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• how do use Ninject with class libraries I am developing?

  - by Greg

  Hi, If I am working on a class library how do I make use of Ninject here? Ie from the internal class library point of view and also from the client code? For example: should the class library have it's own IOC set up, or should it always assume the client code will supply? if no (ie it's upto the client to have the IOC in place) then where is the mapping data stored here'. Is this mapping of the class library's functionality to be places in the client? have a reusable library that is available, that uses interfaces with classes that use the getInstance concept to create concrete classes for you to use, then in this case would that make sense on the client side to use the IOC container to create instances of these classes? Or is that really applying a double layer of abstraction? Q2 Or in the cases where I'm building the reusable library myself and want the client to use an IOC container, then in my reusable library would I then dispense with any overhead of having factories or "getInstance" methods to instantiate the classes in the client? (i.e. as the IOC container would do this no?)

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• Disable validation in an object in Ruby on Rails

  - by J. Pablo Fernández

  I have an object which whether validation happens or not should depend on a boolean, or in another way, validation is optional. I haven't found a clean way to do it. What I'm currently doing is this (disclaimer: you cannot unsee, leave this page if you are too sensitive): def valid? if perform_validation super else super # Call valid? so that callbacks get called and things like encrypting passwords and generating salt in before_validation actually happen errors.clear # but then clear the errors true # and claim ourselves to be valid. This is super hacky! end end Any better ways? Before you point to the :if argument of many validations, this is for a user model which is using authlogic so it has a lot of validation rules. You can stop reading here if you belive me. If you don't, authlogic already sets some :ifs like: :if => :email_changed? which I have to turn into :if => Proc.new {|user| user.email_changed? and user.perform_validation} and in some other cases, since I'm also using authlogic-oid (OpenID) I just don't have control over the :if, authlogic-oid sets it in a way I cannot change it (in time) without further monkey patching. So I have to override seemingly unrelated functions, catch exceptions if a method doesn't exist, etc. The previous hacky solution if the best of my two attempts.

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• Hashtable is that fast

  - by Costa

  Hi s[0]*31^(n-1) + s[1]*31^(n-2) + ... + s[n-1]. Is the hash function of the java string, I assume the rest of languages is similar or close to this implementation. If we have hash-Table and a list of 50 elements. each element is 7 chars ABCDEF1, ABCDEF2, ABCDEF3..... ABCDEFn If each bucket of hashtable contains 5 strings (I think this function will make it one string per bucket, but let us assume it is 5). If we call col.Contains("ABCDEFn"); // will do 6 comparisons and discover the difference on the 7th. The hash-table will take around 70 operations (multiplication and additions) to get the hashcode and to compare with 5 strings in bucket. and BANG it found. For list it will take around 300 comparisons to find it. for the case that there is only 10 elements, the list will take around 70 operations but the Hashtable will take around 50 operations. and note that hashtable operations are more time consuming (it is multiplications). I conclude that HybirdDictionary in .Net probably is the best choice for that most cases that require Hashtable with unknown size, because it will let me use a list till the list becomes more than 10 elements. still need something like HashSet rather than a Dictionary of keys and values, I wonder why there is no HybirdSet!! So what do u think? Thanks

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• php function to make slug (url string)

