Search Results

Search found 25418 results on 1017 pages for 'back ache'.

Page 225/1017 | < Previous Page | 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232  | Next Page >

  • Why does an authorized OAuth request token need to be exchanged for an access token?

    - by Joe Shaw
    I'm wondering what the reasons are for OAuth to require a round-trip to the data provider to exchange an authorized request token for an access token. My understanding of the OAuth workflow is: Requesting site (consumer) gets a request token from the data provider site (service provider). Requesting site asks the data provider site to authenticate the user, passing in a callback. Once the user has been authenticated and authorized the requesting site, the user is directed back to the requesting site (consumer) via the callback provided which passes back the now-authorized request token and a verification code. The requesting site exchanges the request token for an access token. The requesting site uses the access token to get data from the data provider site. Assuming I got that right, why couldn't the callback simply provide the access token to the requesting site directly in step 3, eliminating step 4? Why is the request to exchange the request token for the access token necessary? Does it exist solely for consumers that require users to enter the verification code manually, with the thought that it would be shorter and simpler than the access token itself?

    Read the article

  • reshaping a data frame into long format in R

    - by user1773115
    I'm struggling with a reshape in R. I have 2 types of error (err and rel_err) that have been calculated for 3 different models. This gives me a total of 6 error variables (i.e. err_1, err_2, err_3, rel_err_1, rel_err_2, and rel_err_3). For each of these types of error I have 3 different types of predivtive validity tests (ie random holdouts, backcast, forecast). I would like to make my data set long so I keep the 4 types of test long while also making the two error measurements long. So in the end I will have one variable called err and one called rel_err as well as an id variable for what model the error corresponds to (1,2,or 3) Here is my data right now: iter err_1 rel_err_1 err_2 rel_err_2 err_3 rel_err_3 test_type 1 -0.09385732 -0.2235443 -0.1216982 -0.2898543 -0.1058366 -0.2520759 random 1 0.16141630 0.8575728 0.1418732 0.7537442 0.1584816 0.8419816 back 1 0.16376930 0.8700738 0.1431505 0.7605302 0.1596502 0.8481901 front 1 0.14345986 0.6765194 0.1213689 0.5723444 0.1374676 0.6482615 random 1 0.15890059 0.7435382 0.1589823 0.7439204 0.1608709 0.7527580 back 1 0.14412360 0.6743928 0.1442039 0.6747684 0.1463520 0.6848202 front and here is what I would like it to look like: iter model err rel_err test_type 1 1 -0.09385732 (#'s) random 1 2 -0.1216982 (#'s) random 1 3 -0.1216982 (#'s) random and on... I've tried playing around with the syntax but can't quite figure out what to put for the time.varying argument Thanks very much for any help you can offer.

    Read the article

  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

    Read the article

  • Book/topic recommendations for a programmer returning to programming.

    - by Jason Tan
    I used to be a developer in Java, PHP, perl and C/C++ (the C++ bit badly - the others not too badly, I hope). This was back in the Java 1.3/1.4 days. We used raw JDBC, swing, servlets, JSP and ant (sometimes even make). Eclipse was new. Then I joined a deployment team and became a deployment engineer and then after the deployment engineer work became a full time sys admin.You get the idea - my experience is a generation or two old in programming terms - maybe older. I'm interested in getting back into Java and perhaps Ruby development, but feel I will be waaaaay behind the technological 8 ball. Can you folks suggest some books (or sites) that would be worth reading to catch up with the last 5-10 years of the development world. I.e. what should I read to try and catch up with where development is now? I see lots of stuff on the web, but what are people in the fabled "real world" using? (are lots of people being SOA based apps? Are they using XP methodology) The sorts of things I'm interested in finding out about/catching up on are: Methodologies Design patterns APIs/Frameworks/Technologies Other stuff you deem current/interesting/relevant. So if you have any thoughts or can recommend any books (especially new classics - you know the 's equivalent to K&R C or "The mythical man month"). Thanks for any thoughts you might share.

