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  • Delay before playing embedded mp3 in Actionscript / Flex 3

    - by lacker
    I am embedding an mp3 into my Flex project for use as a sound effect, but I am finding that every time I play it, there is a delay of about half a second from when I call .play() to when you can hear the sound. This makes it weird because I want the sound effects to sync to game events. My mp3 itself is only about a fifth of a second long so it isn't because of the contents of the mp3. I'm embedding with [Embed(source="assets/Tock.mp3")] [Bindable] public static var TockSound:Class; public var tock_sound:SoundAsset; and then playing with if (tock_sound == null) { tock_sound = new TockSound() as SoundAsset; } Alert.show("tock"); tock_sound.play(); I know there's a delay because the sound plays about a half second after the Alert displays. I did consider that maybe it was the initial loading time of constructing the TockSound, but the delay is there on all the subsequent calls as well. How can I avoid this delay on playing a sound? Update: It turns out this delay is only present when playing the swf on Linux. I believe it is a Linux-specific flaw in Adobe's flash player.

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  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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  • searching for a programming platform with hot code swap

    - by Andreas
    I'm currently brainstorming over the idea how to upgrade a program while it is running. (Not while debugging, a "production" system.) But one thing that is required for it, is to actually submit the changed source code or compiled byte code into the running process. Pseudo Code var method = typeof(MyClass).GetMethod("Method1"); var content = //get it from a database (bytecode or source code) SELECT content FROM methods WHERE id=? AND version=? method.SetContent(content); At first, I want to achieve the system to work without the complexity of object-orientation. That leads to the following requirements: change source code or byte code of function drop functions add new functions change the signature of a function With .NET (and others) I could inject a class via an IoC and could thus change the source code. But the loading would be cumbersome, because everything has to be in an Assembly or created via Emit. Maybe with Java this would be easier? The whole ClassLoader is replacable, I think. With JavaScript I could achieve many of the goals. Simply eval a new function (MyMethod_V25) and assign it to MyClass.prototype.MyMethod. I think one can also drop functions somehow with "del" Which general-purpose platform can handle such things?

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  • S3 Backup Memory Usage in Python

    - by danpalmer
    I currently use WebFaction for my hosting with the basic package that gives us 80MB of RAM. This is more than adequate for our needs at the moment, apart from our backups. We do our own backups to S3 once a day. The backup process is this: dump the database, tar.gz all the files into one backup named with the correct date of the backup, upload to S3 using the python library provided by Amazon. Unfortunately, it appears (although I don't know this for certain) that either my code for reading the file or the S3 code is loading the entire file in to memory. As the file is approximately 320MB (for today's backup) it is using about 320MB just for the backup. This causes WebFaction to quit all our processes meaning the backup doesn't happen and our site goes down. So this is the question: Is there any way to not load the whole file in to memory, or are there any other python S3 libraries that are much better with RAM usage. Ideally it needs to be about 60MB at the most! If this can't be done, how can I split the file and upload separate parts? Thanks for your help. This is the section of code (in my backup script) that caused the processes to be quit: filedata = open(filename, 'rb').read() content_type = mimetypes.guess_type(filename)[0] if not content_type: content_type = 'text/plain' print 'Uploading to S3...' response = connection.put(BUCKET_NAME, 'daily/%s' % filename, S3.S3Object(filedata), {'x-amz-acl': 'public-read', 'Content-Type': content_type})

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  • Altering lazy-loaded object's private variables

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm running into an issue with private setters when using NHibernate and lazy-loading. Let's say I have a class that looks like this: public class User { public int Foo {get; private set;} public IList<User> Friends {get; set;} public void SetFirstFriendsFoo() { // This line works in a unit test but does nothing during a live run with // a lazy-loaded Friends list Users(0).Foo = 1; } } The SetFirstFriendsFoo call works perfectly inside a unit test (as it should since objects of the same type can access each others private properties). However, when running live with a lazy-loaded Friends list, the SetFirstFriendsFoo call silently fails. I'm guessing the reason for this is because at run-time, the Users(0).Foo object is no longer of type User, but of a proxy class that inherits from User since the Friends list was lazy-loaded. My question is this: shouldn't this generate a run-time exception? You get compile-time exceptions if you try to access another class's private properties, but when you run into a situation like this is looks like the app just ignores you and continues along its way.

