Search Results

Search found 23968 results on 959 pages for 'tail call'.

Page 225/959 | < Previous Page | 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232  | Next Page >

  • Question about Architecture for Viewing Images in ASP.NET MVC App

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to from the browser via javascript (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Synclock a section of code while waiting for ShowDialog to return

    - by clawson
    I'm having trouble working out how to lock my application out of a section of code while it waits for a response from an external program. I've used Synclock on a section of code with the Me object in the expression. In this Synclock I call an overridden ShowDialog method of a dialog box, which has a timeout parameter, but does return the value from the underlying ShowDialog function call ,once the timer is setup. Works like this. SyncLock Me Dim frmDlgWithTimeout As New frmDlgWithTimeout ' dialog box with overridden ShowDialog ' Dim res As DialogResult = frmDlgWithTimeout.ShowDialog(10 * 1000) ' 10 sec timeout ' End SyncLock Now, external programs may raise events that bring my application to this Synclock but it doesn't prevent it from entering it, even though the ShowDialog function hasn't returned a value (and hence what I thought would keep the section of code locked). There is only one instance of the object that is used for lock in the program. Your help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Turning temporary stringstream to c_str() in single statement

    - by AshleysBrain
    Consider the following function: void f(const char* str); Suppose I want to generate a string using stringstream and pass it to this function. If I want to do it in one statement, I might try: f((std::ostringstream() << "Value: " << 5).str().c_str()); // error This gives an error: 'str()' is not a member of 'basic_ostream'. OK, so operator<< is returning ostream instead of ostringstream - how about casting it back to an ostringstream? 1) Is this cast safe? f(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(std::ostringstream() << "Value: " << 5).str().c_str()); // incorrect output Now with this, it turns out for the operator<<("Value: ") call, it's actually calling ostream's operator<<(void*) and printing a hex address. This is wrong, I want the text. 2) Why does operator<< on the temporary std::ostringstream() call the ostream operator? Surely the temporary has a type of 'ostringstream' not 'ostream'? I can cast the temporary to force the correct operator call too! f(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(std::ostringstream()) << "Value: " << 5).str().c_str()); This appears to work and passes "Value: 5" to f(). 3) Am I relying on undefined behavior now? The casts look unusual. I'm aware the best alternative is something like this: std::ostringstream ss; ss << "Value: " << 5; f(ss.str().c_str()); ...but I'm interested in the behavior of doing it in one line. Suppose someone wanted to make a (dubious) macro: #define make_temporary_cstr(x) (static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(std::ostringstream()) << x).str().c_str()) // ... f(make_temporary_cstr("Value: " << 5)); Would this function as expected?

