Search Results

Search found 7418 results on 297 pages for 'argument passing'.

Page 219/297 | < Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >

  • How to deal with special characters in ASP.NET's HyperLink.NavigateUrl?

    - by DJ Pirtu
    I am currently having troubles figuring out how to handle a filepath to be (dynamicly) passed out to a HyperLink control's NavigateUrl property. Let's say that I'm trying to refer to a file named jäynä.txt at the root of C:. Passing "file:///C:/jäynä.txt" result to a link to file:///C:/jäynä.txt, as does HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode("file:///C:/jäynä.txt"). Replacing the äs with %E4, which gives the string "file:///C:/j%E4yn%E4.txt", does give a working link to file:///C:/jäynä.txt, but I have not been able to find a way to make the replacement without defining it myself. With Replace("ä", "%E4"), for example. Is there a way to automaticly handle the filepath string so that the HyperLink would display it correctly, without manualy listing what characters to replace in the string? Additional Note: There may be a way to work around this by spesifying the character encoding in which the page is rendered, because debugging shows that the HyperLink at least saves the string "file:///C:/jäynä.txt" unchanged, but somehow mangles it around the time of rendering. However, this seems only be the case in rendering of the NavigateUrl because other components as well as HyperLink's Text-property are all quite capable of rendering the character ä unchanged.

    Read the article

  • Persist subclass as superclass using Hibernate

    - by franziga
    I have a subclass and a superclass. However, only the fields of the superclass are needed to be persist. session.saveOrUpdate((Superclass) subclass); If I do the above, I will get the following exception. org.hibernate.MappingException: Unknown entity: test.Superclass at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionFactoryImpl.java:628) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionImpl.java:1366) at org.hibernate.engine.ForeignKeys.isTransient(ForeignKeys.java:203) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener.getEntityState(AbstractSaveEventListener.java:535) at org.hibernate.event.def.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.performSaveOrUpdate(DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.java:103) at org.hibernate.event.def.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.onSaveOrUpdate(DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.java:93) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.fireSaveOrUpdate(SessionImpl.java:535) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.saveOrUpdate(SessionImpl.java:527) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.saveOrUpdate(SessionImpl.java:523) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.hibernate.context.ThreadLocalSessionContext$TransactionProtectionWrapper.invoke(ThreadLocalSessionContext.java:342) at $Proxy54.saveOrUpdate(Unknown Source) How can I persist a subclass as a superclass? I do not prefer creating a superclass instance and then passing the values from the subclass instance. Because, it is easy to forget updating the logic if extra fields are added to superclass in the future.

    Read the article

  • asp.net Impersonate User for network resource access

    - by lonelycoder
    code: System.Security.Principal.WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; impersonationContext = ((System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity)User.Identity).Impersonate(); //access network resources. impersonationContext.Undo(); web.config: <authentication mode="Windows"> </authentication> <identity impersonate="true" userName="user" password="password"></identity> As clear from web.config file, the app runs in an impersonated mode. I need to impersonate temporarily on top of that to access a network resource. I do that as shown above. This works fine on server if I browse to the website on the local IE installed on the server but when I access the app from my PC or any other PC, I get a access denied. Btw, this is all within an enterprise domain environment. so IE in both cases is passing a valid authenticated token. Any ideas what is going on. thanks.

