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  • Hibernate MappingException Unknown entity: $Proxy2

    - by slynn1324
    I'm using Hibernate annotations and have a VERY basic data object: import java.io.Serializable; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class State implements Serializable { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id private String stateCode; private String stateFullName; public String getStateCode() { return stateCode; } public void setStateCode(String stateCode) { this.stateCode = stateCode; } public String getStateFullName() { return stateFullName; } public void setStateFullName(String stateFullName) { this.stateFullName = stateFullName; } } and am trying to run the following test case: public void testCreateState(){ Session s = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction t = s.beginTransaction(); State state = new State(); state.setStateCode("NE"); state.setStateFullName("Nebraska"); s.save(s); t.commit(); } and get an org.hibernate.MappingException: Unknown entity: $Proxy2 at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionFactoryImpl.java:628) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionImpl.java:1366) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener.saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java:121) .... I haven't been able to find anything referencing the $Proxy part of the error - and am at a loss.. Any pointers to what I'm missing would be greatly appreciated. hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver</property> <property name="connection.url">jdbc:hsqldb:hsql://localhost/xdb</property> <property name="connection.username">sa</property> <property name="connection.password"></property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.HSQLDialect</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <mapping class="com.test.domain.State"/> in HibernateUtil.java public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory(boolean testing ) { if ( sessionFactory == null ){ try { String configPath = HIBERNATE_CFG; AnnotationConfiguration config = new AnnotationConfiguration(); config.configure(configPath); sessionFactory = config.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(e); } } return sessionFactory; }

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • Where are the function literals in c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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  • Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

    - by mstksg
    Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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  • What is fastest way to convert bool to byte?

    - by Amir Rezaei
    What is fastest way to convert bool to byte? I want this mapping: False=0, True=1 Note: I don't want to use any if statement. Update: I don't want to use conditional statement. I don't want the CPU to halt or guess next statement. I want to optimize this code: private static string ByteArrayToHex(byte[] barray) { char[] c = new char[barray.Length * 2]; byte k; for (int i = 0; i < barray.Length; ++i) { k = ((byte)(barray[i] >> 4)); c[i * 2] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); k = ((byte)(barray[i] & 0xF)); c[i * 2 + 1] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); } return new string(c); } Update: The length of the array is very large, it's in terabyte order! Therefore I need to do optimization if possible. I shouldn't need to explain my self. The question is still valid. Update: I'm working on a project and looking at others code. That's why I didn't provide with the function at first place. I didn't want to spend time on explaining for people when they have opinion about the code. I shouldn’y need to provide in my question the background of my work, and a function that is not written by me. I have started to optimize it part by part. If I needed help with the whole function I would asked that in another question. That is why I asked this very simple at the beginning. Unfortunately people couldn’t keep themselves to the question. So please if you want to help answer the question. Update: For dose who want to see the point of this question. This example shows how two if statement are reduced from the code. byte A = k > 9 ; //If it was possible (k>9) == 0 || 1 c[i * 2] = A * (k + 0x30) - (A - 1) * (k + 0x30);

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  • PHP array pointer craziness

    - by JMan
    I'm trying to create a "GetCurrentLevel" method that takes a point value as an input and returns what "Level" that corresponds to. I'm storing the Level = Points mapping in an array, but the array pointer is not moving logically when I use it a foreach loop. I've added echo statements for debugging. Here's my class definition: class Levels extends Model { protected $_map = array ( 'None' => 0, 'Bronze' => 50, 'Silver' => 200, 'Gold' => 500 ); public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } public function GetCurrentLevel($points) { foreach ($this->_map as $name => $threshold) { echo "Level Name: $name<br/>"; echo "Level Threshold: $threshold<br/>"; echo "Current Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; echo "Current Threshold: " . current($this->_map) . "<br/>"; if ($points < $threshold) /* Threshold is now above the points, so need to go back one level */ { $previousThreshold = prev($this->_map); echo "Previous Threshold: $previousThreshold<br/>"; echo "Final Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; return key($this->_map); } echo "Go to next level <br/>"; } } And here is what I see when I call GetCurrentLevel(60): Level Name: None Level Threshold: 0 Current Level: Bronze //* Looks like foreach immediately moves the array pointer *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Bronze Level Threshold: 50 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Silver Level Threshold: 200 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Previous Threshold: 0 Final Level: None But the "Final Level" should be 'Bronze' since 60 points is above the 50 points needed for a Bronze medal, but below the 200 points needed for a Silver medal. Sorry for the long post. Thanks for your help!