    Read the article

  • When i close window cookies are destroying in flex

    - by praveen
    Hi, I am using external interface to store cookies in client side of application. Like I have created a cookie in html and i am using those methods in flex using External Interface. I am saving a username in cookie when I re use cookie is displaying, I have deployed in server and i ran like http://localhost/[Path]/index.html.in this html I am embedded swf file and I have saved cookie in html JavaScript, now if I open this url cookie is saving if I open a new window what ever the cookies are a raised and it is loading from start. for cookies saving i am using this code in flex:`package Name{ import flash.external.ExternalInterface; /** * The Cookie class provides a simple way to create or access * cookies in the embedding HTML document of the application. * */ public class Cookies { /** * Flag if the class was properly initialized. */ private static var _initialized:Boolean = false; /** * Name of the cookie. */ private var _name:String; /** * Contents of the cookie. */ private var _value:String; /** * Flag indicating if a cookie was just created. It is <code>true</code> * when the cookie did not exist before and <code>false</code> otherwise. */ private var _isNew:Boolean; /** * Name of the external javascript function used for getting * cookie information. */ private static const GET_COOKIE:String = "cookieGetCookie"; /** * Name of the external javascript function used for setting * cookie information. */ private static const SET_COOKIE:String = "cookieSetCookie"; /** * Javascript code to define the GET_COOKIE function. */ private static var FUNCTION_GET_COOKIE:String = "function () { " + "if (document." + GET_COOKIE + " == null) {" + GET_COOKIE + " = function (name) { " + "if (document.cookie) {" + "cookies = document.cookie.split('; ');" + "for (i = 0; i < cookies.length; i++) {" + "param = cookies[i].split('=', 2);" + "if (decodeURIComponent(param[0]) == name) {" + "value = decodeURIComponent(param[1]);" + "return value;" + "}" + "}" + "}" + "return null;" + "};" + "}" + "}"; /** * Javascript code to define the SET_COOKIE function. */ private static var FUNCTION_SET_COOKIE:String = "function () { " + "if (document." + SET_COOKIE + " == null) {" + SET_COOKIE + " = function (name, value) { " + "document.cookie = name + '=' + value;" + "};" + "}" + "}"; /** * Initializes the class by injecting javascript code into * the embedding document. If the class was already initialized * before, this method does nothing. */ private static function initialize():void { if (Cookies._initialized) { return; } if (!ExternalInterface.available) { throw new Error("ExternalInterface is not available in this container. Internet Explorer ActiveX, Firefox, Mozilla 1.7.5 and greater, or other browsers that support NPRuntime are required."); } // Add functions to DOM if they aren't already there ExternalInterface.call(FUNCTION_GET_COOKIE); ExternalInterface.call(FUNCTION_SET_COOKIE); Cookies._initialized = true; } /** * Creates a new Cookie object. If a cookie with the specified * name already exists, the existing value is used. Otherwise * a new cookie is created as soon as a value is assigned to it. * * @param name The name of the cookie */ public function Cookies(name:String) { Cookies.initialize(); this._name = name; this._value = ExternalInterface.call(GET_COOKIE, name) as String; this._isNew = this._value == null; } /** * The name of the cookie. */ public function get name():String { return this._name; } /** * The value of the cookie. If it is a new cookie, it is not * made persistent until a value is assigned to it. */ public function get value():String { return this._value; } /** * @private */ public function set value(value:String):void { this._value = value; ExternalInterface.call(SET_COOKIE, this._name, this._value); } /** * The <code>isNew</code> property indicates if the cookie * already exists or not. */ public function get isNew():Boolean { return this._isNew; } } } I am using cookie like thisvar anotherCookie:Cookies = new Cookies("username"); anotherCookie.value=[Textinput].text;`.is there any code i need to use save cookie in new window also? Please help me Thanks in Advance.

    Read the article

  • Rails: how do you access RESTful helpers?

    - by Ethan
    I'm trying to work through this guide to Rails routing, but I got stuck in section 3.3: Creating a RESTful route will also make available a pile of helpers within your application and then they list some helpers like photos_url, photos_path, etc. My questions: Where can I find the complete list of helpers that is "made available?" Is there a way to call the helpers in the console? I created an app, then opened up the console with script/console. I tried to call one of the helpers on the console like this: >> entries_url But got: NameError: undefined local variable or method `entries_url' for #<Object:0x349a4> from (irb):8

    Read the article

  • How to limit the number of the same Activity on the stack for an Android application

    - by johnrock
    Is this possible in an Android app? I want to make it so that no matter how many times a user starts activityA, when they hit the back button they will never get more than one occurence of activityA. What I am finding in my current code is that I have only two options: 1. I can call finish() in activityA which will prevent it from being accessible via the back button completely, or 2. I do not call finish(), and then if the user starts activityA (n) times during their usage, there will be (n) instances when hitting the back button. Again, I want to have activityA accessible by hitting the back button, but there is no reason to keep multiple instances of the same activity on the stack. Is there a way to limit the number of instances of an activity in the queue to only 1?

    Read the article

  • Why is my Extension Method not showing up in my test class?

    - by Robert Harvey
    I created an extension method called HasContentPermission on the System.Security.Principal.IIdentity interface: namespace System.Security.Principal { public static bool HasContentPermission (this IIdentity itentity, int contentID) { // I do stuff here return result; } } And I call it like this: bool hasPermission = User.Identity.HasPermission(contentID); Works like a charm. Now I want to unit test it. To do that, all I really need to do is call the extension method directly, so: using System.Security.Principal; namespace MyUnitTests { [TestMethod] public void HasContentPermission_PermissionRecordExists_ReturnsTrue() { IIdentity identity; bool result = identity.HasContentPermission(... But HasContentPermission won't intellisense. I tried creating a stub class that inherits from IIdentity, but that didn't work either. Why? Or am I going about this the wrong way?

