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• VBScript Issue Help Required.

  - by MalsiaPro

  I need a script that can run and pull information from any drive on a Windows operating system (Windows Server 2003), listing all files and folders which contain the following fields: The server is quite big and is within our domain. The required information is: Full file path (e.g. C:\Documents and Settings\user\My Documents\testPage.doc) File type (e.g. word document, spreadsheet, database etc) Size When Created When last modified When last accessed Also the script will need to convert that data to a CSV file, which later on I can modify and process in Excel. I can imagine that this data will be huge but I still need it. I am logged in as an administrator on the server and the script will need to also process protected files. As in previous posts I have read that the script will stop if such files are processed. I need to make sure that not a single file is skipped. Please note I have asked this question before but still have not got a working script. This is the script I got so far, file Test.vbs: Set objFS=CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") WScript.Echo Chr(34) & "Full Path" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Size" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date modified" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date Created" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date Accessed" & Chr(34) Set objArgs = WScript.Arguments strFolder = objArgs(0) Set objFolder = objFS.GetFolder(strFolder) Go (objFolder) Sub Go(objDIR) If objDIR <> "\System Volume Information" Then For Each eFolder in objDIR.SubFolders Go eFolder Next End If For Each strFile In objDIR.Files WScript.Echo Chr(34) & strFile.Path & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.Size & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateLastModified & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateCreated & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateLastAccessed & Chr(34) Next End Sub I am currently using the command-line to run it: c:\test> cscript //nologo Test.vbs "c:\" > "C:\test\Output.csv" The script is not working. I don't know why.

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• How do I force a Coldfusion cfc to output numeric data over JSON as a string?

  - by Dan Sorensen

  I'm calling a Coldfusion component (cfc) using jQuery.post(). I need an integer or string representation of the number returned for use in a URL. {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382} or {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":"19382"} Instead what I get back is a decimal: {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382.0} Needed to update the following HTML: <a href="page.cfm?id=19382" id="pagelink">My Page Title</a> Conceptually, I suppose there are multiple answers: 1) I could use jQuery to grab the number left of the decimal point. 2) I could force Coldfusion to send the number as a string. 3) I could generate the whole link server side and just replace the whole link tag HTML (not the preferred answer, but maybe it is the best) Does anyone know how to do 1 or 2? Is 3 better? Relevant Javascript: (Not optimized) $(".link").live('click', function () { var $linkID, serviceUrl; serviceUrl = "mycfc.cfc?method=getPage"; $linkID = $(this).attr("rel"); $.post(serviceUrl, { linkid: $linkID }, function (result) { $('#pagelink').val(result.TITLE); if (result.FMKEY.length) { // NEED the ID number WITHOUT the .0 at the end $('#pagelink').attr("href") = "page.cfm?id=" + result.ID; $('#pagelink').text(result.TITLE); } }, "json"); }); My CFC: <component output="no"> <cfsetting showdebugoutput="no"> <cffunction name="getPage" access="remote" returnFormat="JSON" output="no" hint="Looks up a Page Title and ID"> <cfargument name="linkID" type="string" required="yes"> <cfset var page = queryNew("id,title")> <cfset var result = structNew()> <cfquery datasource="myDatasource" name="page"> SELECT TOP 1 id, title FROM pages WHERE linkID = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_integer" value="#arguments.linkID#"> </cfquery> <cfif page.recordcount> <cfset result.id = page.id> <cfset result.title = page.title> </cfif> <cfreturn result> </cffunction> </component>

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• Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

  - by Dan Herbert

  When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

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• Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

  - by ChrisJamesC

  I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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• Passing custom info to mongrel_rails start

  - by whaka

  One thing I really don't understand is how I can pass custom start-up options to a mongrel instance. I see that a common approach is the use environment variables, but in my environment this is not going to work because my rails application serves many different clients. Much code is shared between clients, but there are also many differences which I implement by subclassing controllers and views to overload or extend existing features or introduce new ones. To make this all work, I simply add the paths to client specific modules the module load path ($:). In order to start the application for a particular client, I could now use an environment variable like say, TARGET=AMAZONE. Unfortunately, on some systems I'm running multiple mongrel clusters, each cluster serving a different client. Some of these systems run under Windows and to start mongrel I installed mongrel_services. Clearly, this makes my environment variable unsuitable. Passing this extra bit of data to the application is proving to be a real challenge. For a start, mongrel_rails service_install will reject any [custom] command line parameters that aren't documented. I'm not too concerned as installing the services using the install program is trivial. However, even if I manage to install mongrel_services such that when run it passes the custom command line option --target to mongrel_rails start, I get an error because mongrel_rails doesn't recognize the switch. So here were the things I looked at: Pass an extra parameter: mongrel_rails start --target XYZ ... use a config file and add target:XYZ, then do: mongrel_rails start -C x:\myapp\myconfig.yml modify the file: Ruby\lib\ruby\gems\1.8\gems\mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60\lib\mongrel\command.rb Perhaps I can use the --script option, but all docs that I found on it were for Unix 1 and 2 simply don't work. I played with 4 but never managed it to do anything. So I had no choice but to go with 3. While it is relatively simple, I hate changing ruby library code. Particularly disappointing is that 2 doesn't work. I mean what is so unreasonable about adding other [custom] options in the config file? Actually I think this is a fundamental piece that is missing in rails. Somehow, the application should be able to register and access command line arguments it expects. If anybody has a good idea how to do this more elegantly using the current infrastructure, I have a chocolate fish to give away!!!