    Read the article

  • Parallel WCF calls to multiple servers

    - by gregmac
    I have a WCF service (the same one) running on multiple servers, and I'd like to call all instances in parallel from a single client. I'm using ChannelFactory and the interface (contract) to call the service. Each service has a local <endpoint> client defined in the .config file. What I'm trying to do is build some kind of generic framework to avoid code duplication. For example a synchronous call in a single thread looks something like this: Dim remoteName As String = "endpointName1" Dim svcProxy As ChannelFactory(Of IMyService) = New ChannelFactory(Of IMyService)(remoteName) Try svcProxy.Open() Dim svc As IMyService = svcProxy.CreateChannel() nodeResult = svc.TestRemote("foo") Finally svcProxy.Close() End Try The part I'm having difficulty with is how to specify and actually invoke the actual remote method (eg "TestRemote") without having to duplicate the above code, and all the thread-related stuff that invokes that, for each method. In the end, I'd like to be able to write code along the lines of (consider this psuedo code): Dim results as Dictionary(Of Node, ExpectedReturnType) results = ParallelInvoke(IMyService.SomeMethod, parameter1, parameter2) where ParallelInvoke() will take the method as an argument, as well as the parameters (paramArray or object() .. whatever) and then go run the request on each remote node, block until they all return an answer or timeout, and then return the results into a Dictionary with the key as the node, and the value as whatever value it returned. I can then (depending on the method) pick out the single value I need, or aggregate all the values from each server together, etc. I'm pretty sure I can do this using reflection and InvokeMember(), but that requires passing the method as a string (which can lead to errors like calling a non-existing method that can't be caught at compile time), so I'd like to see if there is a cleaner way to do this. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Oracle XMLDB's XMLCAST and XMLQUERY incompatible with iBatis?

    - by tthong
    I've been trying to select a list of values from XMLs stored in an XMLType column but I keep getting the errors which are listed at the tail end of this post. The select id is getXMLFragment , and the relevant subset of the sqlmap.xml is as follows: <select id="getXMLFragment" resultClass="list"> SELECT XMLCAST(XMLQUERY('$CUSTOMER/CUSTOMER/DETAILS/ CUST_NAME/text()' PASSING CUSTOMER AS "CUSTOMER" RETURNING CONTENT) AS VARCHAR2(20)) AS customers FROM SHOP.CLIENT_INFO </select> (CUSTOMER is an XMLType column in CLIENT_INFO) and I call the statement using List<String> custNames= (List<String>) sqlMap.queryForList("getXMLFragment"); I am using ibatis-2.3.4.726.jar. Is it because iBatis does not recognise XMLDB queries and hence, tokenizes the string wrongly? On a sidenote, I have implemented XMLTypeCallback.java to handle XMLType insertions successfully, and I think it will work should I wish to retrieve the entire XML. However, in this case, I need to extract only individual values due to requirements. A workaround would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. The exceptions generated are listed below: --- The error occurred in sqlMap.xml. --- The error occurred while preparing the mapped statement for execution. --- Check the getXMLFragment. --- Check the SQL statement. --- Cause: java.util.NoSuchElementException at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.MappedStatement.executeQueryWithCallback(MappedStatement.java: 204) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.MappedStatement.executeQueryForList(MappedStatement.java: 139) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapExecutorDelegate.queryForList(SqlMapExecutorDelegate.java: 567) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapExecutorDelegate.queryForList(SqlMapExecutorDelegate.java: 541) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapSessionImpl.queryForList(SqlMapSessionImpl.java: 118) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapSessionImpl.queryForList(SqlMapSessionImpl.java: 122) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapClientImpl.queryForList(SqlMapClientImpl.java: 98) at Main.main(Main.java:60) Caused by: java.util.NoSuchElementException at java.util.StringTokenizer.nextToken(StringTokenizer.java:332) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.sql.simple.SimpleDynamicSql.processDynamicElements(SimpleDynamicSql.java: 90) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.sql.simple.SimpleDynamicSql.getSql(SimpleDynamicSql.java: 45) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.MappedStatement.executeQueryWithCallback(MappedStatement.java: 184) ... 7 more

    Read the article

  • Design/Architecture Advice Needed

    - by Rachel
    Summary: I have different components on homepage and each components shows some promotion to the user. I have Cart as one Component and depending upon content of the cart promotion are show. I have to track user online activities and send that information to Omniture for Report Generation. Now my components are loaded asynchronously basically are loaded when AjaxRequest is fired up and so there is not fix pattern or rather information on when components will appear on the webpages. Now in order to pass information to Omniture I need to call track function on $(document).(ready) and append information for each components(7 parameters are required by Omniture for each component). So in the init:config function of each component am calling Omniture and passing paramters but now no. of Omniture calls is directly proportional to no. of Components on the webpage but this is not acceptable as each call to Omniture is very expensive. Now I am looking for a way where in I can club the information about 7 parameters and than make one Call to Omniture wherein I pass those information. Points to note is that I do not know when the components are loaded and so there is no pre-defined time or no. of components that would be loaded. The thing is am calling track function when document is ready but components are loaded after call to Omniture has been made and so my question is Q: How can I collect the information for all the components and than just make one call to Omniture to send those information ? As mentioned, I do not know when the components are loaded as they are done on the Ajax Request. Hope I am able to explain my challenge and would appreciate if some one can provide from Design/Architect Solutions for the Challenge.