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  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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  • IPhone SDK - Leaking Memory with performSelectorInBackground

    - by Steblo
    Hi. Maybe someone can help me with this strange thing: If a user clicks on a button, a new UITableView is pushed to the navigation controller. This new view is doing some database querying which takes some time. Therefore I wanted to do the loading in background. What works WITHOUT leaking memory (but freezes the screen until everything is done): WorkController *tmp=[[WorkController alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; self.workController=tmp; [tmp release]; [self.workController loadList]; // Does the DB Query [self.workController pushViewController:self.workController animated:YES]; Now I tried to do this: // Show Wait indicator .... WorkController *tmp=[[WorkController alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; self.workController=tmp; [tmp release]; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(getController) withObject:nil]; } -(void) getController { [self.workController loadList]; // Does the DB Query [self.navigationController pushViewController:self.workController animated:YES]; } This also works but is leaking memory and I don't know why ! Can you help ? By the way - is it possible for an App to get into AppStore with a small memory leak ? Or will this be checked first of all ? Thanks in advance !

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • Passing youtube video id from video feed to flash

    - by Grant Anderson
    I'm working on a flash web application (Actionscript 2.0) for my honours project but am having trouble embedding youtube videos. Basically the user selects symbols which queries the youtube api with certain tags depending on the symbols chosenand a random video is then picked from the first 30 videos. I have this working using the following code: on (release) { url="http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos?q=danger+passion&orderby=published&start-index="+random(30)+"&max-results=1&v=2" getURL(url); } but this just displays a webpage with a link to the youtube video. This is the code I'll be using as the foundations for the player: // create a MovieClip to load the player into var ytplayer:MovieClip = _root.createEmptyMovieClip("ytplayer", 1); // create a listener object for the MovieClipLoader to use var ytPlayerLoaderListener:Object = { onLoadInit: function() { // When the player clip first loads, we start an interval to // check for when the player is ready loadInterval = setInterval(checkPlayerLoaded, 250); } }; var loadInterval:Number; function checkPlayerLoaded():Void { // once the player is ready, we can subscribe to events, or in the case of // the chromeless player, we could load videos if (ytplayer.isPlayerLoaded()) { ytplayer.addEventListener("onStateChange", onPlayerStateChange); ytplayer.addEventListener("onError", onPlayerError); clearInterval(loadInterval); } } function onPlayerStateChange(newState:Number) { trace("New player state: "+ newState); } function onPlayerError(errorCode:Number) { trace("An error occurred: "+ errorCode); } // create a MovieClipLoader to handle the loading of the player var ytPlayerLoader:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); ytPlayerLoader.addListener(ytPlayerLoaderListener); // load the player ytPlayerLoader.loadClip("http://www.youtube.com/v/pv5zWaTEVkI", ytplayer); can anyone help me on how to get the id of the video (for example: pv5zWaTEVkI) from the feed? Or how to send a query from flash which will return the video url/id as opposed to the url of a feed. Any help would be much appreciated as my hand in rather soon. Thanks

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  • Is it possible to run PHPUnit with a dynamically loaded extension library?

    - by therefromhere
    I have a suite of PHPUnit tests for my extension, and I want to run them as part of the extension's Hudson build process. So I want to run PHPUnit specifying the extension library to load at runtime, but I can't figure out how to do this. My directory structure is as follows: /myextension.c /otherextensionfiles.* /modules/myextension.so /tests/unittests.php I've tried running PHPUnit with an configuration XML file as follows: <phpunit> <php> <ini name="extension_dir" value="../modules/"/> <ini name="extension" value="myextension.so"/> </php> </phpunit> And then running it as follows (from the tests directory): phpunit --configuration config.xml unittests.php But then I get Fatal error: Call to undefined function myfunction(), so it's not loading the library. I've also tried: phpunit -d extension_dir=../modules/ -d extension=myextension.so unittests.php And also dl('myextension.so') to the test setup, but no joy. If it's relevant, this is using PHP 5.2 and PHPUnit 3.4.11.