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• Directly Jump to another C++ function

  - by maligree

  I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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• Creating a mySQL query using PHP form dropdowns - If user ignores dropdown, do not filter by that pa

  - by user303043

  Hello, I am creating a simple MySQL query that will be built from the user selecting options from 2 dropdowns. The issue I am having is that I would like each drop down to default that if they do not actually choose an option, do not filter by that dropdown parameter. So, if they come in, and simply hit submit without choosing from a dropdown they should see everything. If they come in and pick from only one of the dropdowns, the query will basically ignore filtering by the other dropdown. I tried making <OPTION VALUE='any'>Choose but my query didn't know what to do with the 'any' and just shows no results. Here is my code. Thank you very much for whatever help you can provide. FORM <form method="POST" action="<?php echo $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; ?>"> <select name="GameType"> <OPTION VALUE='any'>Choose Game Type <option value="Game1">Option 1</option> <option value="Game2">Option 2</option> <option value="Game3">Option 3</option> </select> <select name="Instructor"> <OPTION VALUE='any'>Choose Instructor <option VALUE="InstructorA">Instructor A</option> <option value="InstructorB">Instructor B</option> <option value="InstructorC">Instructor C</option> </select> <input type='submit' value='Search Videos'> </form> MYSQL <?PHP connection stuff $db_handle = mysql_connect($server, $user_name, $password); $db_found = mysql_select_db($database, $db_handle); if ($db_found) { $SQL = "SELECT * FROM Videos WHERE GameType=\"{$_POST['GameType']}\" AND Instructor=\"{$_POST['Instructor']}\""; $result = mysql_query($SQL); while ($db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo $db_field['ShortDescription'] . ", "; echo $db_field['LongDescription'] . ", "; echo $db_field['GameType'] . ", "; echo $db_field['NumberOfPlayers'] . ", "; echo $db_field['Instructor'] . ", "; echo $db_field['Stakes'] . ", "; echo $db_field['UserPermissionLevel'] . ", "; echo $db_field['DateCreated'] . "<BR>"; } mysql_close($db_handle); } else { print "Database NOT Found "; mysql_close($db_handle); } ?>

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• Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

  - by metaleap

  I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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• Add console.profile statements to JavaScript/jQuery code on the fly.

  - by novogeek

  Hi folks, We have a thick client app using jQuery heavily and want to profile the performance of the code using firebug's console.profile API. The problem is, I don't want to change the code to write the profile statements. Take this example: var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); instance.ajax(); I want to profile my instance.ajax method, but I dont want to add profile statements in the code, as that makes it difficult to maintain the code. I'm trying to override the methods using closures, like this: http://www.novogeek.com/post/2010/02/27/Overriding-jQueryJavaScript-functions-using-closures.aspx but am not very sure how I can achieve. Any pointers on this? I think this would help many big projects to profile the code easily without a big change in code. Here is the idea. Just run the below code in firebug console, to know what I'm trying to achieve. var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); $.each(instance, function(functionName, functionBody){ (function(){ var dup=functionBody functionBody=function(){ console.log('modifying the old function: ',functionName); console.profile(functionName); dup.apply(this,arguments); console.profileEnd(functionName); } })(); console.log(functionName, '::', functionBody()); }); Now what I need is, if i say instance.ajax(), I want the new ajax() method to be called, along with the console.profile statements. Hope I'm clear with the requirement. Please improvise the above code. Regards, Krishna, http://www.novogeek.com

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• Calling managed code from unmanaged win32 assembly dll - crash

