Search Results

Search found 7418 results on 297 pages for 'argument passing'.

Page 223/297 | < Previous Page | 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230  | Next Page >

  • C# .NET : Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ funciton calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is suffice?

    Read the article

  • Why an auto_ptr can "seal" a container

    - by icephere
    auto_ptr on wikipedia said that "an auto_ptr containing an STL container may be used to prevent further modification of the container.". It used the following example: auto_ptr<vector<ContainedType> > open_vec(new vector<ContainedType>); open_vec->push_back(5); open_vec->push_back(3); // Transfers control, but now the vector cannot be changed: auto_ptr<const vector<ContainedType> > closed_vec(open_vec); // closed_vec->push_back(8); // Can no longer modify If I uncomment the last line, g++ will report an error as t05.cpp:24: error: passing ‘const std::vector<int, std::allocator<int> >’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>::push_back(const _Tp&) [with _Tp = int, _Alloc = std::allocator<int>]’ discards qualifiers I am curious why after transferring the ownership of this vector, it can no longer be modified? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Converting a Linq expression tree that relies on SqlMethods.Like() for use with the Entity Framework

    - by JohnnyO
    I recently switched from using Linq to Sql to the Entity Framework. One of the things that I've been really struggling with is getting a general purpose IQueryable extension method that was built for Linq to Sql to work with the Entity Framework. This extension method has a dependency on the Like() method of SqlMethods, which is Linq to Sql specific. What I really like about this extension method is that it allows me to dynamically construct a Sql Like statement on any object at runtime, by simply passing in a property name (as string) and a query clause (also as string). Such an extension method is very convenient for using grids like flexigrid or jqgrid. Here is the Linq to Sql version (taken from this tutorial: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/MVCFlexigrid.aspx): public static IQueryable<T> Like<T>(this IQueryable<T> source, string propertyName, string keyword) { var type = typeof(T); var property = type.GetProperty(propertyName); var parameter = Expression.Parameter(type, "p"); var propertyAccess = Expression.MakeMemberAccess(parameter, property); var constant = Expression.Constant("%" + keyword + "%"); var like = typeof(SqlMethods).GetMethod("Like", new Type[] { typeof(string), typeof(string) }); MethodCallExpression methodExp = Expression.Call(null, like, propertyAccess, constant); Expression<Func<T, bool>> lambda = Expression.Lambda<Func<T, bool>>(methodExp, parameter); return source.Where(lambda); } With this extension method, I can simply do the following: someList.Like("FirstName", "mike"); or anotherList.Like("ProductName", "widget"); Is there an equivalent way to do this with Entity Framework? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • WCF object parameter loses values

    - by Josh
    I'm passing an object to a WCF service and wasn't getting anything back. I checked the variable as it gets passed to the method that actually does the work and noticed that none of the values are set on the object at that point. Here's the object: [DataContract] public class Section { [DataMember] public long SectionID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string Title { get; set; } [DataMember] public string Text { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Order { get; set; } } Here's the service code for the method: [OperationContract] public List<Section> LoadAllSections(Section s) { return SectionRepository.Instance().LoadAll(s); } The code that actually calls this method is this and is located in a Silverlight XAML file: SectionServiceClient proxy = new SectionServiceClient(); proxy.LoadAllSectionsCompleted += new EventHandler<LoadAllSectionsCompletedEventArgs>(proxy_LoadAllSectionsCompleted); Section s = new Section(); s.SectionID = 4; proxy.LoadAllSectionsAsync(s); When the code finally gets into the method LoadAllSections(Section s), the parameter's SectionID is not set. I stepped through the code and when it goes into the generated code that returns an IAsyncResult object, the object's properties are set. But when it actually calls the method, LoadAllSections, the parameter received is completely blank. Is there something I have to set to make the proeprty stick between method calls?