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  • JDBC/OSGi and how to dynamically load drivers without explicitly stating dependencies in the bundle?

    - by Chris
    Hi, This is a biggie. I have a well-structured yet monolithic code base that has a primitive modular architecture (all modules implement interfaces yet share the same classpath). I realize the folly of this approach and the problems it represents when I go to deploy on application servers that may have different conflicting versions of my library. I'm dependent on around 30 jars right now and am mid-way though bnding them up. Now some of my modules are easy to declare the versioned dependencies of, such as my networking components. They statically reference classes within the JRE and other BNDded libraries but my JDBC related components instantiate via Class.forName(...) and can use one of any number of drivers. I am breaking everything up into OSGi bundles by service area. My core classes/interfaces. Reporting related components. Database access related components (via JDBC). etc.... I wish for my code to be able to still be used without OSGi via single jar file with all my dependencies and without OSGi at all (via JARJAR) and also to be modular via the OSGi meta-data and granular bundles with dependency information. How do I configure my bundle and my code so that it can dynamically utilize any driver on the classpath and/or within the OSGi container environment (Felix/Equinox/etc.)? Is there a run-time method to detect if I am running in an OSGi container that is compatible across containers (Felix/Equinox/etc.) ? Do I need to use a different class loading mechanism if I am in a OSGi container? Am I required to import OSGi classes into my project to be able to load an at-bundle-time-unknown JDBC driver via my database module? I also have a second method of obtaining a driver (via JNDI, which is only really applicable when running in an app server), do I need to change my JNDI access code for OSGi-aware app servers?

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  • Valueurl Binding On Large Arrays Causes Sluggish User Interface

    - by Hooligancat
    I have a large data set (some 3500 objects) that returns from a remote server via HTTP. Currently the data is being presented in an NSCollectionView. One aspect of the data is a path pack to the server for a small image that represents the data (think thumbnail for simplicity). Bindings works fantastically for the data that is already returned, and binding the image via a valueurl binding is easy to do. However, the user interface is very sluggish when scrolling through the data set - which makes me think that the NSCollectionView is retrieving all the image data instead of just the image data used to display the currently viewable images. I was under the impression that Cocoa controls were smart enough to only retrieve data for the information that is actually being output to the user interface through lazy loading. This certainly seems to be the case with NSTableView - but I could be misguided on this thought. Should valueurl binding act lazily and, moreover, should it act lazily in an NSCollectionView? I could create a caching mechanism (in fact I already have such a thing in place for another application - see my post here if you are interested http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1740209/populating-nsimage-with-data-from-an-asynchronous-nsurlconnection) but I really don't want to go this route if I don't have to for this specific implementation as the user could potentially change data sets often and may only want small sub-sets of the data. Any suggested approaches? Thanks!

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  • Quick MEF + SL4 question

    - by Tom Allen
    I'm working on an app in the Silverlight 4 RC and i'm taking the oppertunity to learn MEF for handling plugin controls. I've got it working in a pretty basic manor, but it's not exactly tidy and I know there is a better way of importing multiple xap's. Essentially, in the App.xaml of my host app, I've got the following telling MEF to load my xap's: AggregateCatalog catalog = new AggregateCatalog(); DeploymentCatalog c1 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInA.xap", UriKind.Relative)); DeploymentCatalog c2 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInB.xap", UriKind.Relative)); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c1); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c2); CompositionHost.Initialize(catalog); c1.DownloadAsync(); c2.DownloadAsync(); I'm sure I'm not using the AggregateCatalog fully here and I need to be able to load any xap's that might be in the directory, not just hardcoding Uri's obviously.... Also, in the MainPage.xaml.cs in the host I have the following collection which MEF puts the plugin's into: [ImportMany(AllowRecomposition = true)] public ObservableCollection<IPlugInApp> PlugIns { get; set; } Again, this works, but I'm pretty sure I'm using ImportMany incorrectly.... Finally, the MainPage.xaml.cs file implements IPartImportsSatisfiedNotification and I have the following for handling the plugin's once loaded: public void OnImportsSatisfied() { sp.Children.Clear(); foreach (IPlugInApp plugIn in PlugIns) { if (plugIn != null) sp.Children.Add(plugIn.GetUserControl()); } } This works, but it seems filthy that it runs n times (n being the number of xap's to load). I'm having to call sp.Children.Clear() as if I don't, when loading the 2 plugin's, my stack panel is populated as follows: TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn B I'm clearly missing something here. Can anyone point out what I should be doing? Thanks!

