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  • External class-calling

    - by anonymous
    Hi guys i have a bit of a problem with a few classes, and i would be very grateful if someone can help me out. So i have: Already compiled executable (for whom i don't have the source) A class in that program that i want to call The program doesn't have export for the class, and that's my problem i don't have definition for this class, so is there a way to get a callback to this class? Example: In the compiled executable: foo::bar (example) { printf(example); } My app: CALLBACK(foo::bar, "this text must be passed as argument") Or in other words i want to call a class in other executable (without having its source) and pass arguments to its function.

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  • Jquery Delay Function Calls

    - by fizgig07
    I'm trying to find a way to delay all code that takes place after I make a service call. The reason for this delay is that my service returns code necesarry for the following functions and the result I pass is to these following functions is undefined. I have tried attaching the setTimeout() to the function that is called directly after the service call, but then it just skips the function I set the timeout on and jumps to the next function...My web method that I am calling is not that big and is not doing anything that is too intensive public bool GetSpreadsheetStatusForAdmin(string cacId) { SpreadSheetStatus result = new SpreadSheetStatus(); List<Data.Spreadsheet> spreadsheets = SpreadsheetManager.GetUserSpreadsheets(GetCurrent.Identity); if (spreadsheets.Count != 0) { foreach (Data.Spreadsheet spreadsheet in spreadsheets) { if (spreadsheet.Status == SpreadsheetStatus.Pending) { return true; } } } return false; } I had found the delay() and thought that might work, but I don't have jquery 1.4 and can't use it as of yet. is there anything that can help..?

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  • Should I use custom exceptions to control the flow of application?

    - by bonefisher
    Is it a good practise to use custom business exceptions (e.g. BusinessRuleViolationException) to control the flow of user-errors/user-incorrect-inputs??? The classic approach: I have a web service, where I have 2 methods, one is the 'checker' (UsernameAlreadyExists()) and the other one is 'creator' (CreateUsername())... So if I want to create a username, I have to do 2 roundtrips to webservice, 1.check, 2.if check is OK, create. What about using UsernameAlreadyExistsException? So I call only the 2. web service method (CrateUsername()), which contains the check and if not successfull, it throws the UsernameAlreadyExistsException. So the end goal is to have only one round trip to web service and the checking can be contained also in other web service methods (so I avoid calling the UsernameAlreadyExists() all the times..). Furthermore I can use this kind of business error handling with other web service calls completely avoiding the checking prior the call.

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  • jQuery if checkbox is checked to toggle classes

    - by Lynx
    I am needed to change my jQuery code up. Instead of the label toggling the class and showing the icon I need it to where if the checkbox is checked to show to toggle those classes. I have tried prop and is but I couldn't get them to work properly. The reason for the change is I want to preload data into the form and if it's going to be checked those toggles need to reflect that change. http://jsfiddle.net/70fbLooL/2/ EDIT Seems to be confusion as to exactly what I am trying to do. The fiddle I provided works perfectly fine. The problem is if I want to call the form from server-side and pre-populate the form the checkbox toggles will not show that they are checked because it's based on the clicked function. I need it to be based on if the checkbox equal true or checked. That way if the value equals true from the server-side call it will toggle those classes and look like it's checked.

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  • Contextual bindings with Ninject 2.0

    - by Przemaas
    In Ninject 1.0 I had following binding definitions: Bind<ITarget>().To<Target1>().Only(When.Context.Variable("variable").EqualTo(true)); Bind<ITarget>().To<Target2>(); Given such bindings I had calls: ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", true)); ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", false)); First call was resolved to instance of Target1, second call was resolved to instance of Target2. How to translate this into Ninject 2.0?

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  • car and cdr in scheme is driving me crazy ...

    - by kristian Roger
    Hi Im facing a probem with the car and cdr functions for example: first I defined a list caled it x (define x (a (bc) d ( (ef) g ) )) so x now is equal to (a (bc) d ( (ef) g ) now for example I need to get the g from this list using only car and cdr (!! noshortcuts as caddr cddr !!) the correct answer is: (car(cdr(car(cdr(cdr(cdr x)))))) BUT how ? :-( I work according to the rule (the car gives the head of list and cdr gives the tail) and instead of getting the answer above I keep reaching wronge answers can any one help me in understanding this ... give me step or a way to solve it step by step thanx in advance Im really sick of scheme language.

