, I create a function which is used for every call to the target function being tested. It catches all exceptions and returns a message based on the outcome. For example: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { private UnitTestReturnValues callTargetFunction (int x, int y) { UnitTestReturnValues outcome = UnitTestReturnValues.noException; SomeClass testObj = new SomeClass (); try { testObj.targetFunction (x, y); } catch (Exception e) { UnitTestReturnValues.unexpectedException; } return outcome; } } JUnit Tests Functions called by JUnit begin with a lowercase "test" in the function name, and they fail at the first failed assertion. To run multiple tests on the targetFunction above, it would be written as: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { public void testTargetFunctionNegatives () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (-1, -1), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } public void testTargetFunctionZeros () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (0, 0), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } // and so on... } Please let me know if you have any suggestions or improvements. Keep in mind that I am in the process of learning how to use JUnit, so I'm sure there are existing tools available that might make this process easier. Thanks!

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  • Serialize JavaScript's navigator object

    - by kappa
    Hi, I'm creating a page to help diagnose the problem our users are experiencing with our web pages (you know, asking a user "What browser are you using?" usually leads to "Internet"). This page already submits to me all the HTTP headers and now I'm trying to have JavaScript give some more informations, so I thought it would be great to have the user's navigator JavaScript object and I started looking how to serialize it so I can submit it through a form. The problem is I'm not able to serialize the navigator object using any JSON library I know of, everyone returns an empty object (?!), so I decided to write an ad-hoc serializer. You can find the code here: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.0/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function serialize (object) { var type = typeof object; if (object === null) { return '"nullValue"'; } if (type == 'string' || type === 'number' || type === 'boolean') { return '"' + object + '"'; } else if (type === 'function') { return '"functionValue"'; } else if (type === 'object') { var output = '{'; for (var item in object) { if (item !== 'enabledPlugin') { output += '"' + item + '":' + serialize(object[item]) + ','; } } return output.replace(/\,$/, '') + '}'; } else if (type === 'undefined') { return '"undefinedError"'; } else { return '"unknownTypeError"'; } }; $(document).ready(function () { $('#navigator').text(serialize(navigator)); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> #navigator { font-family: monospaced; } </style> <title>Serialize</title> </head> <body> <h1>Serialize</h1> <p id="navigator"></p> </body> </html> This code seems to work perfectly in Firefox, Opera, Chrome and Safari but (obviously) doesn't work in Internet Explorer (at least version 8.0), it complains that "Property or method not supported by the object" at line for (var item in object) {. Do you have any hint on how to fix the code or how to reach the goal (serialize the navigator object) by other means?

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  • Is typeid of type name always evaluated at compile time in c++ ?

    - by cyril42e
    I wanted to check that typeid is evaluated at compile time when used with a type name (ie typeid(int), typeid(std::string)...). To do so, I repeated in a loop the comparison of two typeid calls, and compiled it with optimizations enabled, in order to see if the compiler simplified the loop (by looking at the execution time which is 1us when it simplifies instead of 160ms when it does not). And I get strange results, because sometimes the compiler simplifies the code, and sometimes it does not. I use g++ (I tried different 4.x versions), and here is the program: #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> #include <time.h> class DisplayData {}; class RobotDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class SensorDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class RobotQt {}; class SensorQt {}; timespec tp1, tp2; const int n = 1000000000; int main() { int avg = 0; clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp1); for(int i = 0; i < n; ++i) { // if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay)) // (1) compile time // if (typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (2) compile time if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay) || typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (3) not compile time ???!!! avg++; else avg--; } clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp2); std::cout << "time (" << avg << "): " << (tp2.tv_sec-tp1.tv_sec)*1000000000+(tp2.tv_nsec-tp1.tv_nsec) << " ns" << std::endl; } The conditions in which this problem appear are not clear, but: - if there is no inheritance involved, no problem (always compile time) - if I do only one comparison, no problem - the problem only appears only with a disjunction of comparisons if all the terms are false So is there something I didn't get with how typeid works (is it always supposed to be evaluated at compilation time when used with type names?) or may this be a gcc bug in evaluation or optimization? About the context, I tracked down the problem to this very simplified example, but my goal is to use typeid with template types (as partial function template specialization is not possible). Thanks for your help!

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • Vector iterators in for loops, return statements, warning, c++

    - by Crystal
    Had 3 questions regarding a hw assignment for C++. The goal was to create a simple palindrome method. Here is my template for that: #ifndef PALINDROME_H #define PALINDROME_H #include <vector> #include <iostream> #include <cmath> template <class T> static bool palindrome(const std::vector<T> &input) { std::vector<T>::const_iterator it = input.begin(); std::vector<T>::const_reverse_iterator rit = input.rbegin(); for (int i = 0; i < input.size()/2; i++, it++, rit++) { if (!(*it == *rit)) { return false; } } return true; } template <class T> static void showVector(const std::vector<T> &input) { for (std::vector<T>::const_iterator it = input.begin(); it != input.end(); it++) { std::cout << *it << " "; } } #endif Regarding the above code, can you have more than one iterator declared in the first part of the for loop? I tried defining both the "it" and "rit" in the palindrome() method, and I kept on getting an error about needing a "," before rit. But when I cut and paste outside the for loop, no errors from the compiler. (I'm using VS 2008). Second question, I pretty much just brain farted on this one. But is the way I have my return statements in the palindrome() method ok? In my head, I think it works like, once the *it and *rit do not equal each other, then the function returns false, and the method exits at this point. Otherwise if it goes all the way through the for loop, then it returns true at the end. I totally brain farted on how return statements work in if blocks and I tried looking up a good example in my book and I couldn't find one. Finally, I get this warnings: \palindrome.h(14) : warning C4018: '<' : signed/unsigned mismatch Now is that because I run my for loop until (i < input.size()/2) and the compiler is telling me that input can be negative? Thanks!

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