    Read the article

  • Flash CS3/AS3 - How to Mask Nested MovieClips in External Classes

    - by Max Jackson
    I have a number of external class files that make up (or are trying to build) a portfolio. One of the class files for this project is a Menu.as class I tried extends, but I'm yet to use extends to where it doesn't become a ball of tangled holiday cheer. So my main portfolio class (the one where I'm assembling everything) calls an instance of the Menu class. From the Preloader through the Portfolio class into the Menu class is where I'm passing the content because I want to package things properly. This is Menu content, so naturally I want to position it in a properly names spot. I'm trying to reveal this Menu in a mask and I'm getting the old #1009 error. In a trace, this will work: trace(site_mc.menu_mc.mainMask_mc); // returns [object mainMask_mc_4] However, when I try to truncate the string into a single compact_mc... compactMenu_mc = site_mc.menu_mc.mainMask_mc; trace(compact_mc); // it won't trace (#1009). I said to hell with it, but now I need to have one MovieClip mask another. So I figure I can't go all... parent.parent.parent.clip_mc.mask = parent.parent.parent.masked_mc Probably because of datatyping and whatever else. I hate to be vague, but I'm new and have been working like gangbusters for days to get this portfolio up. Any suggestions or pointers on things my noob brain might've missed are given much thanks. :)

    Read the article

  • Creating a WCF ServiceHost object takes three to four minutes on some PCs

    - by Steve
    Hello, I have created a WCF service which does not use the app.config to configure itself. However, it takes three to four minutes on some PCs to construct the ServiceHost object. Thinking there was something wrong with my service, I constructed a simple Hello, World service and tried it with that. I have the same issue. According to the profiler, all this time is spent reading in configuration for the service. So I have two questions really. Is it possible to disable reading config from the XML? More importantly, does anyone have any idea why this might be taking such an inordinate amount of time? Here is the sample service: [ServiceContract] public interface IMyService { [OperationContract] string GetString(); } [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode=InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class MyService : IMyService { public string GetString() { return "Hello, world!"; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Uri epAddress = new Uri("http://localhost:8731/Test"); Uri[] uris = new Uri[] { epAddress }; MyService srv = new MyService(); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(srv, uris); // this line takes 3-4 minutes host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService), new WSHttpBinding(), "Test"); ServiceMetadataBehavior smb = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); smb.HttpGetEnabled = true; host.Description.Behaviors.Add(smb); host.Open(); return; } } I need for design reasons to create the service and pass it in as an object, rather than passing it in as a type. If there's any more information that can be of use, please let me know. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Binding Data to DataGridView in VB.Net

    - by Peter
    Hi, I have a bit of code which loads data from a stored procedure in MS SQL Server and then loads the data to a datagridview, which works fine. What i want is for the code that connects / loads the data to sit in my Database Class and then everything associated with the datagridview to be stored in my Form but i am having problems passing the contents of the bindingsource over to the Form from the Database Class. Form1 Public Class Form1 Dim myDatabaseObj As New Class1() Dim bindingSource1 As New BindingSource() Dim connectString As New SqlConnection Dim objDataAdapter As New SqlDataAdapter Dim table As New DataTable() Dim tabletest As New DataTable() Private Sub loadCompanyList() Try Me.dgv_CompanyList.DataSource = Me.bindingSource1 getCompanyList() Catch ex As NullReferenceException End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load loadCompanyList() End Sub End Class Database Class When i try place the getCompanyList() in a class and then create a new object that references the Form() it does not seem to return any value from the table to the MyForm.BindingSource1.Datasource meaning my datagridview displays not data. ..... Private Sub getCompanyList() Try Dim myForm as new Form() connect_Transaction_Database() objDataAdapter.SelectCommand = New SqlCommand() objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = connectString objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = "sp_GetCompanyList" objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure Dim commandBuilder As New SqlCommandBuilder(Me.objDataAdapter) Dim table As New DataTable() table.Locale = System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture Me.objDataAdapter.Fill(table) **MyForm.bindingSource1.DataSource = table** Catch ex As DataException MsgBox(ex.Message) Catch ex As NullReferenceException MsgBox(ex.Message) End Try disconnect_Transaction_Database() End Sub If anyone could help. Thank you. Peter