    Read the article

  • Using CGContextDrawTiledImage at different zooms causes massive memory growth

    - by Jacques
    I'm working on app an where there's a view in a zoomable UIScrollView. When the user zooms in or out, I redraw the view that's in the UIScrollView to be nice and sharp. That view has a background image that I draw with CGContextDrawTiledImage. I noticed that memory usage grows every time I switch to a new zoom level. It looks like CGContextDrawTiledImage keeps a cache somewhere of the image scaled to different sizes. So, If I go from 1.0 to 1.1x zoom, memory use grows. Going back to 1.0 doesn't cause it to grow, but then going to 1.05 and then 1.2 causes it to grow twice. Back to 1.1 and no growth. Of course, the zoom level is under user control so I don't have control over how many zoom levels happen. Right now my background image is kind of massive (512x512), so this causes memory usage to grow very quickly. It doesn't show up as a memory leak in Instruments, just additional allocations that never get freed. I've tried to find a way to free the cache that appears to be being created, but no luck. It doesn't seem to respond to low memory warnings, for example. I also tried setting the view's backgroundColor to a UIColor created with colorWithPatternImage, but that doesn't work because I'm doing the scaling by changing the graphics context's CTM, not by setting the view's transform. Any ideas on how to keep memory usage from blowing up?

    Read the article

  • Can FFT length affect filtering accuracy?

    - by Charles
    Hi, I am designing a fractional delay filter, and my lagrange coefficient of order 5 h(n) have 6 taps in time domain. I have tested to convolute the h(n) with x(n) which is 5000 sampled signal using matlab, and the result seems ok. When I tried to use FFT and IFFT method, the output is totally wrong. Actually my FFT is computed with 8192 data in frequency domain, which is the nearest power of 2 for 5000 signal sample. For the IFFT portion, I convert back the 8192 frequency domain data back to 5000 length data in time domain. So, the problem is, why this thing works in convolution, but not in FFT multiplication. Does converting my 6 taps h(n) to 8192 taps in frequency domain causes this problem? Actually I have tried using overlap-save method, which perform the FFT and multiplication with smaller chunks of x(n) and doing it 5 times separately. The result seems slight better than the previous, and at least I can see the waveform pattern, but still slightly distorted. So, any idea where goes wrong, and what is the solution. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to load an existing connection string for Linq to SQL from an app.config file?

    - by Brian Surowiec
    I'm running into a really annoying problem with my Linq to SQL project. When I add everything in under the web project everything goes as expected and I can tell it to use my existing connection string stored in the web.config file and the Linq code pulls directly from the ConfigurationManager. This all turns ugly once I move the code into its own project. I’ve created an app.config file, put the connection string in there as it was in the web.config but when I try to add another table in the IDE keeps forcing me to either hardcode the connection string or creates a Settings file and puts it in there, which then adds a new entry into the app.config file with a new name. Is there a way keep my Linq code in its own project yet still refer back to my config file without the IDE continuously hardcoding the connection string or creating the Settings file? I’m converting part of my DAL over to use Linq to SQL so I’d like to use the existing connection string that our old code is using as well as keep the value in a common location, and one spot, instead of in a number of spots. Manually changing the mode to WebSettings instead of AppSettings works untill I try to add a new table, then it goes back to hardcoding the value or recreating the Settings file. I also tried to switch the project type to be a web project and then rename my app.config to web.config and then everything works as I’d like it to. I’m just not sure if there are any downfalls to keeping this as a web project since it really isn't one. The project only contains the Linq to SQL code and an implementation of my repository classes. My project layout looks like this Website -connectionString.config -web.config (refers to connectionString.config) Middle Tier -Business Logic -Repository Interfaces -etc. DAL -Linq to SQL code -Existing SPROC code -connectionString.config (linked from the web poject) -app.config (refers to connectionString.config)

    Read the article

  • Boost threading/mutexs, why does this work?