  - by JustGreg

  I'm developing a serial port dll in win32 assembly (MASM32). It has its own thread checking multiple events and at a specified buffer treshold it'd notify the managed main application by calling a callback function. It just a call with no arguments/return value. At startup the main application stores the callback function's address by calling a function in the dll: pCallBackFunction dd 0 SetCallBackPointer proc pcb:DWORD mov eax, pcb mov pCallBackFunction, eax call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction ; verify it immediately ret SetCallBackPointer endp The upper function immediately calls back the managed application callback routine for verification purposes. It is working fine. However, when I place the call instruction to other functions in the dll it crashes the application. It doesn't matter if the call is in a simple function or in the threadproc of the dll. For example: OpenPort proc pn:byte,br:dword, inputbuffersize: dword, outputbuffersize:dword, tresholdsize: dword LOCAL dcb: DCB LOCAL SerialTimeOuts: COMMTIMEOUTS call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction xor eax, eax mov al, pn mov [com_port+3],al etc. etc. will crash at call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction always. Since I call SetCallBackPointer first to store a valid address in pCallBackFunction, it should have a valid address. My managed app is written in C# and the relevant part is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public delegate void CallBackDelegate(); public static CallBackDelegate mydelegate; [DllImport("serialport.dll")] private static extern void SetCallBackPointer(CallBackDelegate Delegate); [DllImport("serialport.dll")] public static extern int OpenPort(byte com, uint br, uint inbufsize, uint outbufsize, uint treshsize); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); mydelegate =new CallBackDelegate(CallbackFunction); SetCallBackPointer(mydelegate); unsafe { int sysstat; int hResult; hResult = OpenPort(Convert.ToByte('5'), 9600, 306, 4, 4); } } public static void CallbackFunction() { MessageBox.Show( "CallBack Function Called by Windows DLL"); } The VS debugger reported that the dll had tried to read/write from/to a protected memory address. But when calling SetCallBackPointer there is no such problem. What am I doing wrong here? Any tips would be great!

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• C# 'could not found' existing method

  - by shybovycha

  Greetings! I've been fooling around (a bit) with C# and its assemblies. And so i've found such an interesting feature as dynamic loading assemblies and invoking its class members. A bit of google and here i am, writing some kind of 'assembly explorer'. (i've used some portions of code from here, here and here and none of 'em gave any of expected results). But i've found a small bug: when i tried to invoke class method from assembly i've loaded, application raised MissingMethod exception. I'm sure DLL i'm loading contains class and method i'm tryin' to invoke (my app ensures me as well as RedGate's .NET Reflector): The main application code seems to be okay and i start thinking if i was wrong with my DLL... Ah, and i've put both of projects into one solution, but i don't think it may cause any troubles. And yes, DLL project has 'class library' target while the main application one has 'console applcation' target. So, the question is: what's wrong with 'em? Here are some source code: DLL source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ClassLibrary1 { public class Class1 { public void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } } Main application source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Assembly asm = Assembly.LoadFrom(@"a\long\long\path\ClassLibrary1.dll"); try { foreach (Type t in asm.GetTypes()) { if (t.IsClass == true && t.FullName.EndsWith(".Class1")) { object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(t); object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); // Exception is risen from here } } } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } System.Console.ReadKey(); } } } UPD: worked for one case - when DLL method takes no arguments: DLL class (also works if method is not static): public class Class1 { public static void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } Method invoke code: object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, null, null);

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• How to reference a particular JSON in a function call.

  - by Jane Wilkie

  Hi guys! I have two javascript routines.. the first one declares some JSON and it contains a function that takes two arguments, the first argument being the json object that needs traversing and the second argument is the tab that the rendering is done in. The second routine merely passes the name of the JSON that needs traversing and tab to render in. The code is below.... <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> var arr = [ {"id":"10", "class":"child-of-9", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"11", "class":"child-of-10", "useless":"donotneed"}]; var arrtwo = [ {"id":"12", "class":"child-of-12", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"13", "class":"child-of-13", "useless":"donotneed"}]; function render_help(json,tab){ var html=''; for(var i=0;i<json.length;i++){ var obj = json[i]; for(var key in obj){ var attrName = key; var attrValue = obj[key]; if (attrName == "id"){ html = html +'<B>'+attrValue+'</B>'+'<BR><BR>'; }else if (attrName == "class"){ html = html + attrValue + '<BR><BR>'; } } } document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); } </script> <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> render_help(arr,"helptab"); </script> Various testing and strategically placed alert boxes indicate that the tab parameter is being passed and interpreted correctly. I know this because when I change .... document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); to document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=("Howdy"); and it renders "Howdy" just fine. Putting an alert box (alert(json)) in to check the value of json yields.... [object.Object],[object.Object] The JSON object remains elusive. For the purposes of this scripting I need the JSON "arr" to be iterated over. I feel like the answer is fairly obvious so far no luck. Admittedly I am new with Javascript and I am apparently missing something. Does anyone have a clue as to what I'm overlooking here? Happy New Year to you all! Janie