    Read the article

  • Correctly assigning value to a Core Data attribute with an integer data-type

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --Edit 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the warning by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber? --Edit 2-- Ok, so I'm realizing that there is some fundamental idea that I don't understand. I now understand that the 60 million + number can be cast back to the correct 0-5 number by using integerValue. So, it seems my question is how can I save an integer between 0-5 to the attribute if the NSNumber that is returned is over 60 million? Do I need to be using a different data type?

    Read the article

  • Partial specialization with reference template parameter fails to compile in VS2005

    - by Blair Holloway
    I have code that boils down to the following: template struct Foo {}; template & I struct FooBar {}; //////// template struct Baz {}; template & I struct Baz< FooBar { static void func(FooBar& value); }; //////// struct MyStruct { static const Foo s_floatFoo; }; // Elsewhere: const Foo MyStruct::s_floatFoo; void callBaz() { typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; FloatFooBar myFloatFooBar; Baz::func(myFloatFooBar); } This compiles successfully under GCC, however, under VS2005, I get: error C2039: 'func' : is not a member of 'Baz' with [ T=FloatFooBar ] error C3861: 'func': identifier not found However, if I change const Foo<T>& I to const Foo<T>* I (passing I by pointer rather than by reference), and defining FloatFooBar as: typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; Both GCC and VS2005 are happy. What's going on? Is this some kind of subtle template substitution failure that VS2005 is handling differently to GCC, or a compiler bug? (The strangest thing: I thought I had the above code working in VS2005 earlier this morning. But that was before my morning coffee. I'm now not entirely certain I wasn't under some sort of caffeine-craving-induced delirium...)

    Read the article

  • PHP PayPal IPN - Getting drop down menu

    - by kimion09
    I'm using Paypal's buy it now buttons along with an IPN handler written in PHP to send me an e-mail whenever a purchase is made. The e-mail is properly being sent and is passing much of the data, but it's not capturing the drop down list for selecting a clothing item's size. Here's my button code fields: <input type="hidden" name="item_name" value="Test Shirt"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number" value="001"> <input type="hidden" name="on0" value="sizes"> Select a size: <select name="os0"> <option value="Small">Small </option> <option value="Medium">Medium </option> <option value="Large">Large </option> <option value="Extra Large">Extra Large </option> </select> My PHP IPN script that captures the data into variables looks like this: $item_name = $_POST['item_name']; $item_number = $_POST['item_number']; $size = $_POST['on0']; $sizeChoice = $_post['os0']; The e-mail properly displays the item name and item number, but nothing for the $size and $sizeChoice variables. It's late so I'm sure I'm looking over something very obvious but am still wondering if I'm just calling it wrong or if I'm forgetting some hidden fields? Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 Express w/Adv Services Command Line Install

    - by RobC
    I'm attempting to include an install of SQL Server 2008 Express w/Adv. Services with an installation package, but am having a heck of a time getting the installation to complete. Typically, this installation will take place on brand-new servers that get shipped to new customers, but this won't always be the case: Sometimes, the installation will take place on machines already in use, and so I've been told the installer has to work for XP x86 and x64 and Win 7 x32 and x64. The command line I'm passing in is: setup.exe /ACTION=INSTALL /INSTANCENAME="MSSQLSERVER" /HIDECONSOLE /QS /FEATURES="SQLENGINE" "REPLICATION" "FULLTEXT" "RS" "BIDS" "SSMS" "SNAC_SDK" "OCS" /SECURITYMODE=SQL /SAPWD="aStrongPassword" /NPENABLED=1 /TCPENABLED=1 /SQLSYSADMINACCOUNTS="%USERDOMAIN%\Administrator" SQLSVCACCOUNT="NT AUTHORITY\Network Service" (This is only my most recent attempt, in which I used a SQLSYSADMINACCOUNTS value that I saw in a posting elsewhere on this site. I've tried lots of combinations from various sites.) The SQL installer's Summary.txt begins: Exit code (Decimal): -2068578304 Exit facility code: 1204 Exit error code: 0 Exit message: The specified credentials that were provided for the SQL Server service are not valid. To continue, provide a valid account and password for the SQL Server service. This seems simple enough to fix (and maybe I"m overlooking something obvious), which is why it's driving me nuts. If any of you have any suggestions, I'd appreciate it. (I've got to take off for the weekend, so don't interpret my delayed response as a lack of interest.) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Base64 en/decoding between xstream and iPhone SDK

