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  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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  • Get location of element you just pushed into vector C++

    - by Satchmo Brown
    I am curious about how pushing back into a vector works. I want a way to push back an element and then be able to add it's location in the vector to a double array serving as a type of map. Something like this: // Create a bomb Bomb b; b.currentTime = SDL_GetTicks(); b.explodeTime = SDL_GetTicks() + 3000; b.owner = player; b.power = 2; b.x = x; b.y = y; bombVec.push_back(b); bombs[y][x] = THIS_IS_WHAT_I_WANT; This way when I explode the bomb, I can check the map and then have an ID in the vector to deal with. Every non bomb square will have a -1. Also, just curious. Imagine I have 3 elements in a vector. I delete the second one and then add another. Does the new element go in the same location as the one that was deleted? Thanks!

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  • Redirecting to frontpage after 404 error in PHP

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have a php web page that now uses custom error pages when a page is not found. The custom error pages are included in PHP. So when somebody types in an URL that does not exists I just include an error page, and the error page starts with: <?php header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not> Found"); ?> This also tells crawlers that the page does not exist. Now I have set up a new system. When a user types a wrong url, the user is sent back to the frontpage and a message is displayed on the frontpage. I redirect to the frontpage like this: header('Location:' . __TINY_URL . '/'); Now the problem is PHP just sends back a 200 code, page found. How can I mix these two to create a 404 code on the frontpage. And is this overall a nice way of presenting and error page.

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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • Streaming PDF via invocation of HTTPHandler using $.get into object element

    - by mythicdawn
    What I am trying to do is invoke an HTTPHandler via the $.get method of jQuery which will stream back a PDF and display it in a web page using an object element. My previous method of setting the src attribute of an IFrame to be the result of a handler invocation works, but I would like cross-browser completion notification, so have moved to using $.get(). Sample code: function buttonClick() { $.get("/PDFHandler.ashx", {}, function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { var pdfObjectString = "<object data='' type='application/pdf' width='600' height='600'></object>"; var pdfObject = $(pdfObjectString); pdfObject.attr("data", data); $("#container").append(pdfObject); }); As you can see, I am attempting to stick the 'data' variable into an object element. This is not working (no error, PDF just doesn't display), presumably because the data that comes back is binary, yet the attr() method expects a string (I think). My question is thus: how can I invoke an HTTPHandler via $.get and somehow assign the data from the callback to the data attribute of an object?

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  • cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

    - by jmurphy
    Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

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  • How to efficiently convert String, integer, double, datetime to binary and vica versa?

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm quite new to C# (I'm using .NET 4.0) so please bear with me. I need to save some object properties (their properties are int, double, String, boolean, datetime) to a file. But I want to encrypt the files using my own encryption, so I can't use FileStream to convert to binary. Also I don't want to use object serialization, because of performance issues. The idea is simple, first I need to somehow convert objects (their properties) to binary (array), then encrypt (some sort of xor) the array and append it to the end of the file. When reading first decrypt the array and then somehow convert the binary array back to object properties (from which I'll generate objects). I know (roughly =) ) how to convert these things by hand and I could code it, but it would be useless (too slow). I think the best way would be just to get properties' representation in memory and save that. But I don't know how to do it using C# (maybe using pointers?). Also I though about using MemoryStream but again I think it would be inefficient. I am thinking about class Converter, but it does not support toByte(datetime) (documentation says it always throws exception). For converting back I think the only options is class Converter. Note: I know the structure of objects and they will not change, also the maximum String length is also known. Thank you for all your ideas and time. EDIT: I will be storing only parts of objects, in some cases also parts of different objects (a couple of properties from one object type and a couple from another), thus I think that serialization is not an option for me.