    - by Flamewires
    Code: #include <iostream> #include "stdafx.h" #include <boost/thread.hpp> #include <boost/thread/mutex.hpp> using namespace std; boost::mutex mut; double results[10]; void doubler(int x) { //boost::mutex::scoped_lock lck(mut); results[x] = x*2; } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { boost::thread_group thds; for (int x = 10; x>0; x--) { boost::thread *Thread = new boost::thread(&doubler, x); thds.add_thread(Thread); } thds.join_all(); for (int x = 0; x<10; x++) { cout << results[x] << endl; } return 0; } Output: 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 Press any key to continue . . . So...my question is why does this work(as far as i can tell, i ran it about 20 times), producing the above output, even with the locking commented out? I thought the general idea was: in each thread: calculate 2*x copy results to CPU register(s) store calculation in correct part of array copy results back to main(shared) memory I would think that under all but perfect conditions this would result in some part of the results array having 0 values. Is it only copying the required double of the array to a cpu register? Or is it just too short of a calculation to get preempted before it writes the result back to ram? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What's the best way to "shuffle" a table of database records?

    - by Darth
    Say that I have a table with a bunch of records, which I want to randomly present to users. I also want users to be able to paginate back and forth, so I have to perserve some sort of order, at least for a while. The application is basically only AJAX and it uses cache for already visited pages, so even if I always served random results, when the user tries to go back, he will get the previous page, because it will load from the local cache. The problem is, that if I return only random results, there might be some duplicates. Each page contains 6 results, so to prevent this, I'd have to do something like WHERE id NOT IN (1,2,3,4 ...) where I'd put all the previously loaded IDs. Huge downside of that solution is that it won't be possible to cache anything on the server side, as every user will request different data. Alternate solution might be to create another column for ordering the records, and shuffle it every insert time unit here. The problem here is, I'd need to set random number out of a sequence to every record in the table, which would take as many queries as there are records. I'm using Rails and MySQL if that's of any relevance.

    Read the article

  • How do I put my return data from an asmx into JSON?

    - by jphenow
    I want to return an array of javascript objects from my asp.net asmx file. ie. variable = [ { *value1*: 'value1', *value2*: 'value2', ..., }, { . . } ]; I seem have been having trouble reaching this. I'd put this into code but I've been hacking away at it so much it'd probably do more harm than good in having this answered. Basically I am using a web service to find names as people type the name. I'd use a regular text file or something but its a huge database that's always changing - and don't worry I've indexed the names so searching can be a little snappier - but I would really prefer to stick with this method and just figure out how to get usable JSON back to javascript. I've seen a few that sort of attempt to describe how one would approach this but I honestly think microsofts articles are damn near unreadable. Thanks in advance for assistance. EDIT: I'm using the $.ajax() function from jQuery - I've had it working but it seems like I was doing it in bad practice not returning and using actual JSON. Previously I'd take a string back and insert it into html to use the variable it set - very roundabout.

    Read the article

  • Callback from static library

    - by MortenHN
    I think this should be simple, but im having a real hard time finding information about this topic. I have made a static library and have no problem getting the basics to work. But im having a hard time figuring out how to make a call back from the static library to the main APP. I would like my static library to only use one header as front, this header should contain functions like: requestImage:(NSString *)path; requestLikstOfSomething:(NSSting *)guid; and so on.. These functions should do the necessary work and start a async NSURLConnection, and call back to the main application when the call have finished. How do you guys do this, what are the best ways to callback from a static library when a async method is finished? should i do this with delegates (is this possible), notifications, key/value observers. I really want to know how you guys have solved this, and what you regard as the best practices. Im going to have 20-25 different calls so i want the static library header file to be as simple as possible preferable only with a list of the 20-25 functions. UPDATE: My question is not how to use delegate pattern, but witch way is the best to do callbacks from static librarys. I would like to use delegates but i dont want to have 20-25 protocol declarations in the public header file. I would prefer to have only one function for each request. Thanks in advance. Best regards Morten