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  • Clojure vars and Java static methods

    - by j-g-faustus
    I'm a few days into learning Clojure and are having some teething problems, so I'm asking for advice. I'm trying to store a Java class in a Clojure var and call its static methods, but it doesn't work. Example: user=> (. java.lang.reflect.Modifier isPrivate 1) false user=> (def jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) #'user/jmod user=> (. jmod isPrivate 1) java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: No matching method found: isPrivate for class java.lang.Class (NO_SOURCE_FILE:0) at clojure.lang.Compiler.eval(Compiler.java:4543) From the exception it looks like the runtime expects a var to hold an object, so it calls .getClass() to get the class and looks up the method using reflection. In this case the var already holds a class, so .getClass() returns java.lang.Class and the method lookup obviously fails. Is there some way around this, other than writing my own macro? In the general case I'd like to have either an object or a class in a varible and call the appropriate methods on it - duck typing for static methods as well as for instance methods. In this specific case I'd just like a shorter name for java.lang.reflect.Modifier, an alias if you wish. I know about import, but looking for something more general, like the Clojure namespace alias but for Java classes. Are there other mechanisms for doing this? Edit: Maybe I'm just confused about the calling conventions here. I thought the Lisp (and by extension Clojure) model was to evaluate all arguments and call the first element in the list as a function. In this case (= jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) returns true, and (.getName jmod) and (.getName java.lang.reflect.Modifier) both return the same string. So the variable and the class name clearly evaluate to the same thing, but they still cannot be called in the same fashion. What's going on here? Edit 2 Answering my second question (what is happening here), the Clojure doc says that If the first operand is a symbol that resolves to a class name, the access is considered to be to a static member of the named class... Otherwise it is presumed to be an instance member http://clojure.org/java_interop under "The Dot special form" "Resolving to a class name" is apparently not the same as "evaluating to something that resolves to a class name", so what I am trying to do here is something the dot special form does not support.

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  • calling a method on the parent page from a user control

    - by Kyle
    I am using a user control that I created (just a .cs file not an .ascx file), that does some magic and depending on a value generated by the control, I need it to do something on the parent page that is 'hosting' the control. It needs to call a method under certain circumstances (method is on the parent control). the control is placed on the parent page like so: <customtag:MyControl ID="something" runat="server" /> I'm dynamically creating buttons etc on the control itself but when a button is clicked, let's say for example that there's a text box on the control and if the value of the textbox is "bob" it needs to call a method on the page that's housing the control...how can I accomplish this?

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  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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  • How to limit the number of the same Activity on the stack for an Android application

    - by johnrock
    Is this possible in an Android app? I want to make it so that no matter how many times a user starts activityA, when they hit the back button they will never get more than one occurence of activityA. What I am finding in my current code is that I have only two options: 1. I can call finish() in activityA which will prevent it from being accessible via the back button completely, or 2. I do not call finish(), and then if the user starts activityA (n) times during their usage, there will be (n) instances when hitting the back button. Again, I want to have activityA accessible by hitting the back button, but there is no reason to keep multiple instances of the same activity on the stack. Is there a way to limit the number of instances of an activity in the queue to only 1?

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  • jquery and codeigniter

    - by rabidmachine9
    Hello people, and sorry if that question is stupid I'm trying to use javascript with codeigniter and I can't get it right what I'm actually doing is placing jQuery inside the views folder and call it from one of my view files like that: <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> I get no response no errors it just doesn't work, I could also display more code but my first assumption is that there something wrong with the way I call it... maybe something with the paths? any workarounds? thanks in advance

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  • Where to find Android Development Homework Problems

    - by antonlavey
    Ok so I am starting off with android development and I have found a bunch of useful tutorials so I am set there. What I am looking for is a resource that provides homework style problems to do and has the answers downloadable so I can check my solution against the "official" solution. So for example instead of the notepad tutorial it would be: "Build an application that you can create, edit, delete notes, ...etc.". Ideally the "official" solution would have some explanation as to why they built it the way they did. (so a tutorial at the tail end) Anyone know of any resources that provide their tutorials in this format? Thanks.

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  • What is the most efficient way to store a mapping "key -> event stream"?