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• Is it possible to create a C++ factory system that can create an instance of any "registered" object

  - by chrensli

  Hello, I've spent my entire day researching this topic, so it is with some scattered knowledge on the topic that i come to you with this inquiry. Please allow me to describe what I am attempting to accomplish, and maybe you can either suggest a solution to the immediate question, or another way to tackle the problem entirely. I am trying to mimic something related to how XAML files work in WPF, where you are essentially instantiating an object tree from an XML definition. If this is incorrect, please inform. This issue is otherwise unrelated to WPF, C#, or anything managed - I solely mention it because it is a similar concept.. So, I've created an XML parser class already, and generated a node tree based on ObjectNode objects. ObjectNode objects hold a string value called type, and they have an std::vector of child ObjectNode objects. The next step is to instantiate a tree of objects based on the data in the ObjectNode tree. This intermediate ObjectNode tree is needed because the same ObjectNode tree might be instantiated multiple times or delayed as needed. The tree of objects that is being created is such that the nodes in the tree are descendants of a common base class, which for now we can refer to as MyBase. Leaf nodes can be of any type, not necessarily derived from MyBase. To make this more challenging, I will not know what types of MyBase derived objects might be involved, so I need to allow for new types to be registered with the factory. I am aware of boost's factory. Their docs have an interesting little design paragraph on this page: o We may want a factory that takes some arguments that are forwarded to the constructor, o we will probably want to use smart pointers, o we may want several member functions to create different kinds of objects, o we might not necessarily need a polymorphic base class for the objects, o as we will see, we do not need a factory base class at all, o we might want to just call the constructor - without #new# to create an object on the stack, and o finally we might want to use customized memory management. I might not be understanding this all correctly, but that seems to state that what I'm trying to do can be accomplished with boost's factory. But all the examples I've located, seem to describe factories where all objects are derived from a base type. Any guidance on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time!

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• refactoring this function in Java

  - by Joel

  Hi folks, I'm learning Java, and I know one of the big complaints about newbie programmers is that we make really long and involved methods that should be broken into several. Well here is one I wrote and is a perfect example. :-D. public void buildBall(){ /* sets the x and y value for the center of the canvas */ double i = ((getWidth() / 2)); double j = ((getHeight() / 2)); /* randomizes the start speed of the ball */ vy = 3.0; vx = rgen.nextDouble(1.0, 3.0); if (rgen.nextBoolean(.05)) vx = -vx; /* creates the ball */ GOval ball = new GOval(i,j,(2 *BALL_RADIUS),(2 * BALL_RADIUS)); ball.setFilled(true); ball.setFillColor(Color.RED); add(ball); /* animates the ball */ while(true){ i = (i + (vx* 2)); j = (j + (vy* 2)); if (i > APPLICATION_WIDTH-(2 * BALL_RADIUS)){ vx = -vx; } if (j > APPLICATION_HEIGHT-(2 * BALL_RADIUS)){ vy = -vy; } if (i < 0){ vx = -vx; } if (j < 0){ vy = -vy; } ball.move(vx + vx, vy + vy); pause(10); /* checks the edges of the ball to see if it hits an object */ colider = getElementAt(i, j); if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i + (2*BALL_RADIUS), j); } if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i + (2*BALL_RADIUS), j + (2*BALL_RADIUS)); } if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i, j + (2*BALL_RADIUS)); } /* If the ball hits an object it reverses direction */ if (colider != null){ vy = -vy; /* removes bricks when hit but not the paddle */ if (j < (getHeight() -(PADDLE_Y_OFFSET + PADDLE_HEIGHT))){ remove(colider); } } } You can see from the title of the method that I started with good intentions of "building the ball". There are a few issues I ran up against: The problem is that then I needed to move the ball, so I created that while loop. I don't see any other way to do that other than just keep it "true", so that means any other code I create below this loop won't happen. I didn't make the while loop a different function because I was using those variables i and j. So I don't see how I can refactor beyond this loop. So my main question is: How would I pass the values of i and j to a new method: "animateBall" and how would I use ball.move(vx + vx, vy + vy); in that new method if ball has been declared in the buildBall method? I understand this is probably a simple thing of better understanding variable scope and passing arguments, but I'm not quite there yet...

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• Solve a maze using multicores?