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

    - by Nathan
    I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

    Read the article

  • Switch front-end's of a website after X amount of hits

    - by Derek Adair
    Sorry about the title - not sure what to call this one. A client of mine would like to redirect users to different front-ends of his eCommerce site based on a hit-counter (possibly a timer?). important: -The content is moderately different in the two sites, enough to consider them two different websites. Knowing this client he will likely add more drastic content changes and other front-ends. So for this question consider the content to be -This site has a rather large back-end. With affiliate networking, multiple payment gateways, order-tracking, and several other features in the works. It is essential that these two front-ends have identical back-end functionality I know that if it was just a simple CSS swap this would be as simple as an if statement that ran off some kind of counter stored in a DB... but the different HTML markup is throwing me for a loop. Q: How can I serve two different front-ends (HTML/CSS) based on a hit counter? Also, I don't have any clue what to tag this one as...

    Read the article

  • ServiceStack razor default page

    - by Tom
    Say I have 2 pages /NotADefault.cshtml /Views/Default.cshtml Question 1. Now I run it, page A always gets called implicitly as start-up default page no matter what I name it. Page B will only be called when I explicitly call localhost/View/Default. How do I make page B (the one in View folder) my default page? Question 2. I also have NotADefaultService.cs and DefaultService.cs. I give each page a Service class at the back. However, when page A is called NotADefaultService.cs never gets called. Only DefaultService.cs gets called when page B is called... My observation is that only the pages in the View folder will get their back-end service class working. Outside of View folder it doesn't work. Combining Q1 and Q2. How do I: Option 1. get the backend service class working under / root outside "View" folder? OR Option 2. appoint /View/Default.schtml as my default at start-up where the service class can be hit?

    Read the article

  • create a class attribute without going through __setattr__

    - by eric.frederich
    Hello, What I have below is a class I made to easily store a bunch of data as attributes. They wind up getting stored in a dictionary. I override __getattr__ and __setattr__ to store and retrieve the values back in different types of units. When I started overriding __setattr__ I was having trouble creating that initial dicionary in the 2nd line of __init__ like so... super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) My question... Is there an easier way to create a class level attribute with going through __setattr__? Also, should I be concerned about keeping a separate dictionary or should I just store everything in self.__dict__? #!/usr/bin/env python from unitconverter import convert import re special_attribute_re = re.compile(r'(.+)__(.+)') class MyDataFile(object): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(MyDataFile, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) # # For attribute type access # def __setattr__(self, name, value): self._data[name] = value def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._data: return self._data[name] match = special_attribute_re.match(name) if match: varname, units = match.groups() if varname in self._data: return self.getvaras(varname, units) raise AttributeError # # other methods # def getvaras(self, name, units): from_val, from_units = self._data[name] if from_units == units: return from_val return convert(from_val, from_units, units), units def __str__(self): return str(self._data) d = MyDataFile() print d # set like a dictionary or an attribute d.XYZ = 12.34, 'in' d.ABC = 76.54, 'ft' # get it back like a dictionary or an attribute print d.XYZ print d.ABC # get conversions using getvaras or using a specially formed attribute print d.getvaras('ABC', 'cm') print d.XYZ__mm

    Read the article

  • Perform function in attr() callback?

    - by Jared
    Hello, Not sure if I am doing this correctly or not. Here is my JS: var currentIMG; $( '.leftMenuProductButton' ).hover ( function () { currentIMG = $("#swapImg").attr("src"); var swapIMG = $(this).next(".menuPopup").attr("id"); $("#swapImg").css("opacity", 0).attr("src", productImages[swapIMG], function(){ $("#swapImg").fadeTo("slow", 1); }); }, function () { $("#swapImg").stop().attr("src",currentIMG); }); What I am trying to do is Set a IMG Opacity to 0 (#swapImg), replace it's SRC, then fade it back in. So I am trying to fade it back in using a callback from the attr(). If I am doing this incorrectly, can someone please explain a better way to do this? The reason I am trying to do it in the callback is that I need the fadeTo to only occur after the new image is fully loaded, otherwise it does a bit of a flash. I am using jquery 1.4, and according to http://jquery14.com/day-01/jquery-14 it appears you can do a callback in the attr() method.