    - by Matt McMinn
    I am passing a byte array from a java server to an iPad client in XML. The server is using xstream to convert the byte array to XML with the EncodedByteArrayConverter, which should convert the array to Base 64. Using xstream, I can decode the xml back to the proper byte array in a java client, but in the iPad client, I'm getting an invalid length error. To do my decoding, I'm using the code at the bottom of this page. The length of the string is indeed not a multiple of 4, so there must be something strange with my string - although since xstream can decode it just fine, I'm guessing there's just something I need to to on the iPad side to get it to decode. I've tried cutting off padding at the end of the string to get it down to the right size, and that does allow the decoder to work, but I end up with JPG's that have invalid headers, and are not displayable. On the server side, I'm using the following code: Object rtrn = getByteArray(); XStream xstream = new XStream(); String xml = xstream.toXML(rtrn); On the client side, I'm calling the above decoder from the XML parsing callback like this: -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string { NSLog(@"Converting data; string length: %d", [string length]); //NSLog(@"%@", string); NSData *data = [Base64 decode:string]; NSLog(@"converted data length: %d", [data length]); } Any ideas what could be going wrong?

    Read the article

  • Copy Constructors and calling functions

    - by helixed
    Hello, I'm trying to call an accessor function in a copy constructor but it's not working. Here's an example of my problem: A.h class A { public: //Constructor A(int d); //Copy Constructor A(const A &rhs); //accessor for data int getData(); //mutator for data void setData(int d); private: int data; }; A.cpp #include "A.h" //Constructor A::A(int d) { this->setData(d); } //Copy Constructor A::A(const A &rhs) { this->setData(rhs.getData()); } //accessor for data int A::getData() { return data; } //mutator for data void A::setData(int d) { data = d; } When I try to compile this, I get the following error: error: passing 'const A' as 'this' argument of 'int A::getData()' discards qualifiers If I change rhs.getData() to rhs.data, then the constructor works fine. Am I not allowed to call functions in a copy constructor? Could somebody please tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks, helixed

    Read the article

  • Binary stream 'NN' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or obje

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    I am passing user defined classes over sockets. The SendObject code is below. It works on my local machine, but when I publish to the WebServer which is then communicating with the App Server on my own machine it fails. public bool SendObject(Object obj, ref string sErrMsg) { try { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); bf1.Serialize(ms, obj); byte[] byArr = ms.ToArray(); int len = byArr.Length; m_socClient.Send(byArr); return true; } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "SendObject Error: " + e.Message; return false; } } I can do this fine if it is one class in my tools project and the other class about UserData just doesn't want to know. Frustrating! Ohh. I think its because the UserData class has a DataSet inside it. Funnily enough I have seen this work, but then after 1 request it goes loopy and I can't get it to work again. Anyone know why this might be? I have looked at comparing the dlls to make sure they are the same on the WebServer and on my local machine and they look to be so as I have turned on versioning in the AssemblyInfo.cs to double check. Edit: Ok it seems that the problem is with size. If I keep it under 1024 byes ( I am guessing here) it works on the web server and doesnt if it has a DataSet inside it.k In fact this is so puzzling I converted the DataSet to a string using ds.GetXml() and this also causes it to blow up. :( So it seems that across the network something with my sockets is wrong and doesn't want to read in the data. JonSkeet where are you. ha ha. I would offer Rep but I don't have any. Grr

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - Javascript array always passed to controller as null