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  • Ruby script/console and Ruby script/server using two different DBs?

    - by aronchick
    Has anyone seen where script/console and script/server load two different databases (though both report using the same)? Here's the first output $ script/server => Booting WEBrick => Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 => Call with -d to detach => Ctrl-C to shutdown server [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick 1.3.1 [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10) [i386-mingw32] [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick::HTTPServer#start: pid=7148 port=3000 No errors. I then run my standard code for entering a form - no problems. Checking the Dev Database (.yml at bottom): mysql> select * from books; [...] | 712 | Book | Book Name | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | [...] 712 rows in set (0.00 sec) The code CLEARLY saved it seconds ago And now here's the output of script/console: $ script/console Loading development environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> Books.all => [] Nothing. Further, upon further inspection, it's using the production database, but I can't figure out why. Any thoughts here? All consoles have been closed and reopened. UPDATE: Requested .yml file (can't see how it'd be helpful (user name and password are all the same for each)) - development: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBdev username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBtest username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 production: adapter: mysql database: BooksDB username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000

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  • Idiomatic default sort using WCF RIA, Entity Framework 4, Silverlight 4?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    I've got two Silverlight 4.0 ComboBoxes; the second displays the children of the entity selected in the first: <ComboBox Name="cmbThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Things,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="CmbThingsSelectionChanged" /> <ComboBox Name="cmbChildThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedThing.ChildThings,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> The code behind the view provides a (simple, hacky) way to databind those ComboBoxes, by loading Entity Framework 4.0 entities through a WCF RIA service: public EntitySet<Thing> Things { get; private set; } public Thing SelectedThing { get; private set; } protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { var context = new SortingDomainContext(); context.Load(context.GetThingsQuery()); context.Load(context.GetChildThingsQuery()); Things = context.Things; DataContext = this; } private void CmbThingsSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { SelectedThing = (Thing) cmbThings.SelectedItem; if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged.Invoke(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedThing")); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; What I'd like to do is have both combo boxes sort their contents alphabetically, and I'd like to specify that behaviour in the XAML if at all possible. Could someone please tell me what is the idiomatic way of doing this with the SL4 / EF4 / WCF RIA technology stack?

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  • How do I load an XML document, add and remove nodes, then apply it to a ASP DataGrid control?

    - by JFOX
    I have a pretty simple operation but am struggling with how to implement it. I am loading XML from an external data source using a DataSet.ReadXml(), the creating a new XMLDataDocument from that data set, then syncing the Dataset back to the XMLDataDocument like so: doc = new XmlDataDocument(dsDataSet); dsDataSet.EnforceConstraints = false; dsDataSet= doc.DataSet; Once loaded I do two things to the XmlDataDocument: Loop through and check if a purely meta node, count, exists right beneath the root node and if so remove it. a thumb node exists in a second level nodelist and if not, create and append it. This is all going a expected because the result of doc.save() looks correct. Where I'm having an issue is updating the Dataset, which is being applied as the data source for an ASP DataGrid. Once all the above XMLDoc manipaulation is done I do this: dsDataSet.Merge(doc.DataSet); dsDataSet.AcceptChanges(); I then apply the data set to the grid control: dgList.DataSource = dsDataSet; dgList.DataBind(); But, when I do this I get this error on the site: System.Web.HttpException: DataBinding: 'System.Data.DataRowView' does not contain a property with the name 'thumb'. What did I miss?