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  • Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

    - by stormin986
    I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

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  • Compile IL code at runtime using .NET 3.5 and C# from file

    - by nitefrog
    I would like to take a file that is an IL file, and at run time compile it back to an exe. Right now I can use process.start to fire off the command line with parameters (ilasm.exe) but I would like to automate this process from a C# service I will create. Is there a way to do this with reflection and reflection.emit? While this works: string rawText = File.ReadAllText(string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName")), Encoding.ASCII); rawText = rawText.Replace("[--STRIP--]", guid); File.Delete(string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName"))); File.WriteAllText(string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName")),rawText, Encoding.ASCII); pi = new ProcessStartInfo(); pi.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; pi.FileName = "\"" + ilasm + "\""; pi.Arguments = string.Format("c:\\temp\\{0}.il", Utility.GetAppSetting("baseName")); using(Process p = Process.Start(pi)) { p.WaitForExit(); } It is not ideal as I really would like this to be a streamlined process. I have seen examples of creating the IL at runtime, then saving, but I need to use the IL I already have in file form and compile it back to an exe. Thanks.

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  • Problem in using a second call to send() in C

    - by Paulo Victor
    Hello. Right now I'm working in a simple Server that receives from client a code referring to a certain operation. The server receives this data and send back the signal that it's waiting for the proper data. /*Server Side*/ if (codigoOperacao == 0) { printf("A escolha foi 0\n"); int bytesSent = SOCKET_ERROR; char sendBuff[1080] = "0"; /*Here "send" returns an error msgm while trying to send back the signal*/ bytesSent = send(socketEscuta, sendBuff, 1080, 0); if (bytesSent == SOCKET_ERROR) { printf("Erro ao enviar"); return 0; } else { printf("Bytes enviados : %d\n", bytesSent); char structDesmontada[1080] = ""; bytesRecv = recebeMensagem(socketEscuta, structDesmontada); printf("structDesmontada : %s", structDesmontada); } } Following here is the client code responsible for sending the operation code and receiving the signal char sendMsg[1080] = "0"; char recvMsg[1080] = ""; bytesSent = send(socketCliente, sendMsg, sizeof(sendMsg), 0); printf("Enviei o codigo (%d)\n", bytesSent); /*Here the program blocks in a infinite loop since the server never send anything*/ while (bytesRecv == SOCKET_ERROR) { bytesRecv = recv(socketCliente, recvMsg, 1080, 0); if (bytesRecv > 0) { printf("Recebeu\n"); } Why this is happening only in the second attempt to send some data? Because the first call to send() works fine. Hope someone can help!! Thnks

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  • Class design when working with dataset

    - by MC
    If you have to retrieve data from a database and bring this dataset to the client, and then allow the user to manipulate the data in various ways before updating the database again, what is a good class design for this if the data tables will not have a 1:1 relationship with the class objects? Here are some I came up with: Just manipulate the DataSet itself on the client and then send it back to the database as is. This will work though obviously the code will be very dirty and not well-structured. Same as #1, but wrap the dataset code around classes. What I mean is that you may have a class that takes a dataset or a datatable in its constructor, and then provides public methods and properties to simplify the code. Inside these methods and properties it will be reading or manipulating the dataset. To update the database afterwards will be easy because you already have the updated dataset. Get rid of the dataset entirely on the client, convert to objects, then convert back to a dataset when needing to update the database. Is there any good resources where I can find information on this?

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  • VSC++, virtual method at bad adress, curious bug

    - by antoon.groenewoud
    Hello, This guy: virtual phTreeClass* GetTreeClass() const { return (phTreeClass*)m_entity_class; } When called, crashed the program with an access violation, even after a full recompile. All member functions and virtual member functions had correct memory adresses (I hovered mouse over the methods in debug mode), but this function had a bad memory adress: 0xfffffffc. Everything looked okay: the 'this' pointer, and everything works fine up until this function call. This function is also pretty old and I didn't change it for a long time. The problem just suddenly popped up after some work, which I commented all out to see what was doing it, without any success. So I removed the virtual, compiled, and it works fine. I add virtual, compiled, and it still works fine! I basically changed nothing, and remember that I did do a full recompile earlier, and still had the error back then. I wasn't able to reproduce the problem. But now it is back. I didn't change anything. Removing virtual fixes the problem. Sincerely, Antoon

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  • sorting a gridview alphabetically when columns are codes