  - by andufo

  function gen_slug($str){ # special accents $a = array('À','Á','Â','Ã','Ä','Å','Æ','Ç','È','É','Ê','Ë','Ì','Í','Î','Ï','Ð','Ñ','Ò','Ó','Ô','Õ','Ö','Ø','Ù','Ú','Û','Ü','Ý','ß','à','á','â','ã','ä','å','æ','ç','è','é','ê','ë','ì','í','î','ï','ñ','ò','ó','ô','õ','ö','ø','ù','ú','û','ü','ý','ÿ','A','a','A','a','A','a','C','c','C','c','C','c','C','c','D','d','Ð','d','E','e','E','e','E','e','E','e','E','e','G','g','G','g','G','g','G','g','H','h','H','h','I','i','I','i','I','i','I','i','I','i','?','?','J','j','K','k','L','l','L','l','L','l','?','?','L','l','N','n','N','n','N','n','?','O','o','O','o','O','o','Œ','œ','R','r','R','r','R','r','S','s','S','s','S','s','Š','š','T','t','T','t','T','t','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','W','w','Y','y','Ÿ','Z','z','Z','z','Ž','ž','?','ƒ','O','o','U','u','A','a','I','i','O','o','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','?','?','?','?','?','?'); $b = array('A','A','A','A','A','A','AE','C','E','E','E','E','I','I','I','I','D','N','O','O','O','O','O','O','U','U','U','U','Y','s','a','a','a','a','a','a','ae','c','e','e','e','e','i','i','i','i','n','o','o','o','o','o','o','u','u','u','u','y','y','A','a','A','a','A','a','C','c','C','c','C','c','C','c','D','d','D','d','E','e','E','e','E','e','E','e','E','e','G','g','G','g','G','g','G','g','H','h','H','h','I','i','I','i','I','i','I','i','I','i','IJ','ij','J','j','K','k','L','l','L','l','L','l','L','l','l','l','N','n','N','n','N','n','n','O','o','O','o','O','o','OE','oe','R','r','R','r','R','r','S','s','S','s','S','s','S','s','T','t','T','t','T','t','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','W','w','Y','y','Y','Z','z','Z','z','Z','z','s','f','O','o','U','u','A','a','I','i','O','o','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','U','u','A','a','AE','ae','O','o'); return strtolower(preg_replace(array('/[^a-zA-Z0-9 -]/','/[ -]+/','/^-|-$/'),array('','-',''),str_replace($a,$b,$str))); } Works great, but i've found some cases in which it fails: echo gen_slug('andrés'); returns andras instead of andres why? any ideas on the preg_replace parameters?

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• Why can't I simply copy installed Perl modules to other machines?

  - by pistacchio

  Being very new to Perl but not to dynamic languages, I'm a bit surprised at how not straight forward the manage of modules is. Sure, cpan X does theoretically work, but I'm working on the same project from three different machines and OSs (at work, at home, testing in an external environment). At work (Windows 7) I have problem using cpan because of our firewall that makes ftp unusable At home (Mac OS X) it does work In the external environment (Linux CentOs) it worked after hours because I don't have root access and I had to configure cpan to operate as a non-root user I've tried on another server where I have an access. If the previous external environment is a VPS and so I have a shell access, this other one is a cheap shared hosting where I have no way to install new modules other than the ones pre-installed At the moment I still can't install Template under Windows. I've seen that as an alternative I could compile it and I've also tried ActiveState's PPM but the module is not existent there. Now, my perplexity is about Perl being a dynamic language. I've had all these kind of problems while working, for example, with C where I had to compile all the libraries for all the platform, but I thought that with Perl the approach would have been very similar to Python's or PHP's where in 90% of the cases copying the module in a directory and importing it simply works. So, my question: if Perl's modules are written in Perl, why the copy/paste approach will not work? If some (or some part) of the modules have to be compiled, how to see in CPAN if a module is Perl-only or it relies upon compiled libraries? Isn't there a way to download the module (tar, zip...) and use cpan to deploy it? This would solve my problem under Windows.

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• Given a main function and a cleanup function, how (canonically) do I return an exit status in Bash/Linux?

  - by Zac B

  Context: I have a bash script (a wrapper for other scripts, really), that does the following pseudocode: do a main function if the main function returns: $returncode = $? #most recent return code if the main function runs longer than a timeout: kill the main function $returncode = 140 #the semi-canonical "exceeded allowed wall clock time" status run a cleanup function if the cleanup function returns an error: #nonzero return code exit $? #exit the program with the status returned from the cleanup function else #cleanup was successful .... Question: What should happen after the last line? If the cleanup function was successful, but the main function was not, should my program return 0 (for the successful cleanup), or $returncode, which contains the (possibly nonzero and unsuccessful) return code of the main function? For a specific application, the answer would be easy: "it depends on what you need the script for." However, this is more of a general/canonical question (and if this is the wrong place for it, kill it with fire): in Bash (or Linux in general) programming, do you typically want to return the status that "means" something (i.e. $returncode) or do you ignore such subjectivities and simply return the code of the most recent function? This isn't Bash-specific: if I have a standalone executable of any kind, how, canonically should it behave in these cases? Obviously, this is somewhat debatable. Even if there is a system for these things, I'm sure that a lot of people ignore it. All the same, I'd like to know. Cheers!