    Read the article

  • Exit and rollback everything in script on error

    - by Jan W.
    Hey guys ! I'm in a bit of a pickle here. I have a TSQL script that does a lot of database structure adjustments but it's not really safe to just let it go through when something fails. to make things clear: using MS SQL 2005 it's NOT a stored procedure, just a script file (.sql) what I have is something in the following order BEGIN TRANSACTION ALTER Stuff GO CREATE New Stuff GO DROP Old Stuff GO IF @@ERROR != 0 BEGIN PRINT 'Errors Found ... Rolling back' ROLLBACK TRANSACTION RETURN END ELSE PRINT 'No Errors ... Committing changes' COMMIT TRANSACTION just to illustrate what I'm working with ... can't go into specifics now, the problem ... When I introduce an error (to test if things get rolled back), I get a statement that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION could not find a corresponding BEGIN TRANSACTION. This leads me to believe that something when REALLY wrong and the transaction was already killed. what I also noticed is that the script didn't fully quit on error and thus DID try to execute every statement after the error occured. (I noticed this when new tables showed up when I wasn't expecting them because it should have rollbacked) any help in this department is welcome if more speficics are needed, ask! greetz

    Read the article

  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

    Read the article

  • How do I serialize/deserialize a NHibernate entity that has references to other objects?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have two NHibernate-managed entities that have a bi-directional one-to-many relationship: public class Storage { public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Box> Boxes { get; set; } } public class Box { public virtual string Box { get; set; } [DoNotSerialize] public virtual Storage ParentStorage { get; set; } } A Storage can contain many Boxes, and a Box always belongs in a Storage. I want to edit a Box's name, so I send it to the client using JSON. Note that I don't serialize ParentStorage because I'm not changing which storage it's in. The client edits the name and sends the Box back as JSON. The server deserializes it back into a Box entity. Problem is, the ParentStorage property is null. When I try to save the Box to the database, it updates the name, but also removes the relationship to the Storage. How do I properly serialize and deserialize an entity like a Box, while keeping the JSON data size to a minimum?

    Read the article

  • PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

    - by Jonathon
    I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

    Read the article

  • My python program always brings down my internet connection after several hours running, how do I debug and fix this problem?

    - by Shane
    I'm writing a python script checking/monitoring several server/websites status(response time and similar stuff), it's a GUI program and I use separate thread to check different server/website, and the basic structure of each thread is using an infinite while loop to request that site every random time period(15 to 30 seconds), once there's changes in website/server each thread will start a new thread to do a thorough check(requesting more pages and similar stuff). The problem is, my internet connection always got blocked/jammed/messed up after several hours running of this script, the situation is, from my script side I got urlopen error timed out each time it's requesting a page, and from my FireFox browser side I cannot open any site. But the weird thing is, the moment I close my script my Internet connection got back on immediately which means now I can surf any site through my browser, so it must be the script causing all the problem. I've checked the program carefully and even use del to delete any connection once it's used, still get the same problem. I only use urllib2, urllib, mechanize to do network requests. Anybody knows why such thing happens? How do I debug this problem? Is there a tool or something to check my network status once such situation occurs? It's really bugging me for a while... By the way I'm behind a VPN, does it have something to do with this problem? Although I don't think so because my network always get back on once the script closed, and the VPN connection never drops(as it appears) during the whole process.

    Read the article

  • byte + byte = int... why?