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  • What is an overloaded operator in c++?

    - by Jeff
    I realize this is a basic question but I have searched online, been to cplusplus.com, read through my book, and I can't seem to grasp the concept of overloaded operators. A specific example from cplusplus.com is: // vectors: overloading operators example #include <iostream> using namespace std; class CVector { public: int x,y; CVector () {}; CVector (int,int); CVector operator + (CVector); }; CVector::CVector (int a, int b) { x = a; y = b; } CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param) { CVector temp; temp.x = x + param.x; temp.y = y + param.y; return (temp); } int main () { CVector a (3,1); CVector b (1,2); CVector c; c = a + b; cout << c.x << "," << c.y; return 0; } from http://www.cplusplus.com/doc/tutorial/classes2/ but reading through it I'm still not understanding them at all. I just need a basic example of the point of the overloaded operator (which I assume is the "CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param)"). There's also this example from wikipedia: Time operator+(const Time& lhs, const Time& rhs) { Time temp = lhs; temp.seconds += rhs.seconds; if (temp.seconds >= 60) { temp.seconds -= 60; temp.minutes++; } temp.minutes += rhs.minutes; if (temp.minutes >= 60) { temp.minutes -= 60; temp.hours++; } temp.hours += rhs.hours; return temp; } from "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Operator_overloading" The current assignment I'm working on I need to overload a ++ and a -- operator. Thanks in advance for the information and sorry about the somewhat vague question, unfortunately I'm just not sure on it at all.

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  • BizTalk - generating schema from Oracle stored proc with table variable argument

    - by Ron Savage
    I'm trying to set up a simple example project in BizTalk that gets changes made to a table in a SQL Server db and updates a copy of that table in an Oracle db. On the SQL Server side, I have a stored proc named GetItemChanges() that returns a variable number of records. On the Oracle side, I have a stored proc named Update_Item_Region_Table() designed to take a table of records as a parameter so that it can process all the records returned from GetItemChanges() in one call. It is defined like this: create or replace type itemrec is OBJECT ( UPC VARCHAR2(15), REGION VARCHAR2(5), LONG_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(50), POS_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(30), POS_DEPT VARCHAR2(5), ITEM_SIZE VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_UOM VARCHAR2(5), BRAND VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_STATUS VARCHAR2(5), TIME_STAMP VARCHAR2(20), COSTEDBYWEIGHT INTEGER ); create or replace type tbl_of_rec is table of itemrec; create or replace PROCEDURE Update_Item_Region_table ( Item_Data tbl_of_rec ) IS errcode integer; errmsg varchar2(4000); BEGIN for recIndex in 1 .. Item_Data.COUNT loop update FL_ITEM_REGION_TEST set Region = Item_Data(recIndex).Region, Long_description = Item_Data(recIndex).Long_description, Pos_Description = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_description, Pos_Dept = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_dept, Item_Size = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Size, Item_Uom = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Uom, Brand = Item_Data(recIndex).Brand, Item_Status = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Status, Timestamp = to_date(Item_Data(recIndex).Time_stamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd HH24:mi:ss'), CostedByWeight = Item_Data(recIndex).CostedByWeight where UPC = Item_Data(recIndex).UPC; log_message(Item_Data(recIndex).Region, '', 'Updated item ' || Item_Data(recIndex).UPC || '.'); end loop; EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN errcode := SQLCODE(); errmsg := SQLERRM(); log_message('CE', '', 'Error in Update_Item_Region_table(): Code [' || errcode || '], Msg [' || errmsg || '] ...'); END; In my BizTalk project I generate the schemas and binding information for both stored procedures. For the Oracle procedure, I specified a path for the GeneratedUserTypesAssemblyFilePath parameter to generate a DLL to contain the definition of the data types. In the Send Port on the server, I put the path to that Types DLL in the UserAssembliesLoadPath parameter. I created a map to translate the GetItemChanges() schema to the Update_Item_Region_Table() schema. When I run it the data is extracted and transformed fine but causes an exception trying to pass the data to the Oracle proc: *The adapter failed to transmit message going to send port "WcfSendPort_OracleDBBinding_HOST_DATA_Procedure_Custom" with URL "oracledb://dvotst/". It will be retransmitted after the retry interval specified for this Send Port. Details:"System.InvalidOperationException: Custom type mapping for 'HOST_DATA.TBL_OF_REC' is not specified or is invalid.* So it is apparently not getting the information about the custom data type TBL_OF_REC into the Types DLL. Any tips on how to make this work?