    Read the article

  • String.Format Phone Numbers with Extension

    - by ChiliYago
    I am trying to create a an function that formats US phone numbers -- hopefully without looping through each digit. When 10 digits are passed in all is fine. How ever when more than 10 digits are passed in I want the String.Format method to append the extension digits on the right. For example: When 14 digits passed in the result should be:(444)555-2222 x8888 When 12 digits passed in the result should be:(444)555-2222 x88 etc. However what I get with my current attempt is: Passing in 12 digits returns this string '() -949 x555444433' here is what I have so far. public static string _FormatPhone(object phonevalue) { Int64 phoneDigits; if (Int64.TryParse(phonevalue.ToString(), out phoneDigits)) { string cleanPhoneDigits = phoneDigits.ToString(); int digitCount = cleanPhoneDigits.Length; if (digitCount == 10) return String.Format("{0:(###) ###-####}", phoneDigits); else if (digitCount > 10) return String.Format("{0:(###) ###-#### x#########}", phoneDigits); else return cleanPhoneDigits; } return "Format Err#"; } Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ObjectContext disposed puzzle

    - by jaklucky
    Hi, I have the follwing method. public List<MyEntity> GetMyEntities(MyObjectContext objCtx) { using(MyObjectContext ctx = objCtx ?? new MyObjectContext()) { retun ctx.MyEntities.ToList(); } } The idea is, user of this method can pass in the objectcontext if they have. If not then a new objectcontext will be created. If I am passing an object context to it, then it is getting disposed after the method is done. I was expecting only "ctx" variable gets disposed. If I write a small app, to know the using and dispose mechanism. It is acting differently. class TestClass : IDisposable { public int Number { get; set; } public string Str { get; set; } public ChildClass Child { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class ChildClass : IDisposable { public string StrChild { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Child Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TestClass test = null; test = new TestClass(); test.Child = new ChildClass(); using (TestClass test1 = test ?? new TestClass()) { test1.Number = 1; test1.Str = "hi"; test1.Child.StrChild = "Child one"; test1.Child.Dispose(); } test.Str = "hi"; test.Child.StrChild = "hi child"; Console.ReadLine(); } } In this example, "test1"gets disposed but not "test". Where as in the first case both ctx and objCtx get disposed. Any ideas what is happening here with objectContext? Thank you, Suresh

    Read the article

  • pass objective c object and primitive type into a void *

    - by user674669
    I want to pass 2 variables: UIImage * img int i into another method that only takes a (void *) I tried making a C struct containing both img and i struct MyStruct { UIImage *img; int i; } but xcode gives me an error saying "ARC forbids Objective-C objects in structs or unions" The next thing I tried is to write an objective-c class MyStruct2 containing img and i, alloc-initing an instance of it and typecasting it as (__bridge void*) before passing it to the method. Seems little involved for my use case. Seems like there should be a better way. What's the simplest way to achieve this? Thank you. Edit based on comments: I have to use void * as it is required by the UIView API. I created a selector as mentioned by UIVIew API + (void)setAnimationDidStopSelector:(SEL)selector Please see documentation for setAnimationDidStopSelector at http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/uikit/reference/UIView_Class/UIView/UIView.html . It says ... The selector should be of the form: - (void)animationDidStop:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context I want to pass both img and i into the (void *)context argument.

    Read the article

  • Perl WordPress::XMLRPC categories not being set.

    - by Jay
    The following code works fine to upload a new post to a WordPress blog but for the life of me I can't seem to get the categories to be set. The categories exist. I've tried all lower case, tried case-matching, tried the slug version. Nothing works. No matter how I try passing the categories, the post gets assigned only to the default category. I've scoured the web to find other pieces of sample code and none mention the actual code semantics of how to assign post to certain categories using the WordPress::XMLRPC module. use WordPress::XMLRPC; my $o = WordPress::XMLRPC-new; $o-username('username'); $o-password('password'); $o-proxy('http://blogdomain.com/xmlrpc.php'); $o-server() || die "$!"; my $hashref = { 'title' = 'Test New Post 999 555456782', 'categories' = ['Categorie1', 'Categorie2'], 'description' = '<pHere is the content</p', 'mt_keywords' = 'tag1, tag2, tag3', 'mt_allow_comments' = 1, }; my $ID = $o-newPost($hashref, 1);

    Read the article

  • How do I use Perl's WWW::Facebook::API to publish to a user's newsfeed?

    - by Russell C.
    We use Facebook Connect on our site in conjunction with the WWW::Facebook::API CPAN module to publish to our users newsfeed when requested by the user. So far we've been able to successfully update the user's status using the following code: use WWW::Facebook::API; my $facebook = WWW::Facebook::API->new( desktop => 0, api_key => $fb_api_key, secret => $fb_secret, session_key => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_session_key'), session_expires => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_expires'), session_uid => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_user') ); my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, ); However, when we try to update the code above so we can publish newsfeed stories that include attachments and action links as specified in the Facebook API documentation for Stream.Publish, we have tried about 100 different ways without any success. According to the CPAN documentation all we should have to do is update our code to something like the following and pass the attachments & action links appropriately which doesn't seem to work: my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, attachment => $json, action_links => [@links], ); For example, we are passing the above arguments as follows: $json = qq|{ 'name': 'i\'m bursting with joy', 'href': ' http://bit.ly/187gO1', 'caption': '{*actor*} rated the lolcat 5 stars', 'description': 'a funny looking cat', 'properties': { 'category': { 'text': 'humor', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/KYbaN'}, 'ratings': '5 stars' }, 'media': [{ 'type': 'image', 'src': 'http://icanhascheezburger.files.wordpress.com/2009/03/funny-pictures-your-cat-is-bursting-with-joy1.jpg', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/187gO1'}] }|; @links = ["{'text':'Link 1', 'href':'http://www.link1.com'}","{'text':'Link 2', 'href':'http://www.link2.com'}"]; The above, nor any of the other representations we tried seem to work. I'm hoping some other perl developer out there has this working and can explain how to create the attachment and action_links variables appropriately in Perl for posting to the Facebook news feed through WWW::Facebook::API. Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Event delegation between user controls

    - by Ishan
    Give the following control hierarchy on a ASP.NET page: Page HeaderControl       (User Control) TitleControl       (Server Control) TabsControl       (User Control) other controls I'm trying to raise an event (or some notification) in the TitleControl that bubbles to the Page level. Then, I'd like to (optionally) register an event handler at the Page codebehind that will take the EventArgs and modify the TabsControl in the example above. The important thing to note is that this design will allow me to drop these controls into any Page and make the entire system work seamlessly if the event handler is wired up. The solution should not involve a call to FindControl() since that becomes a strong association. If no handler is defined in the containing Page, the event is still raised by TitleControl but is not handled. My basic goal is to use event-based programming so that I can decouple the user controls from each other. The event from TitleControl is only raised in some instances, and this seemed to be (in my head) the preferred approach. However, I can't seem to find a way to cleanly achieve this. Here are my (poor) attempts: Using HttpContext.Current.Items Add the EventArgs to the Items collection on TitleControl and pick it up on the TabsControl. This works but it's fundamentally hard to decipher since the connection between the two controls is not obvious. Using Reflection Instead of passing events, look for a function on the container Page directly within TitleControl as in: Page.GetType().GetMethod("TabControlHandler").Invoke(Page, EventArgs); This will work, but the method name will have to be a constant that all Page instances will have to defined verbatim. I'm sure that I'm over-thinking this and there must be a prettier solution using delegation, but I can't seem to think of it. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How to avoid using this in a constructor

    - by Paralife
    I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 DisplayFor()

    - by ZombieSheep
    I'm looking at the new version of ASP.NET MVC (see here for more details if you haven't seen it already) and I'm having some pretty basic trouble displaying the content of an object. In my control I have an object of type "Person", which I am passing to the view in ViewData.Model. All is well so far, and I can extact the object in the view ready for display. What I don't get, though, is how I need to call the Html.DisplayFor() method in order to get the data to screen. I've tried the following... <% MVC2test.Models.Person p = ViewData.Model as MVC2test.Models.Person; %> // snip <%= Html.DisplayFor(p => p) %> but I get the following message: CS0136: A local variable named 'p' cannot be declared in this scope because it would give a different meaning to 'p', which is already used in a 'parent or current' scope to denote something else I know this is not what I should be doing - I know that redefining a variable will producte this error, but I don't know how to access the object from the controller. So my question is, how do I pass the object to the view in order to display its properties? (I should add that I am reading up on this in my limited spare time, so it is entirely possible I have missed something fundamental) TIA

    Read the article

  • Accessing an iFrame's dom from a Firefox Extension

    - by luisgo
    Hi all, I've spent a long time trying different things to get this to work but nothing does and documentation is not helping much. I'm trying to populate a form inside an iframe that I dynamically inject into a page. To inject that iframe I do: myObject.iframe = document.createElement("iframe"); myObject.iframe.setAttribute("src", data.url); myObject.iframe.setAttribute("id","extension-iframe"); myObject.window.document.getElementById('publisher').appendChild(myObject.iframe); myObject.iframe.addEventListener("load", function(){ myObject.populate(data); }, false); which works fine and DOES trigger the populate() method. My problem is getting the document or window objects for that iframe. I've tried all of the following: myObject.iframe.window myObject.iframe.document myObject.iframe.content but these are all undefined. I also tried passing the event object to that iframe's load event listener and then doing: event.originalTarget But that didn't work either. I am reading the following documentation: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/Working%5Fwith%5Fwindows%5Fin%5Fchrome%5Fcode https://developer.mozilla.org/en/Code%5Fsnippets/Interaction%5Fbetween%5Fprivileged%5Fand%5Fnon-privileged%5Fpages But either I'm not understanding it or it's just not properly explained. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What would cause native gem extensions on OS X to build but fail to load?

    - by goodmike
    I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

    Read the article

  • Intent.putExtras not consistent

    - by martinjd
    I have a weird situation with AlarmManager. I am scheduling an event with AlarmManager and passing in a string using intent.putExtra. The string is either silent or vibrate and when the receiver fires the phone should either turn of the ringer or set the phone to vibrate. The log statement correctly outputs the expected value each time. Intent intent; if (eventType.equals("start")) { intent = new Intent(context, SReceiver.class); } else { intent = new Intent(context, EReceiver.class); } intent.setAction(eventType+Long.toString(newId)); Log.v("EditQT",ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); intent.putExtra("ringerModeType", ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); PendingIntent appIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService (Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), appIntent); The receiver that fires when the alarm executes also has a log statement and I can see the first time around that the statement outputs the expected string either SILENT or VIBRATE. The alarm executes and then I change the value for putExtra to opposite string and the receiver still displays the previous value event though the call from the code above shows that the new value was passed in. The value for setAction is the same each time. audioManager = (AudioManager) context.getSystemService(Activity.AUDIO_SERVICE); Log.v("Start",intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").toString()); if (intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").equals("SILENTMODE")) { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_SILENT); } else { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_VIBRATE); } Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

    Read the article

  • Does query plan optimizer works well with joined/filtered table-valued functions?

    - by smoothdeveloper
    In SQLSERVER 2005, I'm using table-valued function as a convenient way to perform arbitrary aggregation on subset data from large table (passing date range or such parameters). I'm using theses inside larger queries as joined computations and I'm wondering if the query plan optimizer work well with them in every condition or if I'm better to unnest such computation in my larger queries. Does query plan optimizer unnest table-valued functions if it make sense? If it doesn't, what do you recommend to avoid code duplication that would occur by manually unnesting them? If it does, how do you identify that from the execution plan? code sample: create table dbo.customers ( [key] uniqueidentifier , constraint pk_dbo_customers primary key ([key]) ) go /* assume large amount of data */ create table dbo.point_of_sales ( [key] uniqueidentifier , customer_key uniqueidentifier , constraint pk_dbo_point_of_sales primary key ([key]) ) go create table dbo.product_ranges ( [key] uniqueidentifier , constraint pk_dbo_product_ranges primary key ([key]) ) go create table dbo.products ( [key] uniqueidentifier , product_range_key uniqueidentifier , release_date datetime , constraint pk_dbo_products primary key ([key]) , constraint fk_dbo_products_product_range_key foreign key (product_range_key) references dbo.product_ranges ([key]) ) go . /* assume large amount of data */ create table dbo.sales_history ( [key] uniqueidentifier , product_key uniqueidentifier , point_of_sale_key uniqueidentifier , accounting_date datetime , amount money , quantity int , constraint pk_dbo_sales_history primary key ([key]) , constraint fk_dbo_sales_history_product_key foreign key (product_key) references dbo.products ([key]) , constraint fk_dbo_sales_history_point_of_sale_key foreign key (point_of_sale_key) references dbo.point_of_sales ([key]) ) go create function dbo.f_sales_history_..snip.._date_range ( @accountingdatelowerbound datetime, @accountingdateupperbound datetime ) returns table as return ( select pos.customer_key , sh.product_key , sum(sh.amount) amount , sum(sh.quantity) quantity from dbo.point_of_sales pos inner join dbo.sales_history sh on sh.point_of_sale_key = pos.[key] where sh.accounting_date between @accountingdatelowerbound and @accountingdateupperbound group by pos.customer_key , sh.product_key ) go -- TODO: insert some data -- this is a table containing a selection of product ranges declare @selectedproductranges table([key] uniqueidentifier) -- this is a table containing a selection of customers declare @selectedcustomers table([key] uniqueidentifier) declare @low datetime , @up datetime -- TODO: set top query parameters . select saleshistory.customer_key , saleshistory.product_key , saleshistory.amount , saleshistory.quantity from dbo.products p inner join @selectedproductranges productrangeselection on p.product_range_key = productrangeselection.[key] inner join @selectedcustomers customerselection on 1 = 1 inner join dbo.f_sales_history_..snip.._date_range(@low, @up) saleshistory on saleshistory.product_key = p.[key] and saleshistory.customer_key = customerselection.[key] I hope the sample makes sense. Much thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • Techniques for sharing a value among classes in a program