    - by nat
    hi there i have a gridview populated by a Web Service search function. some of the columns in the grid are templatefields, because the values coming back from the search (in a datatable) are ids - i then use these ids to lookup the values when the rowdatabound event is triggered and populate a label or some such. this means that my sorting function for these id/lookup columns sorts by the ids rather than the textual value that i have looked up and actually populated the grid with (although i do put the ids in the grids datakeys). what i want to do is top be able to sort by the looked up textual value rather than the codes for these particular columns. what i was going to do to get around this was to when the datatable comes back from the search, adding more columns the textual values and doing all the looking up then, thus being able to sort directly from the manually added columns. is there another way to do this? as that approach seems like a bit of a bodge. although i guess it does remove having to do the looking up in the rowdatabound event.... my sorting function works by sticking the datatable in the session and on each bind grabbing the sort column and binding the gridview to a DataView with the sort attribute set to the column - and the direction. thanks nat

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  • JNI Stream binary data from C++ to Java

    - by Cliff
    I need help passing binary data into Java. I'm trying to use jbytearray but when the data gets into Java it appears corrupt. Can somebody give me a hand? Here's a snip of some example code. First the native C++ side: printf("Building audio array copy\n"); jbyteArray rawAudioCopy = env-NewByteArray(10); jbyte toCopy[10]; printf("Filling audio array copy\n"); char theBytes[10] = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(theBytes); i++) { toCopy[i] = theBytes[i]; } env->SetByteArrayRegion(rawAudioCopy,0,10,toCopy); printf("Finding object callback\n"); jmethodID aMethodId = env->GetMethodID(env->GetObjectClass(obj),"handleAudio","([B)V"); if(0==aMethodId) throw MyRuntimeException("Method not found error",99); printf("Invoking the callback\n"); env->CallVoidMethod(obj,aMethodId, &rawAudioCopy); and then the Java callback method: public void handleAudio(byte[] audio){ System.out.println("Audio supplied to Java [" + audio.length + "] bytes"); byte[] expectedAudio = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}; for (int i = 0; i < audio.length; i++) { if(audio[i]!= expectedAudio[i]) System.err.println("Expected byte " + expectedAudio[i] + " at byte " + i + " but got byte " + audio[i]); else System.out.print('.'); } System.out.println("Audio passed back accordingly!"); } I get the following output when the callback is invoked: library loaded! Audio supplied to Java [-2019659176] bytes Audio passed back accordingly!

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  • Storing date/times as UTC in database

    - by James
    I am storing date/times in the database as UTC and computing them inside my application back to local time based on the specific timezone. Say for example I have the following date/time: 01/04/2010 00:00 Say it is for a country e.g. UK which observes DST (Daylight Savings Time) and at this particular time we are in daylight savings. When I convert this date to UTC and store it in the database it is actually stored as: 31/03/2010 23:00 As the date would be adjusted -1 hours for DST. This works fine when your observing DST at time of submission. However, what happens when the clock is adjusted back? When I pull that date from the database and convert it to local time that particular datetime would be seen as 31/03/2009 23:00 when in reality it was processed as 01/04/2010 00:00. Correct me if I am wrong but isn't this a bit of a flaw when storing times as UTC? Example of Timezone conversion Basically what I am doing is storing the date/times of when information is being submitted to my system in order to allow users to do a range report. Here is how I am storing the date/times: public DateTime LocalDateTime(string timeZoneId) { var tzi = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(timeZoneId); return TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTimeFromUtc(DateTime.UtcNow, tzi).ToLocalTime(); } Storing as UTC: var localDateTime = LocalDateTime("AUS Eastern Standard Time"); WriteToDB(localDateTime.ToUniversalTime());

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • Mysql and PHP - Reading multiple insert queries from a file and executing at runtime

    - by SpikETidE
    Hi everyone... I am trying out a back-up and restore system. Basically, what i try to do is, when creating the back up i make a file which looks like DELETE FROM bank_account; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:05');INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('2', 'IB7391', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '3', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:32'); and so on and so forth. When i restore the db i just read the query from the file, save it to a string and then execute it over the DB using mysql_query(); The problem is, when i run the query through mysql_query(), the execution stops after the delete query with the error 'Error in syntax near '; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2',' at line 1. But when i run the queries directly over the Db, using phpmyadmin it executes without any errors. As far as i can see, i can't notice any syntax error in the query. Can anyone point out where there might be a glitch...? Thanks and regards....