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  • ASP.NET Application Level vs. Session Level and Global.asax...confused

    - by contactmatt
    The following text is from the book I'm reading, 'MCTS Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-515) Web Applications Development with ASP.NET 4". It gives the rundown of the Application Life Cycle. A user first makes a request for a page in your site. The request is routed to the processing pipeline, which forwards it to the ASP.NET runtime. The ASP.NET runtime creates an instance of the ApplicationManager class; this class instance represents the .NET framework domain that will be used to execute requests for your application. An application domain isolates global variables from other applications and allows each application to load and unload separately, as required. After the application domain has been created, an instance of the HostingEnvironment class is created. This class provides access to items inside the hosting environment, such as directory folders. ASP.NET creates instances of the core objects that will be used to process the request. This includes HttpContext, HttpRequest, and HttpResponse objects. ASP.NET creates an instance of the HttpApplication class (or an instance is reused). This class is also the base class for a site’s Global.asax file. You can use this class to trap events that happen when your application starts or stops. When ASP.NET creates an instance of HttpApplication, it also creates the modules configured for the application, such as the SessionStateModule. Finally, ASP.NET processes request through the HttpApplication pipleline. This pipeline also includes a set of events for validating requests, mapping URLs, accessing the cache, and more. The book then demonstrated an example of using the Global.asax file: <script runat="server"> void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application["UsersOnline"] = 0; } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> When does an application start? Whats the difference between session and application level? I'm rather confused on how this is managed. I thought that Application level classes "sat on top of" an AppDomain object, and the AppDomain contained information specific to that Session for that user. Could someone please explain how IIS manages Applicaiton level classes, and how an HttpApplication class sits under an AppDomain? Anything is appreciated.

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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • What are some things you'd like fresh college grads to know?

    - by bradhe
    So I proposed this to the Reddit community and I'd like to get SO's perspective on this. This is pretty much the copypasta of what I put there. I was thinking about this last night and thought it would be neat to compile a list. I'm still a pretty fresh college grad -- been in industry for 2 years -- but I think that I might have a few interesting things to lend. You don't know as much as you think you do. Somehow, college students think they know a lot more than they do (or maybe that was just me). Likewise, they think they can do more than they actually can. You should fairly assess your skills. QA people are not out to get you. Humans introduce bugs to code. It's not (nescessarily) a personal reflection on you and your skills if your code has a bug and it's caught by the QA/testing team. Listen to your senior (developers). They are not actually fuddy duddies who don't know about the new L337 hax in Ruby (okay, sometimes they are, but still...). They have a wealth of knowledge that you can learn from and it's in your best interest to do so. You will most likely not be doing what you want to for a while. This is mostly true in the corporate world -- startups are a different matter. Also, this is due to more than just the economy, man! Junior devs need to earn their keep, so to speak. Everyone wants to be lead dev on the next project and there are a lot of people in line ahead of you! For every elite developer there are 100 average developers. Joel Spolsky, I'm looking at you. Somehow this concept of ninja coders has really ingrained itself in our culture. While I encourage you to be the best you can be don't be disappointed if people aren't writing blog posts about you in the near future. Anyone else have anything they would see added to this list?