    - by jkff
    Suppose there are ~10,000's of keys, where each key corresponds to a stream of events. I'd like to support the following operations: push(key, timestamp, event) - pushes event to the event queue for key, marked with the given timestamp. It is guaranteed that event timestamps for a particular key are pushed in sorted or almost sorted order. tail(key, timestamp) - get all events for key since the given timestamp. Usually the timestamp requests for a given key are almost monotonically increasing, almost synchronously with pushes for the same key. This stuff has to be persistent (although it is not absolutely necessary to persist pushes immediately and to keep tails with pushes strictly in sync), so I'm going to use some kind of database. What is the optimal kind of database structure for this task? Would it be better to use a relational database, a key-value storage, or something else?

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  • How to use soap in javascript

    - by fresher
    Hi guys, I am trying to use SOAP in javascript but i am not getting how to start it. Here is the code sample i write in PHP and it works fine. I want to write this code in Javascript. In following code i call one api from a www.example.com and for calling certain api we require to pass some parameters. $soapClient = new SoapClient("https://www.example.com/abc.aspx?WSDL"); // Prepare SoapHeader parameters $param_sh = array( ); $header = new SoapHeader('http://somesite.com/action/', 'user_credential', $param_sh); // Prepare Soap Client $soapClient->__setSoapHeaders(array($header)); // Setup the RemoteFunction parameters $param = array( "pwd" => "password", "id" => "name" ); // Call RemoteFunction () $contents = $soapClient->__call("name_of_api",array($param)); print_r($contents); Thanx in advance!!!

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  • Can someone describe some DI terms to me?

    - by SoBeNoFear
    I'm in the process of writing a DI framework for PHP 5, and I've been trying to find the 'official' definitions of some words in relation to dependency injection. Some of these words are 'context' and 'lifecycle'. And also, what would I call the object that gets created/injected? Finally, what is the difference between components and services, and which term (if either) should I call the objects that can be injected? I've read Martin Fowler's article and looked through other DI frameworks (Phemto, Spring, Google Guice, Xyster, etc.), but I want to know what you think. Thanks!

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  • Websphere Java application startup

    - by Tom Barnett
    I have two Java applications running on a Websphere application server. The first application is COTS software (Plateau) I will call App1 and includes an API which can be used in custom applications to interact with App1. This app takes a couple minutes to start in Websphere. The second application is custom software I will call App2 and is deployed as a web service which utilizes the App1 API to interact with App1; so it is dependent on App1. This app takes just seconds to start in Websphere. I run into a problem in certain App1 functionality when we bounce Websphere and the App2 web service is called by a client before the App1 application has fully started. Is there a way I can delay App2 from starting until App1 is fully started in Websphere? Is there a way to design App2 to programmatically check that App1 is available before it attempts to use the API?

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  • When does a MySQL Query actually execute in PHP?

    - by MJB
    This sounds like a really simple question, but I am new to PHP. If I have a statement like this: $r =& $db->query("insert into table (col1, col2) values (10, 20)"); Do I have to still execute it, or does it get executed when I reference it? I have another case where I have a select query, which seems logically to run only when I call fetchrow, but the code I am presented with (to fix) does not call execute or fetch.I would have expected it to, so I cannot tell if it is just that I don't get it, or that the missing execute statement is the problem. It also does not insert the record, but it does not throw an error I can find. Also, I am a little confused by the =& notation. I looked it up on google, and found a few mentions of it, but I am still not clear on it. Thanks.

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  • Symfony2 : How to make the php_intl extension available for Symfony2?

    - by Miles M.
    I'm trying to follow this documentation on Symfony : http://symfony.com/doc/current/book/forms.html ok so here is my thing, I've externalised my form and created a specific form class for handling the process and being able to reuse it. So what happen when I submit the form, whatever the info are okay or not for my class, I get this fatal Error : Fatal error: Call to a member function setAttribute() on a non-object in C:\Program Files (x86)\wamp\www\QNetworks\vendor\symfony\src\Symfony\Component\Form\Extension\Core\DataTransformer\NumberToLocalizedStringTransformer.php on line 130 Call Stack I'm running with php 5.3.9 and my intl extension is installed and activated BUT when I run the app/check.php command I see : [[WARNING]] Checking that the intl extension is available: FAILED * Install and enable the intl extension (used for validators) * So I don't understand what the problem with this extension. Should I reinstall it ? When I go here : http://php.net/manual/en/intl.requirements.php I see tht i can install the PECL or the ICU library, but i don't know if I should and if there is any relation with my problem .. Thank for your help !!