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  • jQuery sliding animation not working

    - by Jake Zeitz
    I have three divs stacked on each other but offset so that a part of each div is visible. When one of the bottom divs is clicked I want the top div to animate out and back into the stack at the bottom, then the div that is clicked will appear at the top. So far I only have the code for when the middle div is clicked, but I cannot get it to work properly. What am I doing wrong? (I also realize that the code I wrote is probably terrible, this is the first jQuery code I have written.) The css is very very simple: .first { z-index: 3; } .second { z-index: 2; } .third { z-index: 1; } The basic html is this: <div class="first"></div> <div class="second"></div> <div class="third"></div> Here is my code: $("div.second").click(function () { $("div.first").animate({ left: "-=200px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.first").removeClass("first").addClass("third").animate({left: "+=350px", top: "+=60px"}, "fast"); } }); $("div.second").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.second").removeClass("second").addClass("first"); } }); $("div.third").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.third").removeClass("third").addClass("second"); } }); }); I can get the div.first to move to the side and back. But now I can't get the classes to stay changed. What keeps happening is the div.second will remove it's class and add .first in the animation, but when the animation is complete, it acts like it still has a class of .second.

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  • Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

    - by Jascha
    Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

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  • Gdata JavaScript Authsub continues redirect

    - by Krustal
    I am using the JavaScript Google Data API and having issues getting the AuthSub script to work correctly. This is my script currently: google.load('gdata', '1'); function getCookie(c_name){ if(document.cookie.length>0){ c_start=document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if(c_start!=-1){ c_start=c_start + c_name.length+1; c_end=document.cookie.indexOf(";",c_start); if(c_end==-1) c_end=document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } function main(){ var scope = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/'; if(!google.accounts.user.checkLogin(scope)){ google.accounts.user.login(); } else { /* * Retrieve all calendars */ // Create the calendar service object var calendarService = new google.gdata.calendar.CalendarService('GoogleInc-jsguide-1.0'); // The default "allcalendars" feed is used to retrieve a list of all // calendars (primary, secondary and subscribed) of the logged-in user var feedUri = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/default/allcalendars/full'; // The callback method that will be called when getAllCalendarsFeed() returns feed data var callback = function(result) { // Obtain the array of CalendarEntry var entries = result.feed.entry; //for (var i = 0; i < entries.length; i++) { var calendarEntry = entries[0]; var calendarTitle = calendarEntry.getTitle().getText(); alert('Calendar title = ' + calendarTitle); //} } // Error handler to be invoked when getAllCalendarsFeed() produces an error var handleError = function(error) { alert(error); } // Submit the request using the calendar service object calendarService.getAllCalendarsFeed(feedUri, callback, handleError); } } google.setOnLoadCallback(main); However when I run this the page redirects me to the authentication page. After I authenticate it send me back to my page and then quickly sends me back to the authenticate page again. I've included alerts to check if the token is being set and it doesn't seem to be working. Has anyone has this problem?

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  • Details View and integration with TinyMCE <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %>