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  • NHibernate unable to create SessionFactory

    - by Tyler
    I'm having a bit of trouble setting up NHibernate, and I'm not too sure what the problem is exactly. I'm attempting to save a domain object to the database (Oracle 10g XE). However, I'm getting a TypeInitializationException while trying to create the ISessionFactory. Here is what my hibernate.cfg.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="MyProject.DataAccess"> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=myid;Password=mypassword;Data Source=localhost </property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.OracleDialect</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> <mapping resource="MyProject/Domain/User.hbm.xml"/> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I created a DAO which I will use to persist domain objects to the database. The DAO uses a HibernateUtil class that creates the SessionFactory. Both classes are in the DataAccess namespace along with the Hibernate configuration. This is where the exception is occuring. Here's that class: public class HibernateUtil { private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = BuildSessionFactory(); private static ISessionFactory BuildSessionFactory() { try { // This seems to be where the problem occurs return new Configuration().Configure().BuildSessionFactory(); } catch (TypeInitializationException ex) { Console.WriteLine("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new Exception("Unable to create SessionFactory."); } } public static ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return SessionFactory; } } The DataAccess namespace references the NHibernate DLLs. This is virtually the same setup I've used with Hibernate in Java, so I'm not entirely sure what I'm doing wrong here. Any ideas? Edit The innermost exception is the following: "Could not find file 'C:\Users\Tyler\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject\ConsoleApplication\bin\Debug\hibernate.cfg.xml'." ConsoleApplication contains the entry point where I've created a User object and am trying to persist it with my DAO. Why is it looking for the configuration file there? The actual persisting takes place in the DAO, which is in DataAccess. Also, when I add the configuration file to ConsoleApplication, it still does not find it.

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  • ADO Exception in HQL query

    - by Yoav
    I have 2 classes: Project and DataStructure. Class Project contains member List<DataStructure. My goal is to load a Project and all its DataStructures in one call. public class Project { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual ISet<DataStructure> DataStructures { get { } set { } } } public class DataStructure { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual string Description { get { } set { } } public virtual Project Project { get { } set { } } public virtual IList<DataField> Fields { get { } set { } } } Note that DataStructure also contains a list of class DataField but I don’t want to load these right now. Mapping in Fluent NHibernate: public class ProjectMap : ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Table("PROJECTS"); Id(x => x.Pk, "PK"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); HasMany<DataStructure>(x => x.DataStructures).KeyColumn("FK_PROJECT"); } } public class DataStructureMap : ClassMap<DataStructure> { public DataStructureMap() { Table("DATA_STRUCTURES"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); Map(x => x.Description, "DESCRIPTION"); References<Project>(x => x.Project, "FK_PROJECT"); HasMany<DataField>(x => x.Fields).KeyColumn("FK_DATA_STRUCTURE"); } } This is my query: using (ISession session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("from Project pr left join pr.DataStructure"); project = query.List<Project>(); } query.List() returns this exception: NHibernate.Exceptions.GenericADOException: Could not execute query[SQL: SQL not available] ---> System.ArgumentException: The value "System.Object[]" is not of type "Project" and cannot be used in this generic collection.

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  • How to distort the desktop screen