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  • asp.net mvc outputting json with backslashes ( escape) despite many attemps to filter

    - by minus4
    i have an asp.net controller that output Json as the results a section of it is here returnString += string.Format(@"{{""filename"":""{0}"",""line"":[", file.Filename); what i get returned is this: "{\"DPI\":\"66.8213457076566\",\"width\":\"563.341067\",\"editable\":\"True\",\"pricecat\":\"6\",\"numpages\":\"2\",\"height\":\"400\",\"page\":[{\"filename\":\"999_9_1.jpg\",\"line\":[]},{\"filename\":\"999_9_2.jpg\",\"line\":[]}]]" i have tried to return with the following methods: return Json(returnString); return Json(returnString.Replace("\\",""); return Json will serialize my string to a jSon string, this i know but it likes to escape for some reason, how can i get rid of it ???? for info this is how i call it with jQuery: $.ajax({ url:"/Products/LoadArtworkToJSon", type:"POST", dataType: "json", async: false, data:{prodid: prodid }, success: function(data){ sessvars.myData = data; measurements = sessvars.myData; $("#loading").remove(); //empty the canvas and create a new one with correct data, always start on page 0; $("#movements").remove(); $("#canvas").append("<div id=\"movements\" style=\"width:" + measurements.width + "px; height:" + Math.round(measurements.height) + "px; display:block; border:1px solid black; background:url(/Content/products/" + measurements.page[0].filename + ") no-repeat;\"></div>"); your help is much appreciated thanks

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  • rails application on production not working

    - by Steven
    i have a rails application on production which is running using mongrel, I can successfully start the mogrel for the application but when i try to access the application on the URL it is not responding... it is just hanging. This is the mongrel log... but when I hit xxx.xxx.xxx.xx:3001 it is not showing the website but on developent is working fine. ** Starting Mongrel listening at 0.0.0.0:3001 ** Initiating groups for "name.co.za":"name.co.za". ** Changing group to "name.co.za". ** Changing user to "name.co.za". ** Starting Rails with production environment... ** Rails loaded. ** Loading any Rails specific GemPlugins ** Signals ready. TERM = stop. USR2 = restart. INT = stop (no restart). ** Rails signals registered. HUP = reload (without restart). It might not work well. ** Mongrel 1.1.5 available at 0.0.0.0:3001 ** Writing PID file to /home/name.co.za/shared/log/mongrel.pid

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  • UIViewController remaining

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

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  • Why does presentModalViewController not always work?

    - by E-Madd
    My application requires data from a server in order to run. The first thing it does is displays a view controller (LoadingViewController) that is responsible for checking if the data is saved to my PersistentStoreCoordinator. If the data isn't cached locally, it gets it from my server and caches it, and posts a notification that the LoadingViewController is listening for. When that notification comes through, LoadingViewController presents the application's MainViewController using the presentModalViewController with a flip animation. So far, so good... no errors. However, if the application loads and determines the data IS cached - the presentModalViewController does not work and the main application view never appears. No errors. I've even gone as far as adding a button to the Loading view that executes the same code when pressed and the damn thing works. I'm suspicious it has something to do with the timing of it all but I'm clueless as to what I can do to ensure the view is displayed with that flipping animation if the data is already cached locally. Any suggestions?

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  • help with eclipse debugging /or/ subclassed SimpleAdapter not calling setViewImage()

    - by edzillion
    Hi I was following the method for asynchronously loading images into a listview as outlined in evan charlton's blog here. The problem I am having is that the setViewImage function is not being called by the system: @Override public void setViewImage(final ImageView image, final String value) { if (value != null && value.length() > 0 && image instanceof RemoteImageView) { RemoteImageView riv = (RemoteImageView) image; riv.setLocalURI(API.getCacheFileName(value)); riv.setRemoteURI(value); super.setViewImage(image, R.drawable.icon); } else { image.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } I have built his example code, and setViewImage is called fine - it seems to me that the code is functionally identical. Looking into the docs it says: First, if a SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder is available, setViewValue(android.view.View, Object, String) is invoked. If the returned value is true, binding has occured. If the returned value is false and the view to bind is a TextView, setViewText(TextView, String) is invoked. If the returned value is false and the view to bind is an ImageView, setViewImage(ImageView, int) or setViewImage(ImageView, String) is invoked. If no appropriate binding can be found, an IllegalStateException is thrown. I don't really understand how to debug (in eclipse) to find out how this process is occuring, advice on how to do so would be a help. Thanks.