    - by GibboK
    I use TinyMCE in a DetailView in in EDIT MODE. I would like to know if there is a solution which can prevent Request Validation to trigger an error WITHOUT USING <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %> for my page. The only way I found out at the moment is to encode TextBox used by TinyMCE using option: "xml" tinyMCE.init({ encoding: "xml", In this way Request Validation does not trigger error but at the time to read the data in the TextBox the result it is Encoded. I also tried to Decode on PageLoad the content of the TextBox using this code myTextBox.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myTextBox.Text) But the result is not as expected, so I can visualize it just Encoded text. Any Ideas? Thanks UPDATE I found a solution to my problem. I added in _DataBound event for the DetailsView this code TextBox myContentAuthor = (TextBox)uxAuthorListDetailsView.FindControl("uxContentAuthorInput"); myContentAuthor.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myContentAuthor.Text); So on DataBound event, (should work even on post back) the content will be decodene for textbox tinymce. Here how should work: 01 - TinyMCE ESCAPE data inserted in textbox using function encoding: "xml", 02 - Data has been stored as ESCAPED 03 - To read the data and add its content to a TextBox where apply TinyMCE use in DATABOUND EVENT for DetailView and HttpUtility.HtmlDecode (so it will look decoded) 04 - You can modify content in the textbox in edit mode. On post back TinyMCE will encoded again using encoding: "xml" an so on Hope guys can help some one else. But please give me your comment on this solution thanks! Mybe you come up with more elegant solution! :-)

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  • Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

    - by Alex
    My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

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  • Do ORMs normally allow circular relations? If so, how would they handle it?

    - by SeanJA
    I was hacking around trying to make a basic orm that has support for the one => one and one => many relationships. I think I succeeded somewhat, but I am curious about how to handle circular relationships. Say you had something like this: user::hasOne('car'); car::hasMany('wheels'); car::property('type'); wheel::hasOne('car'); You could then do this (theoretically): $u = new user(); echo $u->car->wheels[0]->car->wheels[1]->car->wheels[2]->car->wheels[3]->type; #=> "monster truck" Now, I am not sure why you would want to do this. It seems like it wastes a whole pile of memory and time just to get to something that could have been done in a much shorter way. In my small ORM, I now have 4 copies of the wheel class, and 4 copies of the car class in memory, which causes a problem if I update one of them and save it back to the database, the rest get out of date, and could overwrite the changes that were already made. How do other ORMs handle circular references? Do they even allow it? Do they go back up the tree and create a pointer to one of the parents? DO they let the coder shoot themselves in the foot if they are silly enough to go around in circles?

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  • MVC2 Modelbinder for List of derived objects

    - by user250773
    I want a list of different (derived) object types working with the Default Modelbinder in Asp.net MVC 2. I have the following ViewModel: public class ItemFormModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Required Field")] public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } [ScaffoldColumn(true)] //public List<Core.Object> Objects { get; set; } public ArrayList Objects { get; set; } } And the list contains objects of diffent derived types, e.g. public class TextObject : Core.Object { public string Text { get; set; } } public class BoolObject : Core.Object { public bool Value { get; set; } } It doesn't matter if I use the List or the ArrayList implementation, everything get's nicely scaffolded in the form, but the modelbinder doesn't resolve the derived object type properties for me when posting back to the ActionResult. What could be a good solution for the Viewmodel structure to get a list of different object types handled? Having an extra list for every object type (e.g. List, List etc.) seems to be not a good solution for me, since this is a lot of overhead both in building the viewmodel and mapping it back to the domain model. Thinking about the other approach of binding all properties in a custom model binder, how can I make use the data annotations approach here (validating required attributes etc.) without a lot of overhead?

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  • Submit button on nested form submits the outer form in IE7

    - by Mike Christensen
    I have the following code on my Home.aspx page: <form id="frmJump" method="post" action="Views/ViewsHome.aspx"> <input name="JumpProject" /><input type="submit" value="Go" /> </form> However, when I click the "Go" button, the page posts back to Home.aspx rather than going to ViewsHome.aspx. I even tried adding some script to force the form to submit: <input name="JumpProject" onkeypress="if(event.keyCode == 13) { this.form.submit(); return false; }" /> But still even if I press ENTER, the Home.aspx page is reloaded. The only thing I can see that might be borking things is this form is actually a child form of the main POSTBACK form that ASP.NET injects into the page. I'm sure there's something stupid I'm missing and this post will get 800 downvotes instantly banishing me back into the n00b realm, but perhaps I haven't gotten enough sleep lately and I'm missing something stupid. This is on IE7 and an ASP.NET 4.0 backend. I also have jQuery libraries loaded on the page incase jQuery can improve this somehow. Thanks!

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