    Read the article

  • Where to find Android Development Homework Problems

    - by antonlavey
    Ok so I am starting off with android development and I have found a bunch of useful tutorials so I am set there. What I am looking for is a resource that provides homework style problems to do and has the answers downloadable so I can check my solution against the "official" solution. So for example instead of the notepad tutorial it would be: "Build an application that you can create, edit, delete notes, ...etc.". Ideally the "official" solution would have some explanation as to why they built it the way they did. (so a tutorial at the tail end) Anyone know of any resources that provide their tutorials in this format? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • IO completion port key confusion

    - by Richard Tew
    I'm writing an IO completion port based server (source code here) using the Windows DLL API in Python using the ctypes module. But this is a pretty direct usage of the API and this question is directed at those who have a knowledge of IOCP, not Python. As I understand the documentation for CreateIoCompletionPort, you specify your "user defined" completion key when you call this function with a file handle (in my case a socket) you are associating with the created IOCP. When you get around to calling GetQueuedCompletionStatus, you get a completion key value along with a pointer to an overlapped object. The completion key should identify what overlapped object and request has completed. However, let's say I pass in 100 as the completion key in my CreateIoCompletionPort call with an overlapped object. When the same overlapped object has its IO completed and it arrives back through GetQueuedCompletionStatus, the completion key that accompanies it is much larger and bares no resemblance to the original value of 100. Am I misunderstanding how the completion key works, or must I be doing it wrong in the source code I linked above?

    Read the article

  • Revoke client X509 certificate

    - by Tom
    Hi, I have ASP.NET web service on windows server 2003. I have own certificate authority. I use own client certificate on authentification in web service. I make client certificate. I call web service, everything is ok. Then I revoke this certificate in certification authority. Certificate is in Revoked certificate. I call web service with this certificate, but web service verify this certificate as good, but this certificate is between revoked. I don't know why? Anybody help me please? I use this method on verify certificate. X509Certificate2.Verify Method I don't get any exception, certificate is between revoked, but web service verify this certificate as good.

    Read the article

  • C# - calling ext. DLL function containing Delphi "variant record" parameter

    - by CaldonCZE
    Hello, In external (Delphi-created) DLL I've got the following function that I need to call from C# application. function ReadMsg(handle: longword; var Msg: TRxMsg): longword; stdcall; external 'MyDll.dll' name 'ReadMsg'; The "TRxMsg" type is variant record, defined as follows: TRxMsg = record case TypeMsg: byte of 1: (accept, mask: longword); 2: (SN: string[6]); 3: (rx_rate, tx_rate: word); 4: (rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg: byte); end; In order to call the function from C#, I declared auxiliary structure "my9Bytes" containing array of bytes and defined that it should be marshalled as 9 bytes long array (which is exactly the size of the Delphi record). private struct my9Bytes { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValArray, ArraySubType = UnmanagedType.U1, SizeConst = 9)] public byte[] data; } Then I declared the imported "ReadMsg" function, using the "my9bytes" struct. [DllImport("MyDll.dll")] private static extern uint ReadMsg(uint handle, ref my9Bytes myMsg); I can call the function with no problem... Then I need to create structure corresponding to the original "TRxMsg" variant record and convert my auxiliary "myMsg" array into this structure. I don't know any C# equivalent of Delphi variant array, so I used inheritance and created the following classes. public abstract class TRxMsg { public byte typeMsg; } public class TRxMsgAcceptMask:TRxMsg { public uint accept, mask; //... } public class TRxMsgSN:TRxMsg { public string SN; //... } public class TRxMsgMRate:TRxMsg { public ushort rx_rate, tx_rate; //... } public class TRxMsgStatus:TRxMsg { public byte rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg; //... } Finally I create the appropriate object and initialize it with values manually converted from "myMsg" array (I used BitConverter for this). This does work fine, this solution seems to me a little too complicated, and that it should be possible to do this somehow more directly, without the auxiliary "my9bytes" structures or the inheritance and manual converting of individual values. So I'd like to ask you for a suggestions for the best way to do this. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Contextual bindings with Ninject 2.0

    - by Przemaas
    In Ninject 1.0 I had following binding definitions: Bind<ITarget>().To<Target1>().Only(When.Context.Variable("variable").EqualTo(true)); Bind<ITarget>().To<Target2>(); Given such bindings I had calls: ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", true)); ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", false)); First call was resolved to instance of Target1, second call was resolved to instance of Target2. How to translate this into Ninject 2.0?

    Read the article

  • Assigning a MVC Controller property from Asp.Net page

    - by JasonMHirst
    I don't know if I've understanding MVC correctly if my question makes no sense, but I'm trying to understand the following: I have some code on a controller that returns JSON data. The JSON data is populated based on a choice from a dropdown box on an Asp.Net page. I thought (incorrectly) that Session variables would be shared between the Asp.Net project and the MVC Project. What I'd like to do therefore (if this is possible), is to call a Sub on the MVC that sets a variable before the JSON query is run. I have the following: Sub SetCountryID(ByVal CountryID As Integer) Me.pCountrySelectedID = CountryID End Sub Which I can call by the following: Response.Write("http://localhost:7970/Home/SetCountryID/?CountryID=44") But this then results in a blank page - again obviouslly totally incorrect! Am I going about MVC the wrong way or do I still have a hell of a lot more learning to do? Is this even possible to do?

    Read the article

  • What's the purpose of GC.SuppressFinalize(this) in Dispose() method?

    - by mr.b
    I have code that looks like this: /// <summary> /// Dispose of the instance /// </summary> public void Dispose() { if (_instance != null) { _instance = null; // Call GC.SupressFinalize to take this object off the finalization // queue and prevent finalization code for this object from // executing a second time. GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } Although there is a comment that explains purpose of that GC-related call, I still don't understand why it's there. Isn't object destined for garbage collection once all instances cease from existence (like, when used in using() block)? What's the use case scenario where this would play important role? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • what is the problem with my javascript code, it is not working.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I am trying to call my function named isUrgencyTypeValid from my javascript code but it is not working. Please check what is the problem in my code. My javascript function is not being called. HTML Code <td colspan="2" align="center"><input id="btnSubmit" type="submit" value="submit" runat="server"/></td></tr> jQuery Call function $("#btnSubmit").bind("click",function(){ isUrgencyTypeValid(); }); javascript implemented function function isUrgencyTypeValid() { alert("asd"); var i=0; for(i=0;i<$("radio[name='urgencyType']").length;i++) { if($("radio[name='urgencyType']")[i].checked) { alert($("radio[name='urgencyType']")[i].value); return true; } return false; }

    Read the article

  • Are there any Python reference counting/garbage collection gotchas when dealing with C code?

    - by Jason Baker
    Just for the sheer heck of it, I've decided to create a Scheme binding to libpython so you can embed Python in Scheme programs. I'm already able to call into Python's C API, but I haven't really thought about memory management. The way mzscheme's FFI works is that I can call a function, and if that function returns a pointer to a PyObject, then I can have it automatically increment the reference count. Then, I can register a finalizer that will decrement the reference count when the Scheme object gets garbage collected. I've looked at the documentation for reference counting, and don't see any problems with this at first glance (although it may be sub-optimal in some cases). Are there any gotchas I'm missing? Also, I'm having trouble making heads or tails of the cyclic garbage collector documentation. What things will I need to bear in mind here? In particular, how do I make Python aware that I have a reference to something so it doesn't collect it while I'm still using it?

    Read the article

  • how to find distinct digit set numbers over a range of integers?

    - by evil.coder
    Suppose i have a unsigned integer, call it low and one another call it high such that highlow. The problem is to find distinct digit set numbers over this range. For example, suppose low is 1 and high is 20 then the answer is 20, because all the numbers in this range are of distinct digit sets. If suppose low is 1 and high is 21, then the answer is 20, because 12 and 21 have same digit set i.e.1, 2. I am not looking for a bruteforce algo., if anyone has a better solution then a usual bruteforce approach, please tell..

    Read the article

  • How can this closure test be written in other languages?

    - by Jian Lin
    I wonder how the following closure test can be written in other languages, such as C and Java. Can the same result be expected also in Perl, Python, and PHP? Ideally, we don't need to make a new local variable such as x and assign it the value of i inside the loop, but just so that i has a new copy in the new scope each time. (if possible). (some discussion is in this question.) The following is in Ruby, the "1.8.6" on the first line of result is the Ruby version which can be ignored. p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end the print out is: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope.rb "1.8.6" 1 2 3 4 5 [MacBook01:~] $ Contrast that with another test, with i defined outside: p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] i = 0 (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end the print out: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope2.rb "1.8.6" 5 5 5 5 5 [MacBook01:~] $

    Read the article

  • When does a MySQL Query actually execute in PHP?

    - by MJB
    This sounds like a really simple question, but I am new to PHP. If I have a statement like this: $r =& $db->query("insert into table (col1, col2) values (10, 20)"); Do I have to still execute it, or does it get executed when I reference it? I have another case where I have a select query, which seems logically to run only when I call fetchrow, but the code I am presented with (to fix) does not call execute or fetch.I would have expected it to, so I cannot tell if it is just that I don't get it, or that the missing execute statement is the problem. It also does not insert the record, but it does not throw an error I can find. Also, I am a little confused by the =& notation. I looked it up on google, and found a few mentions of it, but I am still not clear on it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • MySQL triggers cannot update rows in same table the trigger is assigned to. Suggested workaround?

    - by Cory House
    MySQL doesn't currently support updating rows in the same table the trigger is assigned to since the call could become recursive. Does anyone have suggestions on a good workaround/alternative? Right now my plan is to call a stored procedure that performs the logic I really wanted in a trigger, but I'd love to hear how others have gotten around this limitation. Edit: A little more background as requested. I have a table that stores product attribute assignments. When a new parent product record is inserted, I'd like the trigger to perform a corresponding insert in the same table for each child record. This denormalization is necessary for performance. MySQL doesn't support this and throws: Can't update table 'mytable' in stored function/trigger because it is already used by statement which invoked this stored function/trigger. A long discussion on the issue on the MySQL forums basically lead to: Use a stored proc, which is what I went with for now. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • List of private iPhone APIs?

    - by diego nunes
    . . Hi there, everybody. . . I need to do an app to be distributed ad hoc (it doesn't need to go to the store) but I need to get the information about the "data usage" (gprs/3g traffic). It is available on the system, but there is no official API call to get that info. One app made it through Apple testing (it's called "Download Meter"), though, and I emailed the guys to see if they would share the call, but they were not in that mood. . . Is there any list of private APIs or anything like that? Does anyone have any ideas of how could I get that info? Again: the app doesn't need to go to the store, but I need to install it on stock iPhone (ad hoc will do). . Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET (VB) - Close an opened SQL connection inside Function

    - by B1GB0Y
    Can anyone tell me how I close an opened SQL connection inside a Function? I call a Select Function like this: Function Selec(ByVal SQLStr As String) As SqlDataReader Dim SQLConn As New SqlConnection() Dim SQLCmd As New SqlCommand() SQLConn.ConnectionString = Session("bd") SQLConn.Open() SQLCmd.Connection = SQLConn SQLCmd.CommandText = SQLStr Selec = SQLCmd.ExecuteReader End Function And in another page I do a While method to retrieve me the data like this: (Note: BDcon.BD is the name of the Class that have Functions) Dim write as New BDcon.BD Dim menu As SqlDataReader = writeBD.Selec("SELECT something from Table") While menu.Read 'Do something End While menu.Close 'This close just the DataReader and not the SqlConnection Finally I want to Close my SQL Connection by Function like this: Function Close() As SqlConnection Dim SQLConn As New SqlConnection() SQLConn.ConnectionString = Session("bd") SQLConn.Close() End Function I think that the problem is on the Close() Function, I want to close the connection but I don't know how to call my Opened Conneciton. Please anyone can help me? Thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232  | Next Page >