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  • WPF XAML references not resolved via myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()

    - by WPF-it
    I have a WPF container application (with ContentControl host) and a containee application (UserControl). Both are oblivious of each other. Only one XML config file holds the string dllpath of the containee's DLL and full namespace name of the ViewModelClass inside the containee. A generic code in container resolves containee's assembly (Assembly.LoadFrom(dllpath)) and creates the viewmodel's instance using Activator.CreateInstance(vmType). when this viewmodel is hosted inside the ContentControl of the container, and relevant vierwmodel specific ResourceDictionary is added to ContentControl.Resources.MergedDictionaries of the content control of container, so the view loads fine. Now my containee has to host the WPF DataGrid using assembly reference of WPFToolkit.dll from my local C:\Lib folder. The Copy Local reference to the WPFToolkit.dll is added to the .csproj file of the containee's project and its only referred in the UserControl.XAML using its XAML namepsace. This way my bin\debug folder in my containee application, gets the WPFToolkit.dll copied. XAML: xmlns:Controls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" <Controls:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding AssetList}" ... /> Issue: The moment the ViewModel (i.e. the containee's usercontrol) tries to load itself I get this error. "Cannot find type 'Microsoft.Windows.Controls.DataGrid'. The assembly used when compiling might be different than that used when loading and the type is missing." Hence I tried to load the referenced assemblies of the containee's assembly (myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()) before the viewmodel is hosted. But WPFToolkit isnt there in that list of assemblies! Strange thing is I have another dll referred called Logger.dll in the containee codebase but this one is implemented using C# code behind. So I get its reference correctly resolved in myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(). So does that mean BAML references of assemblies are never resolvable by GetReferencedAssemblies?

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  • Create xml document in java applet.

    - by zproxy
    If I try to create a new xml document in a java applet by this code: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.4.2/docs/api/javax/xml/parsers/DocumentBuilderFactory.html#newInstance() DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); I will get this error: Java Plug-in 1.6.0_19 Using JRE version 1.6.0_19-b04 Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM javax.xml.parsers.FactoryConfigurationError: Provider <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> not found at javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(Unknown Source) I do not care about DTD's. Why is it looking for it? How am I supposed to create a xml document in java applets? How can I make it work? The enclosing html document looks like this: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>Loading...</title> </head> Can some comment this thread? The problem was with the entity resolver, which points to the w3c.org web site. The access to the reference DTDs on this site has been restricted for application use. The solution was to implement my own entity resolver. Related: http://forums.sun.com/thread.jspa?threadID=515055 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1016286/org-apache-xerces-jaxp-saxparserfactoryimpl-not-found-when-importing-gears-api-in http://java.itags.org/java-desktop/4839/

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  • Error while opening port in Java

    - by Deepak
    I am getting the following error while trying to open the cash drawer. Error loading win32com: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_15\jre\bin\win32com.dll: Can't load IA 32-bit .dll on a AMD 64-bit platform The code i am using is as follows `import javax.comm.; import java.util.; /** Check each port to see if it is open. **/ public class openPort { public static void main (String [] args) { Enumeration port_list = CommPortIdentifier.getPortIdentifiers (); while (port_list.hasMoreElements ()) { // Get the list of ports CommPortIdentifier port_id = (CommPortIdentifier) port_list.nextElement (); // Find each ports type and name if (port_id.getPortType () == CommPortIdentifier.PORT_SERIAL) { System.out.println ("Serial port: " + port_id.getName ()); } else if (port_id.getPortType () == CommPortIdentifier.PORT_PARALLEL) { System.out.println ("Parallel port: " + port_id.getName ()); } else System.out.println ("Other port: " + port_id.getName ()); // Attempt to open it try { CommPort port = port_id.open ("PortListOpen",20); System.out.println (" Opened successfully"); port.close (); } catch (PortInUseException pe) { System.out.println (" Open failed"); String owner_name = port_id.getCurrentOwner (); if (owner_name == null) System.out.println (" Port Owned by unidentified app"); else // The owner name not returned correctly unless it is // a Java program. System.out.println (" " + owner_name); } } } //main } // PortListOpen`

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  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

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