    - by HaifengWang
    Hi friends, I want to change the shape of the desktop screen, so what are displayed on the desktop will be distorted at the same time. And the user can still operate the PC with the mouse on the distorted desktop(Run the applications, Open the "My Computer" and so on). I think I must get the projection matrix of the screen coordinate at first. Then transform the matrix, and map the desktop buffer image to the distorted mesh. Are there any interfaces which can modify the shape of the desktop screen in OpenGL or DirectX? Would you please give me some tip on it. Thank you very much in advance. Please refer to the picture from http://oi53.tinypic.com/bhewdx.jpg BR, Haifeng Addition1: I'm sorry! Maybe I didn't express clearly what I want to implement. What I want to implement is to modify the shape of the screen. So we can distort the shapes of all the applications which are run on Windows at the same time. For example that the window of "My Computer" will be distorted with the distortion of the desktop screen. And we can still operate the PC with mouse from the distorted desktop(Click the shortcut to run a program). Addition2: The projection matrix is just my assume. There isn't any desktop projection matrix by which the desktop surface is projected to the screen. What I want to implement is to change the shape of the desktop, as the same with mapping the desktop to an 3D mesh. But the user can still operate the OS on the distorted desktop(Click the shortcut to run a program, open the ie to surf the internet). Addition3: The shapes of all the programs run on the OS are changed with the distortion of the screen. It's realtime. The user can still operate the OS on the distorted screen as usually. Maybe we can intercept or override the GPU itself to implement the effect. I'm investigating GDI, I think I can find some clue for that. The first step is to find how to show the desktop on the screen.

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • Create a Color Picker, similar to Photoshop's, using Javascript and HTML Canvas

    - by André Alçada Padez
    I am not at all versed in Computer Graphics and am in need of creating a color picker as a javascript tool to embed in an HTML page. First, and looking at Photoshop's one, i thought of the RGB palette as a three-dimensional matrix. My first attempt envolved: <script type="text/javascript"> var rgCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); rgCanvas.width = 256; rgCanvas.height = 256; rgCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (g = 0; g < 256; g++){ for (r = 0; r < 256; r++){ var context = rgCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(r,g); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + r + ', ' + g + ', 0)'; context.lineTo(r+1,g+1); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } } var bCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); bCanvas.width = 20; bCanvas.height = 256; bCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (b = 0; b < 256; b++){ var context = bCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(0,b); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + 0 + ', ' + 0 + ', ' + b + ')'; context.lineTo(20, b); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } document.body.appendChild(rgCanvas); document.body.appendChild(bCanvas); </script> this results in something like My thought is this is too linear, comparing to the ones i see in Photoshop and on the web. I would like to know the logic behind the color mapping in a picker like this: I don't really need the algorythms itself, i'm mainly trying to understand the logic. Thanks

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  • Why boost::recursive_mutex is not working as expected?

    - by Kjir
    I have a custom class that uses boost mutexes and locks like this (only relevant parts): template<class T> class FFTBuf { public: FFTBuf(); [...] void lock(); void unlock(); private: T *_dst; int _siglen; int _processed_sums; int _expected_sums; int _assigned_sources; bool _written; boost::recursive_mutex _mut; boost::unique_lock<boost::recursive_mutex> _lock; }; template<class T> FFTBuf<T>::FFTBuf() : _dst(NULL), _siglen(0), _expected_sums(1), _processed_sums(0), _assigned_sources(0), _written(false), _lock(_mut, boost::defer_lock_t()) { } template<class T> void FFTBuf<T>::lock() { std::cerr << "Locking" << std::endl; _lock.lock(); std::cerr << "Locked" << std::endl; } template<class T> void FFTBuf<T>::unlock() { std::cerr << "Unlocking" << std::endl; _lock.unlock(); } If I try to lock more than once the object from the same thread, I get an exception (lock_error): #include "fft_buf.hpp" int main( void ) { FFTBuf<int> b( 256 ); b.lock(); b.lock(); b.unlock(); b.unlock(); return 0; } This is the output: sb@dex $ ./src/test Locking Locked Locking terminate called after throwing an instance of 'boost::lock_error' what(): boost::lock_error zsh: abort ./src/test Why is this happening? Am I understanding some concept incorrectly?