  - by acidzombie24

  This question is messy, i dont need a working solution, i need some psuedo code. How would i solve this maze? This is a homework question. I have to get from point green to red. At every fork i need to 'spawn a thread' and go that direction. I need to figure out how to get to red but i am unsure how to avoid paths i already have taken (finishing with any path is ok, i am just not allowed to go in circles). Heres an example of my problem, i start by moving down and i see a fork so one goes right and one goes down (or this thread can take it, it doesnt matter). Now lets ignore the rest of the forks and say the one going right hits the wall, goes down, hits the wall and goes left, then goes up. The other thread goes down, hits the wall then goes all the way right. The bottom path has been taken twice, by starting at different sides. How do i mark this path has been taken? Do i need a lock? Is this the only way? Is there a lockless solution? Implementation wise i was thinking i could have the maze something like this. I dont like the solution because there is a LOT of locking (assuming i lock before each read and write of the haveTraverse member). I dont need to use the MazeSegment class below, i just wrote it up as an example. I am allowed to construct the maze however i want. I was thinking maybe the solution requires no connecting paths and thats hassling me. Maybe i could split the map up instead of using the format below (which is easy to read and understand). But if i knew how to split it up i would know how to walk it thus the problem. How do i walk this maze efficiently? The only hint i receive was dont try to conserve memory by reusing it, make copies. However that was related to a problem with ordering a list and i dont think the hint was a hint for this. class MazeSegment { enum Direction { up, down, left, right} List<Pair<Direction, MazeSegment*>> ConnectingPaths; int line_length; bool haveTraverse; } MazeSegment root; class MazeSegment { enum Direction { up, down, left, right} List<Pair<Direction, MazeSegment*>> ConnectingPaths; bool haveTraverse; } void WalkPath(MazeSegment segment) { if(segment.haveTraverse) return; segment.haveTraverse = true; foreach(var v in segment) { if(v.haveTraverse == false) spawn_thread(v); } } WalkPath(root);

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• How to properly mix generics and inheritance to get the desired result?

  - by yamsha

  My question is not easy to explain using words, fortunately it's not too difficult to demonstrate. So, bear with me: public interface Command<R> { public R execute();//parameter R is the type of object that will be returned as the result of the execution of this command } public abstract class BasicCommand<R> { } public interface CommandProcessor<C extends Command<?>> { public <R> R process(C<R> command);//this is my question... it's illegal to do, but you understand the idea behind it, right? } //constrain BasicCommandProcessor to commands that subclass BasicCommand public class BasicCommandProcessor implements CommandProcessor<C extends BasicCommand<?>> { //here, only subclasses of BasicCommand should be allowed as arguments but these //BasicCommand object should be parameterized by R, like so: BasicCommand<R> //so the method signature should really be // public <R> R process(BasicCommand<R> command) //which would break the inheritance if the interface's method signature was instead: // public <R> R process(Command<R> command); //I really hope this fully illustrates my conundrum public <R> R process(C<R> command) { return command.execute(); } } public class CommandContext { public static void main(String... args) { BasicCommandProcessor bcp = new BasicCommandProcessor(); String textResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<String>() { public String execute() { return "result"; } }); Long numericResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<Long>() { public Long execute() { return 123L; } }); } } Basically, I want the generic "process" method to dictate the type of generic parameter of the Command object. The goal is to be able to restrict different implementations of CommandProcessor to certain classes that implement Command interface and at the same time to able to call the process method of any class that implements the CommandProcessor interface and have it return the object of type specified by the parametarized Command object. I'm not sure if my explanation is clear enough, so please let me know if further explanation is needed. I guess, the question is "Would this be possible to do, at all?" If the answer is "No" what would be the best work-around (I thought of a couple on my own, but I'd like some fresh ideas)

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• Inlining an array of non-default constructible objects in a C++ class

  - by porgarmingduod

  C++ doesn't allow a class containing an array of items that are not default constructible: class Gordian { public: int member; Gordian(int must_have_variable) : member(must_have_variable) {} }; class Knot { Gordian* pointer_array[8]; // Sure, this works. Gordian inlined_array[8]; // Won't compile. Can't be initialized. }; As even beginner C++ users know, the language guarantees that all members are initialized when constructing a class. And it doesn't trust the user to initialize everything in the constructor - one has to provide valid arguments to the constructors of all members before the body of the constructor even starts. Generally, that's a great idea as far as I'm concerned, but I've come across a situation where it would be a lot easier if I could actually have an array of non-default constructible objects. The obvious solution: Have an array of pointers to the objects. This is not optimal in my case, as I am using shared memory. It would force me to do extra allocation from an already contended resource (that is, the shared memory). The entire reason I want to have the array inlined in the object is to reduce the number of allocations. This is a situation where I would be willing to use a hack, even an ugly one, provided it works. One possible hack I am thinking about would be: class Knot { public: struct dummy { char padding[sizeof(Gordian)]; }; dummy inlined_array[8]; Gordian* get(int index) { return reinterpret_cast<Gordian*>(&inlined_array[index]); } Knot() { for (int x = 0; x != 8; x++) { new (get(x)) Gordian(x*x); } } }; Sure, it compiles, but I'm not exactly an experienced C++ programmer. That is, I couldn't possibly trust my hacks less. So, the questions: 1) Does the hack I came up with seem workable? What are the issues? (I'm mainly concerned with C++0x on newer versions of GCC). 2) Is there a better way to inline an array of non-default constructible objects in a class?