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • A controller method that calls a different method on the same controller

    - by justSteve
    I have a controller method: public ActionResult Details(int id) { Order order = OrderFacade.Instance.Load(id); return View(order); } that is used for 95% of possible invocations. For the other 5% i need to manipulate the value of id before passing to the facade. I'd like to create a separate method within this same controller that executes that manipulation and then calls this (Details) method. What would the signature of that method look like? What is the syntax to call the main Details method? public ??? ManipulatorMethod(int id) { [stuff that manipulates id] [syntax to call Details(manipulatedID)] } mny thx

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  • Assigning a MVC Controller property from Asp.Net page

    - by JasonMHirst
    I don't know if I've understanding MVC correctly if my question makes no sense, but I'm trying to understand the following: I have some code on a controller that returns JSON data. The JSON data is populated based on a choice from a dropdown box on an Asp.Net page. I thought (incorrectly) that Session variables would be shared between the Asp.Net project and the MVC Project. What I'd like to do therefore (if this is possible), is to call a Sub on the MVC that sets a variable before the JSON query is run. I have the following: Sub SetCountryID(ByVal CountryID As Integer) Me.pCountrySelectedID = CountryID End Sub Which I can call by the following: Response.Write("http://localhost:7970/Home/SetCountryID/?CountryID=44") But this then results in a blank page - again obviouslly totally incorrect! Am I going about MVC the wrong way or do I still have a hell of a lot more learning to do? Is this even possible to do?

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  • Recommended way to support backward/forward compatibility in iPhone app?

    - by MrAleGuy
    I'm in the early stages of an iPhone app and I have a question. I did some searching but did not find what I was looking for. There are features in iPhone OS4 that I would like to take advantage of, but I would like for my app to also run on 3.X. It looks like I want to develop against the 4.0 SDK and do the following: Create a "weak link" to any new (4.0) frameworks Call respondsToSelector: for any new method in an existing framework or any method in a new framework before making that call Am I close? What's recommended? Pointers to similar questions welcome.

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  • MySQL triggers cannot update rows in same table the trigger is assigned to. Suggested workaround?

    - by Cory House
    MySQL doesn't currently support updating rows in the same table the trigger is assigned to since the call could become recursive. Does anyone have suggestions on a good workaround/alternative? Right now my plan is to call a stored procedure that performs the logic I really wanted in a trigger, but I'd love to hear how others have gotten around this limitation. Edit: A little more background as requested. I have a table that stores product attribute assignments. When a new parent product record is inserted, I'd like the trigger to perform a corresponding insert in the same table for each child record. This denormalization is necessary for performance. MySQL doesn't support this and throws: Can't update table 'mytable' in stored function/trigger because it is already used by statement which invoked this stored function/trigger. A long discussion on the issue on the MySQL forums basically lead to: Use a stored proc, which is what I went with for now. Thanks in advance!

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  • Are there any Python reference counting/garbage collection gotchas when dealing with C code?

    - by Jason Baker
    Just for the sheer heck of it, I've decided to create a Scheme binding to libpython so you can embed Python in Scheme programs. I'm already able to call into Python's C API, but I haven't really thought about memory management. The way mzscheme's FFI works is that I can call a function, and if that function returns a pointer to a PyObject, then I can have it automatically increment the reference count. Then, I can register a finalizer that will decrement the reference count when the Scheme object gets garbage collected. I've looked at the documentation for reference counting, and don't see any problems with this at first glance (although it may be sub-optimal in some cases). Are there any gotchas I'm missing? Also, I'm having trouble making heads or tails of the cyclic garbage collector documentation. What things will I need to bear in mind here? In particular, how do I make Python aware that I have a reference to something so it doesn't collect it while I'm still using it?

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  • What interprocess locking calls should I monitor?

    - by Matt Joiner
    I'm monitoring a process with strace/ltrace in the hope to find and intercept a call that checks, and potentially activates some kind of globally shared lock. While I've dealt with and read about several forms of interprocess locking on Linux before, I'm drawing a blank on what to calls to look for. Currently my only suspect is futex() which comes up very early on in the process' execution. Update0 There is some confusion about what I'm after. I'm monitoring an existing process for calls to persistent interprocess memory or equivalent. I'd like to know what system and library calls to look for. I have no intention call these myself, so naturally futex() will come up, I'm sure many libraries will implement their locking calls in terms of this, etc. Update1 I'd like a list of function names or a link to documentation, that I should monitor at the ltrace and strace levels (and specifying which). Any other good advice about how to track and locate the global lock in mind would be great.

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