    - by Xuan Vu
    I'm having some problem with passing a javascript array to the controller. I have several checkboxes on my View, when a checkbox is checked, its ID will be saved to an array and then I need to use that array in the controller. Here are the code: VIEW: var selectedSearchUsers = new Array(); $(document).ready(function () { $("#userSearch").click(function () { selectedSearchUsers.length = 0; ShowLoading(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '/manage/searchusers', dataType: "json", data: $("#userSearchForm").serialize(), success: function (result) { UserSearchSuccess(result); }, cache: false, complete: function () { HideLoading(); } }); }); $(".userSearchOption").live("change", function () { var box = $(this); var id = box.attr("dataId"); var checked = box.attr("checked"); if (checked) { selectedSearchUsers.push(id); } else { selectedSearchUsers.splice(selectedSearchUsers.indexOf(id), 1); } }); $("#Send").click(function () { var postUserIDs = { values: selectedSearchUsers }; ShowLoading(); $.post("/Manage/ComposeMessage", postUserIDs, function (data) { }, "json"); }); }); When the "Send" button is clicked, I want to pass the selectedSearchUsers to the "ComposeMessage" action. Here is the Action code: public JsonResult ComposeMessage(List values) { //int count = selectedSearchUsers.Length; string count = values.Count.ToString(); return Json(count); } However, the List values is always null. Any idea why? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • How do I pass a lot of parameters to views in Django?

    - by Mark
    I'm very new to Django and I'm trying to build an application to present my data in tables and charts. Till now my learning process went very smooth, but now I'm a bit stuck. My pageview retrieves large amounts of data from a database and puts it in the context. The template then generates different html-tables. So far so good. Now I want to add different charts to the template. I manage to do this by defining <img src=".../> tags. The Matplotlib chart is generate in my chartview an returned via: response=HttpResponse(content_type='image/png') canvas.print_png(response) return response Now I have different questions: the data is retrieved twice from the database. Once in the pageview to render the tables, and again in the chartview for making the charts. What is the best way to pass the data, already in the context of the page to the chartview? I need a lot of charts, each with different datasets. I could make a chartview for each chart, but probably there is a better way. How do I pass the different dataset names to the chartview? Some charts have 20 datasets, so I don't think that passing these dataset parameters via the url (like: <imgm src="chart/dataset1/dataset2/.../dataset20/chart.png />) is the right way. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • Suggest a good method with least lookup time complexity

    - by Amrish
    I have a structure which has 3 identifier fields and one value field. I have a list of these objects. To give an analogy, the identifier fields are like the primary keys to the object. These 3 fields uniquely identify an object. Class { int a1; int a2; int a3; int value; }; I would be having a list of say 1000 object of this datatype. I need to check for specific values of these identity key values by passing values of a1, a2 and a3 to a lookup function which would check if any object with those specific values of a1, a2 and a3 is present and returns that value. What is the most effective way to implement this to achieve a best lookup time? One solution I could think of is to have a 3 dimensional matrix of length say 1000 and populate the value in it. This has a lookup time of O(1). But the disadvantages are. 1. I need to know the length of array. 2. For higher identity fields (say 20), then I will need a 20 dimension matrix which would be an overkill on the memory. For my actual implementation, I have 23 identity fields. Can you suggest a good way to store this data which would give me the best look up time?