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• c++ setting string attribute value in class is throwing "Access violation reading location"

  - by user259789

  I am having some trouble getting this simple code to work: class CreateUserView { public: CreateUserView(void); ~CreateUserView(void); UserController* controller; void showView(); string name; string lastname; string address; string email; string dateOfBirth; }; All i need is to set these attributes in the implementation with getline(). CreateUserView::CreateUserView(void) { } void CreateUserView::showView() { cout << endl << " New User" << endl; cout << "--------------------------" << endl; cout << " Name\t\t: "; getline(cin, name); cout << " Lastname\t: "; getline(cin, lastname); cout << " Email\t\t: "; getline(cin, email); cout << " ===============================" << endl; cout << " 1. SAVE 2.CHANGE 3.CANCEL" << endl; cout << " ===============================" << endl; cout << " choice: "; int choice; cin >> choice; cin.ignore(); controller->createUser_choice(choice); } I keep getting this "Access violation reading location" error at this line: getline(cin, name); what's the best way of assigning a value to an std::string attribute of a class? even name = "whatever" is throwing that error!! thanks

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• ActionScript 2: Event doesn't fire?

  - by Pascal Schuster

  So I have a soundHandler class that's supposed to play sounds and then point back to a function on the timeline when the sound has completed playing. But somehow, only one of the sounds plays when I try it out. EDIT: After that sound plays, nothing happens, even though I have EventHandlers set up that are supposed to do something. Here's the code: import mx.events.EventDispatcher; class soundHandler { private var dispatchEvent:Function; public var addEventListener:Function; public var removeEventListener:Function; var soundToPlay; var soundpath:String; var soundtype:String; var prefix:String; var mcname:String; public function soundHandler(soundpath:String, prefix:String, soundtype:String, mcname:String) { EventDispatcher.initialize(this); _root.createEmptyMovieClip(mcname, 1); this.soundpath = soundpath; this.soundtype = soundtype; this.prefix = prefix; this.mcname = mcname; } function playSound(file, callbackfunc) { _root.soundToPlay = new Sound(_root.mcname); _global.soundCallbackfunc = callbackfunc; _root.soundToPlay.onLoad = function(success:Boolean) { if (success) { _root.soundToPlay.start(); } }; _root.soundToPlay.onSoundComplete = function():Void { trace("Sound Complete: "+this.soundtype+this.prefix+this.file+".mp3"); trace(arguments.caller); dispatchEvent({type:_global.soundCallbackfunc}); trace(this.toString()); trace(this.callbackfunction); }; _root.soundToPlay.loadSound("../sound/"+soundpath+"/"+soundtype+prefix+file+".mp3", true); _root.soundToPlay.stop(); } } Here's the code from the .fla file: var playSounds:soundHandler = new soundHandler("signup", "su", "s", "mcs1"); var file = "000"; playSounds.addEventListener("sixtyseconds", this); playSounds.addEventListener("transition", this); function sixtyseconds() { trace("I am being called! Sixtyseconds"); var phase = 1; var file = random(6); if (file == 0) { file = 1; } if (file<10) { file = "0"+file; } file = phase+file; playSounds.playSound(file, "transition"); } function transition() { trace("this works"); } playSounds.playSound(file, "sixtyseconds"); I'm at a total loss for this one. Have been wasting hours to figure it out already. Any help will be deeply appreciated.

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• sigwait in Linux (Fedora 13) vs OS X