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    I'm using Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.CommonApplicationData) + "\MyProgram" As the path to store several files used by my program. I'd like to avoid pasting the same snippet of code all over the my applcation. I need to ensure that: The path cannot be accidentally changed once its been set The classes that need it have access to it. I've considered: Making it a singleton Using constructor dependency injection Using property dependency injection Using AOP to create the path where its needed. Each has pros and cons. The singleton is everyone's favorite whipping boy. I'm not opposed to using one but there are valid reasons to avoid it if possible. I'm already heavily using constructor injection through Castle Windsor. But this is a path string and Windsor doesn't handle system type dependencies very gracefully. I could always wrap it in a class but that seems like overkill for something as simple as a passing around a string value. In any case this route would add yet another constructor argument to each class where it is used. The problem I see with property injection in this case is that there is a large amount of indirection from the where the value is set to where it is needed. I would need a very long line of middlemen to reach all the places where its used. AOP looks promising and I'm planning on using AOP for logging anyway so this at least sounds like a simple solution. Is there any other options I haven't considered? Am I off base with my evaluation of the options I have considered?

    Read the article

  • How do I animate UserControl objects using Storyboard and DoubleAnimation?

    - by Neo
    In my WPF application, I have a Canvas object that contains some UserControl objects. I wish to animate the UserControl objects within the Canvas using DoubleAnimation so that they go from the right of the Canvas to the left of the Canvas. This is how I have done it so far (by passing the UserControl objects into the function): private void Animate(FrameworkElement e) { DoubleAnimation ani = new DoubleAnimation() { From = _container.ActualWidth, To = 0.0, Duration = new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10), TargetElement = e }; TranslateTransform trans = new TranslateTransform(); e.RenderTransform = trans; trans.BeginAnimation(TranslateTransform.XProperty, ani, HandoffBehavior.Compose); } However, this doesn't allow me to pause the animation, so I have considered using a Storyboard instead to do this, but I'm not sure how to implement this. This has been my attempt so far: private void Animate(FrameworkElement e) { DoubleAnimation ani = new DoubleAnimation() { From = _container.ActualWidth, To = 0.0, Duration = new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10), TargetElement = e }; Storyboard stb = new Storyboard(); Storyboard.SetTarget(ani, e); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(ani, "Left"); stb.Children.Add(ani); stb.Begin(); } Of course, this fails as UserControl doesn't have a Left property. How can I achieve what I'm after? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C# and SQL - sub select from a table parameter

    - by Dr.HappyPants
    Below is a code snippet for passing a table as a parameter to a query that can be used in Sql Server 2008. I'm confused though about the "SELECT id.custid FROM @custids id". Why does it use id.custid and @custids id...? private static void datatable_example() { string [] custids = {"ALFKI", "BONAP", "CACTU", "FRANK"}; DataTable custid_list = new DataTable(); custid_list.Columns.Add("custid", typeof(String)); foreach (string custid in custids) { DataRow dr = custid_list.NewRow(); dr["custid"] = custid; custid_list.Rows.Add(dr); } using(SqlConnection cn = setup_connection()) { using(SqlCommand cmd = cn.CreateCommand()) { cmd.CommandText = @"SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName FROM Northwind.dbo.Customers C WHERE C.CustomerID IN (SELECT id.custid FROM @custids id)"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@custids", SqlDbType.Structured); cmd.Parameters["@custids"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters["@custids"].TypeName = "custid_list_tbltype"; cmd.Parameters["@custids"].Value = custid_list; using (SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd)) using (DataSet ds = new DataSet()) { da.Fill(ds); PrintDataSet(ds); } } }