    - by Robert C. Cartaino
    Looking at this C# code... byte x = 1; byte y = 2; byte z = x + y; // ERROR: Cannot implicitly convert type 'int' to 'byte' The result of any math performed on byte (or short) types is implicitly cast back to an integer. The solution is to explicitly cast the result back to a byte, so... byte z = (byte)(x + y); // works What I am wondering is why? Is it architectural? Philosophical? We have: int + int = int long + long = long float + float = float double + double = double So why not: byte + byte = byte short + short = short ? A bit of background: I am performing a long list of calculations on "small numbers" (i.e. < 8) and storing the intermediate results in a large array. Using a byte array (instead of an int array) is faster (because of cache hits). But the extensive byte-casts spread through the code make it that much more unreadable.

    Read the article

  • typeahead.js remote with subset matching

    - by rebelde
    Instead of returning to the server after each additional letter is typed, I want it to only go to the server once, get all matching words, and filter the downloaded data after that. We are having trouble making this work. We are successfully using "remote" to wait until two letters are typed, but we can't get it to stop going to the server as additional letters are typed. Steps: 1. After two letters are typed, retrieve all matching words that start with those two letters. 2. When a third and additional letters are typed, don't go to the server again, just filter from the previous list that was sent. An example: "mo" is typed in. All 100 words that start with "mo" are returned. (Only 10 are shown.) "mor" - now with a third letter, we don't go back to the server. We just find the 20 words that match from within the previous set of words. Can anybody make this work? In real life (using YUI2), we do this and then go back to the server if somebody types in a space after the word. At that point, we know to retrieve additional words. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Stop animation on last element

    - by littleMan
    I have a sliding panel and on the last element I want the animation to stop i've tried using the .is(':last') and it doesn't stop. here is my code. the current var is set to the first element when the form loads. It animates to the left and keeps animating when you click the next button i just want to stop it on the last element jQuery('.wikiform .navigation input[name^=Next]').click(function () { if (current.is(':last')) return; jQuery('.wikiform .wizard').animate({ marginLeft: '-=' + current.width() + "px" }, 750); current = current.next();}); <div id="formView1" class="wikiform"> <div class="wizard"> <div id="view1" class="view"> <div class="form"> Content 1 </div> </div> <div id="view2" class="view"> <div class="form"> Content 2 </div> </div> </div> <div class="navigation"> <input type="button" name="Back" value=" Back " /> <input type="button" name="Next " class="Next" value=" Next " /> <input type="button" name="Cancel" value="Cancel" /> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • How to get JTree expanded?

    - by Dzmitry Zhaleznichenka
    I have a wizard with several screens where user has to fill his/her details for further processing. At the second screen I have a radio group with three radio buttons that enable additional elements. To proceed, user has to choose one of them. When user selects third button, single-selection JTree filled in with data enables and user has to select an option from it. Then user has to press "Next" to get to next screen. The option he\she had selected is stored as a TreePath. So far so good. My problem is the following. If the user wants to come back from the following screen to the screen with a JTree, I want to provide him\her with the JTree expanded to the option that had been selected and to highlight the option. However, whatsoever I try to do for that (any combinations of expandPath, scrollPathToVisible, addSelectionPath, makeVisible) always provides me with a collapsed tree. I try to expand both leaves and nodes. My code looks like this: rbProcessJTree.setSelected(isProcessJTree()); if (null != getSelectedTablePath()){ trTables.addSelectionPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.expandPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.scrollPathToVisible(getSelectedTablePath()); } When setSelected() is called, state change listener is invoked that enables JTree. The model is loaded during the form initialization. Each time I switch between screens, I save the input data from previous screen and dispose it. Then, when I need to open previous screen back, I save data from the following screen, dispose it, load data to this screen and show it. So each time the screen is generating from scratch. Could you please explain, what sequence of operations has to be done to get JTree expanded in a newly created form,with data model loaded and selection path provided?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232  | Next Page >