  - by Silas

  So I'm trying to create a signal handler using pthreads which works on both OS X and Linux. The code below works on OS X but doesn't work on Fedora 13. The application is fairly simple. It spawns a pthread, registers SIGHUP and waits for a signal. After spawning the signal handler I block SIGHUP in the main thread so the signal should only be sent to the signal_handler thread. On OS X this works fine, if I compile, run and send SIGHUP to the process it prints "Got SIGHUP". On Linux it just kills the process (and prints Hangup). If I comment out the signal_handler pthread_create the application doesn't die. I know the application gets to the sigwait and blocks but instead of return the signal code it just kills the application. I ran the test using the following commands: g++ test.cc -lpthread -o test ./test & PID="$!" sleep 1 kill -1 "$PID" test.cc #include <pthread.h> #include <signal.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; void *signal_handler(void *arg) { int sig; sigset_t set; sigemptyset(&set); sigaddset(&set, SIGHUP); while (true) { cout << "Wait for signal" << endl; sigwait(&set, &sig); if (sig == SIGHUP) { cout << "Got SIGHUP" << endl; } } } int main() { pthread_t handler; sigset_t set; // Create signal handler pthread_create(&handler, NULL, signal_handler, NULL); // Ignore SIGHUP in main thread sigfillset(&set); sigaddset(&set, SIGHUP); pthread_sigmask(SIG_BLOCK, &set, NULL); for (int i = 1; i < 5; i++) { cout << "Sleeping..." << endl; sleep(1); } pthread_join(handler, NULL); return 0; }

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• Do While loop breaks after incorrect input?

  - by Daminkz

  I am trying to have a loop continue to prompt the user for an option. When I get a string of characters instead of an int, the program loops indefinitely. I have tried setting the variable result to NULL, clearing the input stream, and have enclosed in try{}catch blocks (not in this example). Can anyone explain to me why this is? #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <string> using namespace std; int menu(string question, vector<string> options) { int result; cout << question << endl; for(int i = 0; i < options.size(); i++) { cout << '[' << i << ']' << options[i] << endl; } bool ans = false; do { cin >> result; cin.ignore(1000, 10); if (result < options.size() ) { ans = true; } else { cout << "You must enter a valid option." << endl; result = NULL; ans = false; } } while(!ans); return result; } int main() { string menuQuestion = "Welcome to my game. What would you like to do?"; vector<string> mainMenu; mainMenu.push_back("Play Game"); mainMenu.push_back("Load Game"); mainMenu.push_back("About"); mainMenu.push_back("Exit"); int result = menu(menuQuestion, mainMenu); cout << "You entered: " << result << endl; return 0; }

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• Calling a webservice synchronously from a Silverlight 3 application?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I am trying to reuse some .NET code that performs some calls to a data-access-layer type service. I have managed to package up both the input to the method and the output from the method, but unfortunately the service is called from inside code that I really don't want to rewrite in order to be asynchronous. Unfortunately, the webservice code generated in Silverlight only produces asynchronous methods, so I was wondering if anyone had working code that managed to work around this? I tried the recipe found here: The Easy Way To Synchronously Call WCF Services In Silverlight, but unfortunately it times out and never completes the call. Or rather, what seems to happen is that the completed event handler is called, but only after the method returns. I am suspecting that the event handler is called from a dispatcher or similar, and since I'm blocking the main thread here, it never completes until the code is actually back into the GUI loop. Or something like that. Here's my own version that I wrote before I found the above recipe, but it suffers from the same problem: public static object ExecuteRequestOnServer(Type dalInterfaceType, string methodName, object[] arguments) { string securityToken = "DUMMYTOKEN"; string input = "DUMMYINPUT"; object result = null; Exception resultException = null; object evtLock = new object(); var evt = new System.Threading.ManualResetEvent(false); try { var client = new MinGatServices.DataAccessLayerServiceSoapClient(); client.ExecuteRequestCompleted += (s, e) => { resultException = e.Error; result = e.Result; lock (evtLock) { if (evt != null) evt.Set(); } }; client.ExecuteRequestAsync(securityToken, input); try { var didComplete = evt.WaitOne(10000); if (!didComplete) throw new TimeoutException("A data access layer web service request timed out (" + dalInterfaceType.Name + "." + methodName + ")"); } finally { client.CloseAsync(); } } finally { lock (evtLock) { evt.Close(); evt = null; } } if (resultException != null) throw resultException; else return result; } Basically, both recipes does this: Set up a ManualResetEvent Hook into the Completed event The event handler grabs the result from the service call, and signals the event The main thread now starts the web service call asynchronously It then waits for the event to become signalled However, the event handler is not called until the method above has returned, hence my code that checks for evt != null and such, to avoid TargetInvocationException from killing my program after the method has timed out. Does anyone know: ... if it is possible at all in Silverlight 3 ... what I have done wrong above?

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• How do I defer execution of some Ruby code until later and run it on demand in this scenario?