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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • Where are the function literals c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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  • Unable to get set intersection to work

    - by chavanak
    Sorry for the double post, I will update this question if I can't get things to work :) I am trying to compare two files. I will list the two file content: File 1 File 2 "d.complex.1" "d.complex.1" 1 4 5 5 48 47 65 21 d.complex.10 d.complex.10 46 6 21 46 109 121 192 192 TI am trying to compare the contents of the two file but not in a trivial way. I will explain what I want with an example. If you observe the file content I have typed above, the d.complex.1 of file_1 has "5" similar to d.complex.1 in file_2; the same d.complex.1 in file_1 has nothing similar to d.complex.10 in file_2. What I am trying to do is just to print out those d.complex. which has nothing in similar with the other d.complex. Consider the d.complex. as a heading if you want. But all I am trying is compare the numbers below each d.complex. and if nothing matches, I want that particular d.complex. from both files to be printed. If even one number is present in both d.complex. of both files, I want it to be rejected. My Code: The method I chose to achieve this was to use sets and then do a difference. Code I wrote was: first_complex=open( "file1.txt", "r" ) first_complex_lines=first_complex.readlines() first_complex_lines=map( string.strip, first_complex_lines ) first_complex.close() second_complex=open( "file2.txt", "r" ) second_complex_lines=second_complex.readlines() second_complex_lines=map( string.strip, second_complex_lines ) second_complex.close() list_1=[] list_2=[] res_1=[] for line in first_complex_lines: if line.startswith( "d.complex" ): res_1.append( [] ) res_1[-1].append( line ) res_2=[] for line in second_complex_lines: if line.startswith( "d.complex" ): res_2.append( [] ) res_2[-1].append( line ) h=len( res_1 ) k=len( res_2 ) for i in res_1: for j in res_2: print i[0] print j[0] target_set=set ( i ) target_set_1=set( j ) for s in target_set: if s not in target_set_1: if s[0] != "d": print s The above code is giving an output like this (just an example): d.complex.1.dssp d.complex.1.dssp 1 48 65 d.complex.1.dssp d.complex.10.dssp 46 21 109 What I would like to have is: d.complex.1 d.complex.1 (name from file2) d.complex.1 d.complex.10 (name from file2) I am sorry for confusing you guys, but this is all that is required. I am so new to python so my concept above might be flawed. Also I have never used sets before :(. Can someone give me a hand here?

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  • Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

    - by metaleap
    I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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  • Swing: How do I run a job from AWT thread, but after a window was layed out?

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    My complete GUI runs inside the AWT thread, because I start the main window using SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(...). Now I have a JDialog which has just to display a JLabel, which indicates that a certain job is in progress, and close that dialog after the job was finished. The problem is: the label is not displayed. That job seems to be started before JDialog was fully layed-out. When I just let the dialog open without waiting for a job and closing, the label is displayed. The last thing the dialog does in its ctor is setVisible(true). Things such as revalidate(), repaint(), ... don't help either. Even when I start a thread for the monitored job, and wait for it using someThread.join() it doesn't help, because the current thread (which is the AWT thread) is blocked by join, I guess. Replacing JDialog with JFrame doesn't help either. So, is the concept wrong in general? Or can I manage it to do certain job after it is ensured that a JDialog (or JFrame) is fully layed-out? Simplified algorithm of what I'm trying to achieve: Create a subclass of JDialog Ensure that it and its contents are fully layed-out Start a process and wait for it to finish (threaded or not, doesn't matter) Close the dialog I managed to write a reproducible test case: EDIT Problem from an answer is now addressed: This use case does display the label, but it fails to close after the "simulated process", because of dialog's modality. import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class _DialogTest2 { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { final JLabel jLabel = new JLabel("Please wait..."); @Override public void run() { JFrame myFrame = new JFrame("Main frame"); myFrame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); myFrame.setSize(750, 500); myFrame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); myFrame.setVisible(true); JDialog d = new JDialog(myFrame, "I'm waiting"); d.setModalityType(Dialog.ModalityType.APPLICATION_MODAL); d.add(jLabel); d.setSize(300, 200); d.setLocationRelativeTo(null); d.setVisible(true); SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { Thread.sleep(3000); // simulate process jLabel.setText("Done"); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { } } }); d.setVisible(false); d.dispose(); myFrame.setVisible(false); myFrame.dispose(); } }); } }

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