    Read the article

  • How to convert none-Latin-based encoded text into UTF-8, or make them coexist on same page?

    - by Yallaa
    Good day, I have a script that scrapes the title/description of remote pages and prints those values into a corresponding charset=UTF-8 encoded page. Here is the problem, whenever a remote page is encoded with non-Latin characters encoding like (Arabic, Russian, Chinese, Japanese etc.) the imported values print as garbled text. I've tried passing those values through either iconv or mb_convert_encoding converters but without much success. Then, I tried detecting the remote encoding first, then change my presentation page's encoding into the remote one instead of the current utf-8, which works okay with the imported values, but the other existing utf-8 content of that language on the page gets garbled instead. Example: If I try to import those values from a Russian windows-1251 into my UTF-8 encoded page which has a mix English/Russian content. I change the imported non-utf-8 string into a utf-8 using either iconv or mb_convert_encoding. I tried: $RemoteValue = iconv($RemoteEncoding, 'UTF-8', $RemoteValue); or $RemoteValue mb_convert_encoding($RemoteValue, "UTF-8", $RemoteEncoding); or $RemoteValue mb_convert_encoding($RemoteValue, "UTF-8", "auto"); without success. If I detect that the remote page is windows-1251 encoded and I change my presentation page (which already has UTF-8 encoded mixed language content) to be similar to the remote page, then the japanese utf-8 content on the existing page gets garbled... Can 2 differently encoded strings coexist on the same page (ex. utf-8 & windows-1251)? Am I using the converters correctly? any hints as to why they don't work? Is there any better way to do this? Thank you for your help

    Read the article

  • 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

    - by TomTom
    Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

    Read the article

  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I supply extra info to IApplicationSettingsProvider class?

    - by joebeazelman
    Perhaps this question has been asked before in a different way, but I haven’t been able to find it. I have one or more plugin adapter assemblies in my application all having the type IPlugin, for instance. Each adapter has its own settings structures stored in a common directory. Whether they are stored in one contiguous file or in separate ones doesn’t matter. Each adapter can have one or more settings associated with it. The settings will have both a name and the Plugin it will be used for. How would I create such a configuration system using the following requirements: I want to use .NETs built in settings system and avoid writing one from scratch The host application will be responsible for locating the plugin settings and passing it to the plugin Each plugin will be responsible for reading and writing its own settings to separate concerns. The host application should call Plugin.Save(thePath) and it does its thing. All settings are user scoped So far, I realize that I would need to write my own SettingsProvider, but the provider seems to work in isolation in that there’s no way to pass it parameters such as the path of the plugin directory and the name of the settings. All of the example code I've seen has the provider getting the data from the runtime environment.

    Read the article

  • nested insert exec work around

    - by stackoverflowuser
    i have 2 stored procedures usp_SP1 and usp_SP2. Both of them make use of insert into #tt exec sp_somesp. I wanted to created a 3rd stored procedure which will decide which stored proc to call. something like create proc usp_Decision ( @value int ) as begin if (@value = 1) exec usp_SP1 -- this proc already has insert into #tt exec usp_somestoredproc else exec usp_SP2 -- this proc too has insert into #tt exec usp_somestoredproc end Later realized I needed some structure defined for the return value from usp_Decision so that i can populate the SSRS dataset field. So here is what i tried: within usp_Decision created a temp table and tried to do "insert into #tt exec usp_SP1". Didn't work out. error "insert exec cannot be nested" within usp_Decision tried passing table variable to each of the stored proc and update the table within the stored procs and do "select * from ". That didnt work out as well. Table variable passed as parameter cannot be modified within the stored proc. Pls. suggest what can de done?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230  | Next Page >