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  I've got some code that looks like the following. First, there's a simple Parser class for parsing command-line arguments with options. class Parser def initialize(&b); ...; end # Create new parser. def parse(args = ARGV); ...; end # Consume command-line args. def opt(...); ...; end # Declare supported option. def die(...); ...; end # Validation handler. end Then I have my own Parsers module which holds some metadata about parsers that I want to track. module Parsers ParserMap = {} def self.make_parser(kind, desc, &b) b ||= lambda {} module_eval { ParserMap[kind] = {:desc => "", :validation => lambda {} } ParserMap[kind][:desc] = desc # Create new parser identified by `<Kind>Parser`. Making a Parser is very # expensive, so we defer its creation until it's actually needed later # by wrapping it in a lambda and calling it when we actually need it. const_set(name_for_parser(kind), lambda { Parser.new(&b) }) } end # ... end Now when you want to add a new parser, you can call make_parser like so: make_parser :db, "login to database" do # Options that this parser knows how to parse. opt :verbose, "be verbose with output messages" opt :uid, "user id" opt :pwd, "password" end Cool. But there's a problem. We want to optionally associate validation with each parser, so that we can write something like: validation = lambda { |parser, opts| parser.die unless opts[:uid] && opts[:pwd] # Must provide login. } The interface contract with Parser says that we can't do any validation until after Parser#parse has been called. So, we want to do the following: Associate an optional block with every Parser we make with make_parser. We also want to be able to run this block, ideally as a new method called Parser#validate. But any on-demand method is equally suitable. How do we do that?

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• Starting jetty with spring xml as a background process/thread

  - by compass

  My goal is to set up a jetty test server and inject a custom servlet to test some REST classes in my project. I was able to launch the server with spring xml and run tests against that server. The issue I'm having is sometimes after the server started, the process stopped at the point before running the tests. It seems jetty didn't go to background. It works every time on my computer. But when I deployed to my CI server, it doesn't work. It also doesn't work when I'm on VPN. (Strange.) The server should be completed initialized as when the tests stuck, I was able to access the server using a browser. Here is my spring context xml: .... <bean id="servletHolder" class="org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.ServletHolder"> <constructor-arg ref="courseApiServlet"/> </bean> <bean id="servletHandler" class="org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.ServletContextHandler"/> <!-- Adding the servlet holders to the handlers --> <bean id="servletHandlerSetter" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean"> <property name="targetObject" ref="servletHandler"/> <property name="targetMethod" value="addServlet"/> <property name="arguments"> <list> <ref bean="servletHolder"/> <value>/*</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="httpTestServer" class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.Server" init-method="start" destroy-method="stop" depends-on="servletHandlerSetter"> <property name="connectors"> <list> <bean class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.nio.SelectChannelConnector"> <property name="port" value="#{settings['webservice.server.port']}" /> </bean> </list> </property> <property name="handler"> <ref bean="servletHandler" /> </property> </bean> Running latest Jetty 8.1.8 server and Spring 3.1.3. Any idea?

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• Thread won't stop when I want it to? (Java)

  - by Stuart

  I have a thread in my screen recording application that won't cooperate: package recorder; import java.awt.AWTException; import java.awt.Insets; import java.io.IOException; import javax.swing.JFrame; public class RepeatThread extends Thread { boolean stop; public volatile Thread recordingThread; JFrame frame; int count = 0; RepeatThread( JFrame myFrame ) { stop = false; frame = myFrame; } public void run() { while( stop == false ) { int loopDelay = 33; // 33 is approx. 1000/30, or 30 fps long loopStartTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); Insets insets = frame.getInsets(); // Get the shape we're recording try { ScreenRecorder.capture( frame.getX() + insets.left, frame.getY() + insets.top, frame.getWidth() - ( insets.left + insets.right ), frame.getHeight() - ( insets.top + insets.bottom ) ); } catch( AWTException e1 ) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e1.printStackTrace(); } catch( IOException e1 ) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e1.printStackTrace(); } // Add another picture long loopEndTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); int loopTime = (int )( loopEndTime - loopStartTime ); if( loopTime < loopDelay ) { try { sleep( loopDelay - loopTime ); // If we have extra time, // sleep } catch( Exception e ) { } // If something interrupts it, I don't give a crap; just // ignore it } } } public void endThread() { stop = true; count = 0; ScreenRecorder.reset(); // Once I get this annoying thread to work, I have to make the pictures // into a video here! } } It's been bugging me for ages. It periodically takes screenshots to the specified area. When you start recording, it hides (decativates) the window. On a Mac, when you give an application focus, any hidden windows will activate. In my class WListener (which I have confirmed to work), I have: public void windowActivated(WindowEvent e) { if(ScreenRecorder.recordingThread != null) { ScreenRecorder.recordingThread.endThread(); } } So what SHOULD happen is, the screenshot-taking thread stops when he clicks on the application. However, I must be brutally screwing something up, because when the thread is running, it won't even let the window reappear. This is my first thread, so I expected a weird problem like this. Do you know what's wrong?

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