    Read the article

  • Best way to change jqGrid rowNum from ALL to -1 before pass to a web service

    - by Billyhole
    I'm looking to find the best way to allow users to choose to show ALL records in a jqGrid. I know that a -1 value passed for the rows parameter denotes ALL, but I want the word "ALL" not a -1 to appear in the rowList select element, ie. rowList: [15, 50, 100, 'ALL']. I'm passing the grid request to a web service which accepts an int for "rows", and I'm trying find how and when I should change the user selected value of "ALL" to a -1 before it gets sent to the web service. Below is my cleaned up grid code. I tried some various code blocks before my $.ajax in the datatype function. But most attempts just seemed like I have to be doing this the most convoluted way I possibly could. For example, datatype: function(postdata) { if ($("#gridTableAssets").jqGrid('getGridParam', 'rowNum') == 'ALL') { $("#gridTableAssets").appendPostData({ "rows": -1, "page": 1 }); } $.ajax({... But doing that seemed to cause the actual "page" GridParam to be nulled out on subsequent grid actions, forcing me handle that in other places. There just seems like this is something that would be frequently done out there and have clean way of doing it. Cleaned grid code: $("#gridTableAssets").jqGrid({ datatype: function(postdata) { $.ajax({ url: "/Service/Repository.asmx/GetAssets", data: JSON.stringify(postdata), type: 'POST', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('error'); }, success: function(msg) { var assetsGrid = $("#gridTableAssets")[0]; assetsGrid.addJSONData(JSON.parse(msg)); ... } }); }, ... pager: $('#pagerAssets'), rowNum: 15, rowList: [15, 50, 100, 'ALL'], ... onPaging: function(index, colindex, sortorder) { SessionKeepAlive(); } }); And here is the web service [WebMethod] public string GetAssetsOfAssetStructure(bool _search, int rows, int page, string sidx, string sord, string filters)

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by dean nolan
    I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

    Read the article

  • Creating instance of a service-side DataContract class on client-side in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

    Read the article

  • Assert.AreEqual to not fail when comparing an enum and an int

    - by codingbear
    I'm not sure if this is doable, but I will just give a shot. I am calling Assert.AreEqual() method. For the parameters, I'm passing... an enum value which has Int32 as the underlying type because I didn't specify the base type an int (Int32) value Assert fails because it sees that the enum is not int (which is definitely correct). However, is there a way to make this Assert pass when the enum has the correct int value as the 2nd parameter? I can cast the enum to int and have it a quick fix, but it's really ugly. I was expecting some kind of overriding a method that Assert uses to compare 2 different objects and implicitly make that enum type look like an int. However, I wasn't successful at finding any hint/answer around that so far. Someone suggested to create a type converter and use the TypeConverterAttribute to get around. If this works for sure and is the only way to do it, I would; however, it does seem a lot of unnecessary work.

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate: distinct results in second level Collection

    - by Miguel Marques
    I have an object model like this: class EntityA { ... IList<EntityB> BList; ... } class EntityB { ... IList<EntityC> CList; } I have to fetch all the colelctions (Blist in EntityA and CList in EntityB), because if they all will be needed to make some operations, if i don't eager load them i will have the select n+1 problem. So the query was this: select a from EntityA a left join fetch a.BList b left join fetch b.CList c The fist problem i faced with this query, was the return of duplicates from the DB, i had EntityA duplicates, because of the left join fetch with BList. A quick read through the hibernate documentation and there were some solutions, first i tried the distinct keyword that supposelly wouldn't replicate the SQL distinct keyword except in some cases, maybe this was one of those cases because i had a SQL error saying that i cannot select distict text columns (column [Observations] in EntityA table). So i used one of the other solutions: query.SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); This worked fine. But the result of the operations were still not passing the tests. I checked further and i found out that now there were duplicates of EntityB, because of the left join fetch with CList. The question is, how can i use the distinct in a second level collection? I searched and i only find solutions for the root entity's direct child collection, but never for the second level child collections... Thank you for your time

    Read the article

  • Using jQuery to grab the content from CKEditor's iframe

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hey guys, I have this custom written CMS that uses CKEditor *(FCKEditor v3) for editing content. Along with that I'm using the jQuery Validation plugin to check all fields for error prior to ajax-based submission. For passing on the data to the PHP backend, I'm using the serialize() function. Problem is, serialize manages to grab all other fields correctly, except for the actual content typed in CKEditor. Like every other WYSIWYG editor, this one too overlays an iframe over an existing textbox. And serialize ignores the iframe and looks only into the textbox for content... which of course, it doesn't find - thus returning a blank content body. My approach to this is to create a hook onto the onchange event of CKEditor and concurrently update the textbox (CKEDITOR.instances.[textboxname].getData() returns the content) or some other hidden field with any changes made in the editor. However, since CKEditor is still in it's beta stage and severely lacks documentation, I cannot seem to find a suitable API call that'll enable me to do so. Does anyone have any idea on how to go about this? Or maybe suggest even a better method?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >