Search Results

Search found 23968 results on 959 pages for 'tail call'.

Page 225/959 | < Previous Page | 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232  | Next Page >

  • Synclock a section of code while waiting for ShowDialog to return

    - by clawson
    I'm having trouble working out how to lock my application out of a section of code while it waits for a response from an external program. I've used Synclock on a section of code with the Me object in the expression. In this Synclock I call an overridden ShowDialog method of a dialog box, which has a timeout parameter, but does return the value from the underlying ShowDialog function call ,once the timer is setup. Works like this. SyncLock Me Dim frmDlgWithTimeout As New frmDlgWithTimeout ' dialog box with overridden ShowDialog ' Dim res As DialogResult = frmDlgWithTimeout.ShowDialog(10 * 1000) ' 10 sec timeout ' End SyncLock Now, external programs may raise events that bring my application to this Synclock but it doesn't prevent it from entering it, even though the ShowDialog function hasn't returned a value (and hence what I thought would keep the section of code locked). There is only one instance of the object that is used for lock in the program. Your help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why is my Extension Method not showing up in my test class?

    - by Robert Harvey
    I created an extension method called HasContentPermission on the System.Security.Principal.IIdentity interface: namespace System.Security.Principal { public static bool HasContentPermission (this IIdentity itentity, int contentID) { // I do stuff here return result; } } And I call it like this: bool hasPermission = User.Identity.HasPermission(contentID); Works like a charm. Now I want to unit test it. To do that, all I really need to do is call the extension method directly, so: using System.Security.Principal; namespace MyUnitTests { [TestMethod] public void HasContentPermission_PermissionRecordExists_ReturnsTrue() { IIdentity identity; bool result = identity.HasContentPermission(... But HasContentPermission won't intellisense. I tried creating a stub class that inherits from IIdentity, but that didn't work either. Why? Or am I going about this the wrong way?

    Read the article

  • Forbid GridView to load all views at once

    - by efpies
    I have about 700 items to display in the grid view. On a Samsung Galaxy Tab 10.1 this is not a problem: it has enough memory. On a HTC Explorer the heap is overflown. So I want to load data dynamically regarding current scroll position (N rows for screen + 5 rows as a tail). And I want to show a scrollbar which represents the position in total rows. But I don't want to draw items that I don't see. In other words, I want to create something similar to UITableView in iOS. How can I do this?

    Read the article

  • Where to find Android Development Homework Problems

    - by antonlavey
    Ok so I am starting off with android development and I have found a bunch of useful tutorials so I am set there. What I am looking for is a resource that provides homework style problems to do and has the answers downloadable so I can check my solution against the "official" solution. So for example instead of the notepad tutorial it would be: "Build an application that you can create, edit, delete notes, ...etc.". Ideally the "official" solution would have some explanation as to why they built it the way they did. (so a tutorial at the tail end) Anyone know of any resources that provide their tutorials in this format? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • VBA Excel - Workbook_SheetChange

    - by user2947014
    Hopefully this question hasn't already been asked, I tried searching for an answer and couldn't find anything. This is probably a simple question, but I am writing my first macro in excel and am having a problem that I can't find out a solution to. I wrote a couple of macros that basically sum up columns dynamically (so that the number of rows can change and the formula moves down automatically) based on a value in another column of the same row, and I call those macros from the event Workbook_SheetChange. The problem I'm having is, I change a cell's value from my macro to display the result of the sum, and this then calls Workbook_SheetChange again, which I do not want. Right now it works, but I can trace it and see that Workbook_SheetChange is being called multiple times. This is preventing me from adding other cell changes to the macros, because then it results in an infinite loop. I want the macros to run every time a change is made to the sheet, but I don't see any way around allowing the macros to change a cell's value, so I don't know what to do. I will paste my code below, in case it is helpful. Private Sub Workbook_SheetChange(ByVal Sh As Object, ByVal Target As Range) Dim Row As Long Dim Col As Long Row = Target.Row Col = Target.Column If Col <> 7 Then Range("G" & Row).Select Selection.Formula = "=IF(F" & Row & "=""Win"",E" & Row & ",IF(F" & Row & "=""Loss"",-D" & Row & ",0))" Target.Select End If Call SumRiskColumn End Sub Private Sub Workbook_SheetCalculate(ByVal Sh As Object) Call SumOutcomeColumn End Sub Sub SumOutcomeColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Cells(N + 1, "G").Formula = "=SUM(G2:G" & N & ")" End Sub Sub SumRiskColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Dim CurrTotalRisk As Long CurrTotalRisk = 0 For i = 2 To N If IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 6)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 1)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 2)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 3)) Then CurrTotalRisk = CurrTotalRisk + ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 4).Value End If Next i Cells(N + 1, "D").Value = CurrTotalRisk End Sub Thank you for any help you can give me! I really appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Usage CursorLoader without ContentProvider

    - by sealskej
    Android SDK documentation says that startManagingCursor() method is depracated: This method is deprecated. Use the new CursorLoader class with LoaderManager instead; this is also available on older platforms through the Android compatibility package. This method allows the activity to take care of managing the given Cursor's lifecycle for you based on the activity's lifecycle. That is, when the activity is stopped it will automatically call deactivate() on the given Cursor, and when it is later restarted it will call requery() for you. When the activity is destroyed, all managed Cursors will be closed automatically. If you are targeting HONEYCOMB or later, consider instead using LoaderManager instead, available via getLoaderManager() So I would like to use CursorLoader. But how can I use it with custom CursorAdapter and without ContentProvider, when I needs URI in constructor of CursorLoader?

    Read the article

  • How to limit the number of the same Activity on the stack for an Android application

    - by johnrock
    Is this possible in an Android app? I want to make it so that no matter how many times a user starts activityA, when they hit the back button they will never get more than one occurence of activityA. What I am finding in my current code is that I have only two options: 1. I can call finish() in activityA which will prevent it from being accessible via the back button completely, or 2. I do not call finish(), and then if the user starts activityA (n) times during their usage, there will be (n) instances when hitting the back button. Again, I want to have activityA accessible by hitting the back button, but there is no reason to keep multiple instances of the same activity on the stack. Is there a way to limit the number of instances of an activity in the queue to only 1?

    Read the article

  • Question about Architecture for Viewing Images in ASP.NET MVC App

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to from the browser via javascript (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • how to find distinct digit set numbers over a range of integers?

    - by evil.coder
    Suppose i have a unsigned integer, call it low and one another call it high such that highlow. The problem is to find distinct digit set numbers over this range. For example, suppose low is 1 and high is 20 then the answer is 20, because all the numbers in this range are of distinct digit sets. If suppose low is 1 and high is 21, then the answer is 20, because 12 and 21 have same digit set i.e.1, 2. I am not looking for a bruteforce algo., if anyone has a better solution then a usual bruteforce approach, please tell..

    Read the article

  • Workaround for PHP SOAP request failure when wsdl defines service port binding as https and port 80?

    - by scooterhanson
    I am consuming a SOAP web service using php5's soap extension. The service' wsdl was generated using Axis java2wsdl, and whatever options are used during generation result in the port binding url being listed as https://xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx**:80** If I download the wsdl to my server, remove the port 80 specification from the port binding location value, and reference the local file in my soapclient call it works fine. However, if I try to reference it remotely (or download it and reference it locally, as-is) the call fails with a soap fault. I have no input into the service side so I can't make them change their wsdl-generation process. So, unless there's a way to make the soapclient ignorant of the port, I'm stuck with using a locally modified copy of someone else' wsdl (which I'd rather not do). Any thoughts on how to make my soapclient ignore the port 80?

    Read the article

  • When i close window cookies are destroying in flex

    - by praveen
    Hi, I am using external interface to store cookies in client side of application. Like I have created a cookie in html and i am using those methods in flex using External Interface. I am saving a username in cookie when I re use cookie is displaying, I have deployed in server and i ran like http://localhost/[Path]/index.html.in this html I am embedded swf file and I have saved cookie in html JavaScript, now if I open this url cookie is saving if I open a new window what ever the cookies are a raised and it is loading from start. for cookies saving i am using this code in flex:`package Name{ import flash.external.ExternalInterface; /** * The Cookie class provides a simple way to create or access * cookies in the embedding HTML document of the application. * */ public class Cookies { /** * Flag if the class was properly initialized. */ private static var _initialized:Boolean = false; /** * Name of the cookie. */ private var _name:String; /** * Contents of the cookie. */ private var _value:String; /** * Flag indicating if a cookie was just created. It is <code>true</code> * when the cookie did not exist before and <code>false</code> otherwise. */ private var _isNew:Boolean; /** * Name of the external javascript function used for getting * cookie information. */ private static const GET_COOKIE:String = "cookieGetCookie"; /** * Name of the external javascript function used for setting * cookie information. */ private static const SET_COOKIE:String = "cookieSetCookie"; /** * Javascript code to define the GET_COOKIE function. */ private static var FUNCTION_GET_COOKIE:String = "function () { " + "if (document." + GET_COOKIE + " == null) {" + GET_COOKIE + " = function (name) { " + "if (document.cookie) {" + "cookies = document.cookie.split('; ');" + "for (i = 0; i < cookies.length; i++) {" + "param = cookies[i].split('=', 2);" + "if (decodeURIComponent(param[0]) == name) {" + "value = decodeURIComponent(param[1]);" + "return value;" + "}" + "}" + "}" + "return null;" + "};" + "}" + "}"; /** * Javascript code to define the SET_COOKIE function. */ private static var FUNCTION_SET_COOKIE:String = "function () { " + "if (document." + SET_COOKIE + " == null) {" + SET_COOKIE + " = function (name, value) { " + "document.cookie = name + '=' + value;" + "};" + "}" + "}"; /** * Initializes the class by injecting javascript code into * the embedding document. If the class was already initialized * before, this method does nothing. */ private static function initialize():void { if (Cookies._initialized) { return; } if (!ExternalInterface.available) { throw new Error("ExternalInterface is not available in this container. Internet Explorer ActiveX, Firefox, Mozilla 1.7.5 and greater, or other browsers that support NPRuntime are required."); } // Add functions to DOM if they aren't already there ExternalInterface.call(FUNCTION_GET_COOKIE); ExternalInterface.call(FUNCTION_SET_COOKIE); Cookies._initialized = true; } /** * Creates a new Cookie object. If a cookie with the specified * name already exists, the existing value is used. Otherwise * a new cookie is created as soon as a value is assigned to it. * * @param name The name of the cookie */ public function Cookies(name:String) { Cookies.initialize(); this._name = name; this._value = ExternalInterface.call(GET_COOKIE, name) as String; this._isNew = this._value == null; } /** * The name of the cookie. */ public function get name():String { return this._name; } /** * The value of the cookie. If it is a new cookie, it is not * made persistent until a value is assigned to it. */ public function get value():String { return this._value; } /** * @private */ public function set value(value:String):void { this._value = value; ExternalInterface.call(SET_COOKIE, this._name, this._value); } /** * The <code>isNew</code> property indicates if the cookie * already exists or not. */ public function get isNew():Boolean { return this._isNew; } } } I am using cookie like thisvar anotherCookie:Cookies = new Cookies("username"); anotherCookie.value=[Textinput].text;`.is there any code i need to use save cookie in new window also? Please help me Thanks in Advance.

    Read the article

  • C# - calling ext. DLL function containing Delphi "variant record" parameter

    - by CaldonCZE
    Hello, In external (Delphi-created) DLL I've got the following function that I need to call from C# application. function ReadMsg(handle: longword; var Msg: TRxMsg): longword; stdcall; external 'MyDll.dll' name 'ReadMsg'; The "TRxMsg" type is variant record, defined as follows: TRxMsg = record case TypeMsg: byte of 1: (accept, mask: longword); 2: (SN: string[6]); 3: (rx_rate, tx_rate: word); 4: (rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg: byte); end; In order to call the function from C#, I declared auxiliary structure "my9Bytes" containing array of bytes and defined that it should be marshalled as 9 bytes long array (which is exactly the size of the Delphi record). private struct my9Bytes { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValArray, ArraySubType = UnmanagedType.U1, SizeConst = 9)] public byte[] data; } Then I declared the imported "ReadMsg" function, using the "my9bytes" struct. [DllImport("MyDll.dll")] private static extern uint ReadMsg(uint handle, ref my9Bytes myMsg); I can call the function with no problem... Then I need to create structure corresponding to the original "TRxMsg" variant record and convert my auxiliary "myMsg" array into this structure. I don't know any C# equivalent of Delphi variant array, so I used inheritance and created the following classes. public abstract class TRxMsg { public byte typeMsg; } public class TRxMsgAcceptMask:TRxMsg { public uint accept, mask; //... } public class TRxMsgSN:TRxMsg { public string SN; //... } public class TRxMsgMRate:TRxMsg { public ushort rx_rate, tx_rate; //... } public class TRxMsgStatus:TRxMsg { public byte rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg; //... } Finally I create the appropriate object and initialize it with values manually converted from "myMsg" array (I used BitConverter for this). This does work fine, this solution seems to me a little too complicated, and that it should be possible to do this somehow more directly, without the auxiliary "my9bytes" structures or the inheritance and manual converting of individual values. So I'd like to ask you for a suggestions for the best way to do this. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Revoke client X509 certificate

    - by Tom
    Hi, I have ASP.NET web service on windows server 2003. I have own certificate authority. I use own client certificate on authentification in web service. I make client certificate. I call web service, everything is ok. Then I revoke this certificate in certification authority. Certificate is in Revoked certificate. I call web service with this certificate, but web service verify this certificate as good, but this certificate is between revoked. I don't know why? Anybody help me please? I use this method on verify certificate. X509Certificate2.Verify Method I don't get any exception, certificate is between revoked, but web service verify this certificate as good.

    Read the article

  • Turning temporary stringstream to c_str() in single statement

    - by AshleysBrain
    Consider the following function: void f(const char* str); Suppose I want to generate a string using stringstream and pass it to this function. If I want to do it in one statement, I might try: f((std::ostringstream() << "Value: " << 5).str().c_str()); // error This gives an error: 'str()' is not a member of 'basic_ostream'. OK, so operator<< is returning ostream instead of ostringstream - how about casting it back to an ostringstream? 1) Is this cast safe? f(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(std::ostringstream() << "Value: " << 5).str().c_str()); // incorrect output Now with this, it turns out for the operator<<("Value: ") call, it's actually calling ostream's operator<<(void*) and printing a hex address. This is wrong, I want the text. 2) Why does operator<< on the temporary std::ostringstream() call the ostream operator? Surely the temporary has a type of 'ostringstream' not 'ostream'? I can cast the temporary to force the correct operator call too! f(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(std::ostringstream()) << "Value: " << 5).str().c_str()); This appears to work and passes "Value: 5" to f(). 3) Am I relying on undefined behavior now? The casts look unusual. I'm aware the best alternative is something like this: std::ostringstream ss; ss << "Value: " << 5; f(ss.str().c_str()); ...but I'm interested in the behavior of doing it in one line. Suppose someone wanted to make a (dubious) macro: #define make_temporary_cstr(x) (static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(static_cast<std::ostringstream&>(std::ostringstream()) << x).str().c_str()) // ... f(make_temporary_cstr("Value: " << 5)); Would this function as expected?

    Read the article

  • NSDate & Memory management

    - by iFloh
    Hi, memory management still gives me grief. This time it is an NSDate iVar that I init using NSDate *myNSDate = [[NSDate date] firstDayOfMonth]; with a method call to - (NSDate *)firstDayOfMonth { NSDateComponents *tmpDateComponents = [[NSCalendar currentCalendar] components:NSYearCalendarUnit | NSMonthCalendarUnit | NSEraCalendarUnit | NSWeekCalendarUnit | NSWeekdayOrdinalCalendarUnit fromDate:self]; [tmpDateComponents setDay:1]; [tmpDateComponents setHour:0]; [tmpDateComponents setMinute:0]; [tmpDateComponents setSecond:0]; return [[NSCalendar currentCalendar] dateFromComponents:tmpDateComponents]; } At the end of the init call the retain count is at 1 (Note the iVar is not defined as a property). When I step into the viewWillAppear method the myNSDate has vanished. I tried to do an explicit retain on it, but that only lasts until I update the iVar using the above method again. I though - ok - I add the retain to the return of the function, but that makes the leak analyser throw up an error. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How does dereferencing of a function pointer happen?

    - by eSKay
    Why and how does dereferencing a function pointer just "do nothing"? This is what I am talking about: #include<stdio.h> void hello() { printf("hello"); } int main(void) { (*****hello)(); } From a comment over here: function pointers dereference just fine, but the resulting function designator will be immediately converted back to a function pointer And from an answer here: Dereferencing (in way you think) a function's pointer means: accessing a CODE memory as it would be a DATA memory. Function pointer isn't suppose to be dereferenced in that way. Instead, it is called. I would use a name "dereference" side by side with "call". It's OK. Anyway: C is designed in such a way that both function name identifier as well as variable holding function's pointer mean the same: address to CODE memory. And it allows to jump to that memory by using call () syntax either on an identifier or variable. How exactly does dereferencing of a function pointer work?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET (VB) - Close an opened SQL connection inside Function

    - by B1GB0Y
    Can anyone tell me how I close an opened SQL connection inside a Function? I call a Select Function like this: Function Selec(ByVal SQLStr As String) As SqlDataReader Dim SQLConn As New SqlConnection() Dim SQLCmd As New SqlCommand() SQLConn.ConnectionString = Session("bd") SQLConn.Open() SQLCmd.Connection = SQLConn SQLCmd.CommandText = SQLStr Selec = SQLCmd.ExecuteReader End Function And in another page I do a While method to retrieve me the data like this: (Note: BDcon.BD is the name of the Class that have Functions) Dim write as New BDcon.BD Dim menu As SqlDataReader = writeBD.Selec("SELECT something from Table") While menu.Read 'Do something End While menu.Close 'This close just the DataReader and not the SqlConnection Finally I want to Close my SQL Connection by Function like this: Function Close() As SqlConnection Dim SQLConn As New SqlConnection() SQLConn.ConnectionString = Session("bd") SQLConn.Close() End Function I think that the problem is on the Close() Function, I want to close the connection but I don't know how to call my Opened Conneciton. Please anyone can help me? Thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Assigning a MVC Controller property from Asp.Net page

    - by JasonMHirst
    I don't know if I've understanding MVC correctly if my question makes no sense, but I'm trying to understand the following: I have some code on a controller that returns JSON data. The JSON data is populated based on a choice from a dropdown box on an Asp.Net page. I thought (incorrectly) that Session variables would be shared between the Asp.Net project and the MVC Project. What I'd like to do therefore (if this is possible), is to call a Sub on the MVC that sets a variable before the JSON query is run. I have the following: Sub SetCountryID(ByVal CountryID As Integer) Me.pCountrySelectedID = CountryID End Sub Which I can call by the following: Response.Write("http://localhost:7970/Home/SetCountryID/?CountryID=44") But this then results in a blank page - again obviouslly totally incorrect! Am I going about MVC the wrong way or do I still have a hell of a lot more learning to do? Is this even possible to do?

    Read the article

  • Symfony2 : How to make the php_intl extension available for Symfony2?

    - by Miles M.
    I'm trying to follow this documentation on Symfony : http://symfony.com/doc/current/book/forms.html ok so here is my thing, I've externalised my form and created a specific form class for handling the process and being able to reuse it. So what happen when I submit the form, whatever the info are okay or not for my class, I get this fatal Error : Fatal error: Call to a member function setAttribute() on a non-object in C:\Program Files (x86)\wamp\www\QNetworks\vendor\symfony\src\Symfony\Component\Form\Extension\Core\DataTransformer\NumberToLocalizedStringTransformer.php on line 130 Call Stack I'm running with php 5.3.9 and my intl extension is installed and activated BUT when I run the app/check.php command I see : [[WARNING]] Checking that the intl extension is available: FAILED * Install and enable the intl extension (used for validators) * So I don't understand what the problem with this extension. Should I reinstall it ? When I go here : http://php.net/manual/en/intl.requirements.php I see tht i can install the PECL or the ICU library, but i don't know if I should and if there is any relation with my problem .. Thank for your help !!

    Read the article

  • Obtaining references to function objects on the execution stack from the frame object?

    - by Marcin
    Given the output of inspect.stack(), is it possible to get the function objects from anywhere from the stack frame and call these? If so, how? (I already know how to get the names of the functions.) Here is what I'm getting at: Let's say I'm a function and I'm trying to determine if my caller is a generator or a regular function? I need to call inspect.isgeneratorfunction() on the function object. And how do you figure out who called you? inspect.stack(), right? So if I can somehow put those together, I'll have the answer to my question. Perhaps there is an easier way to do this?

    Read the article

  • MySQL triggers cannot update rows in same table the trigger is assigned to. Suggested workaround?

    - by Cory House
    MySQL doesn't currently support updating rows in the same table the trigger is assigned to since the call could become recursive. Does anyone have suggestions on a good workaround/alternative? Right now my plan is to call a stored procedure that performs the logic I really wanted in a trigger, but I'd love to hear how others have gotten around this limitation. Edit: A little more background as requested. I have a table that stores product attribute assignments. When a new parent product record is inserted, I'd like the trigger to perform a corresponding insert in the same table for each child record. This denormalization is necessary for performance. MySQL doesn't support this and throws: Can't update table 'mytable' in stored function/trigger because it is already used by statement which invoked this stored function/trigger. A long discussion on the issue on the MySQL forums basically lead to: Use a stored proc, which is what I went with for now. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Stopping httpd causes a process started from perl CGI script to receive SIGTERM

    - by Pranav Pal
    I am running a shell script from a perl CGI script: #!/usr/bin/perl my $command = "./script.sh &"; my $pid = fork(); if (defined($pid) && $pid==0) { # background process system( $command ); } The shell script looks like this: #!/bin/sh trap 'echo trapped' 15 tail -f test.log When I run the CGI script from browser, and then stop httpd using /etc/init.d/httpd stop, the script receives a SIGTERM signal. I was expecting the script to run as a separate process and not be tied in anyway to httpd. Though I can trap the SIGTERM, I would like to understand why the script is receiving SIGTERM at all. What wrong am I doing here? I am running RHEL 5.8 and Apache HTTP server 2.4. Thanks, Pranav

    Read the article

  • What's the purpose of GC.SuppressFinalize(this) in Dispose() method?

    - by mr.b
    I have code that looks like this: /// <summary> /// Dispose of the instance /// </summary> public void Dispose() { if (_instance != null) { _instance = null; // Call GC.SupressFinalize to take this object off the finalization // queue and prevent finalization code for this object from // executing a second time. GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } Although there is a comment that explains purpose of that GC-related call, I still don't understand why it's there. Isn't object destined for garbage collection once all instances cease from existence (like, when used in using() block)? What's the use case scenario where this would play important role? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232  | Next Page >