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• Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

  - by sonicblis

  I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

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• If a nonblocking recv with MSG_PEEK succeeds, will a subsequent recv without MSG_PEEK also succeed?

  - by Michael Wolf

  Here's a simplified version of some code I'm working on: void stuff(int fd) { int ret1, ret2; char buffer[32]; ret1 = recv(fd, buffer, 32, MSG_PEEK | MSG_DONTWAIT); /* Error handling -- and EAGAIN handling -- would go here. Bail if necessary. Otherwise, keep going. */ /* Can this call to recv fail, setting errno to EAGAIN? */ ret2 = recv(fd, buffer, ret1, 0); } If we assume that the first call to recv succeeds, returning a value between 1 and 32, is it safe to assume that the second call will also succeed? Can ret2 ever be less than ret1? In which cases? (For clarity's sake, assume that there are no other error conditions during the second call to recv: that no signal is delivered, that it won't set ENOMEM, etc. Also assume that no other threads will look at fd. I'm on Linux, but MSG_DONTWAIT is, I believe, the only Linux-specific thing here. Assume that the right fnctl was set previously on other platforms.)

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• What's the best way to only output a tag if it exists in XSL?

  - by Morinar

  I'm working on an interface with a 3rd party app that basically needs to take XML that was spat out by the app and convert it into XML our system can deal with. It's basically just applying a stylesheet to the original XML to make it looks like "our" XML. I've noticed that in other stylesheets we have, there are constructs like this: <xsl:for-each select="State"> <StateAbbreviation> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </StateAbbreviation> </xsl:for-each> Basically, the "in" XML has a State tag that I need to output as our recognized StateAbbreviation tag. However, I want to ONLY output the StateAbbreviation tag if the "in" XML contains the State tag. The block above accomplishes this just fine, but is not very intuitive (at least it wasn't to me), as every time I see a for-each I assume there is more than one, whereas in these cases there is 0 or 1. My question: is that a standard-ish construct? If not, is there a more preferred way to do it? I could obviously check the string length (which is also being done in other stylesheets), but would like to do it the same, "best" way everywhere (assuming of course that a "best" way exists. Advice? Suggestions?

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• PHP Resize image down and crop using imagemagick

  - by mr12086

  I'm trying to downsize image uploaded by users at the time of upload. This is no problem but I want to get specific with sizes now. I'm looking for some advice on an algorithm im struggling to produce that will take any shape image - square or rectangle of any widths/heights and downsize it. This image needs to be downsized to a target box size (this changes but is stored in a variable).. So it needs to downsize the image so that both the width and height are larger than the width and height of the target maintaining aspect ratio. but only just.. The target size will be used to crop the image so there is no white space around the edges etc. I'm looking for just the algorithm behind creating the correct resize based on different dimension images - I can handle the cropping, even resizing in most cases but it fails in a few so i'm reaching out. I'm not really asking for PHP code more pseudo. Either is fine obviously. Thanks Kindly.

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• How to efficiently convert String, integer, double, datetime to binary and vica versa?

  - by Ben

  Hi, I'm quite new to C# (I'm using .NET 4.0) so please bear with me. I need to save some object properties (their properties are int, double, String, boolean, datetime) to a file. But I want to encrypt the files using my own encryption, so I can't use FileStream to convert to binary. Also I don't want to use object serialization, because of performance issues. The idea is simple, first I need to somehow convert objects (their properties) to binary (array), then encrypt (some sort of xor) the array and append it to the end of the file. When reading first decrypt the array and then somehow convert the binary array back to object properties (from which I'll generate objects). I know (roughly =) ) how to convert these things by hand and I could code it, but it would be useless (too slow). I think the best way would be just to get properties' representation in memory and save that. But I don't know how to do it using C# (maybe using pointers?). Also I though about using MemoryStream but again I think it would be inefficient. I am thinking about class Converter, but it does not support toByte(datetime) (documentation says it always throws exception). For converting back I think the only options is class Converter. Note: I know the structure of objects and they will not change, also the maximum String length is also known. Thank you for all your ideas and time. EDIT: I will be storing only parts of objects, in some cases also parts of different objects (a couple of properties from one object type and a couple from another), thus I think that serialization is not an option for me.

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• Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

  - by David Stratton

  Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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• Why would certain browsers request all pages on my ASP.Net Web site twice?

  - by Deane

  Firefox is issuing duplicate requests to my ASP.Net web site. It will request a page, get the response, then immediately issue the same request again (well, almost the same -- see below). This happens on every page of this particular Web site (but not any others). IE does not do this, but Chrome also does this. I have confirmed that there is no Location header in the response, and no Javascript or meta tag in the page which would cause the page to be re-requested (if any of these were true, IE would be re-requesting pages as well). I have confirmed this behavior on multiple Firefox installs on multiple machines. Versions vary, but all are 3.x. The only difference between the two requests is the Accepts header. For the first request, it looks like this: Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 For the second request, it looks like this: Accept: */* The Content-Type response header in all cases is: Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Something else odd -- even though Firefox requests the page twice, it uses the first response and discards the second. I put a counter on a page that increments with every request. I can watch the responses come back (via the Charles proxy). Firefox will get a "1" the first time, and a "2" the second time. Yet it will display the "1," for some reason. Chrome exhibits this exact same behavior. I suspect it's a protocol-level issue, given the difference in Accepts header, but I've never seen this before.

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• Overlapping template partial specialization when wanting an "override" case: how to avoid the error?

  - by user173342

  I'm dealing with a pretty simple template struct that has an enum value set by whether its 2 template parameters are the same type or not. template<typename T, typename U> struct is_same { enum { value = 0 }; }; template<typename T> struct is_same<T, T> { enum { value = 1 }; }; This is part of a library (Eigen), so I can't alter this design without breaking it. When value == 0, a static assert aborts compilation. So I have a special numerical templated class SpecialCase that can do ops with different specializations of itself. So I set up an override like this: template<typename T> struct SpecialCase { ... }; template<typename LT, typename RT> struct is_same<SpecialCase<LT>, SpecialCase<RT>> { enum { value = 1 }; }; However, this throws the error: more than one partial specialization matches the template argument list Now, I understand why. It's the case where LT == RT, which steps on the toes of is_same<T, T>. What I don't know is how to keep my SpecialCase override and get rid of the error. Is there a trick to get around this? edit: To clarify, I need all cases where LT != RT to also be considered the same (have value 1). Not just LT == RT.

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• Could DataGridView be this dumb? or its me?lol

  - by Selase

  Am trying to bind data to a dropdown list on pageload based on a condition. Code explains further below. public partial class AddExhibit : System.Web.UI.Page { string adminID, caseIDRetrieved; DataSet caseDataSet = new DataSet(); SqlDataAdapter caseSqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); string strConn = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["CMSSQL3ConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { adminID = Request.QueryString["adminID"]; caseIDRetrieved = Request.QueryString["caseID"]; if (caseIDRetrieved != null) { CaseIDDropDownList.Text = caseIDRetrieved; //CaseIDDropDownList.Enabled = false; } else { try { CreateDataSet(); DataView caseDataView = new DataView(caseDataSet.Tables[0]); CaseIDDropDownList.DataSource = caseDataView; CaseIDDropDownList.DataBind(); } catch (Exception ex) { string script = "<script>alert('" + ex.Message + "');</script>"; } } } The CreateDataset method that is called in the if..else statement is contains the following code. private void CreateDataSet() { SqlConnection caseConnection = new SqlConnection(strConn); caseSqlDataAdapter.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand("Select CaseID FROM Cases", caseConnection); caseSqlDataAdapter.Fill(caseDataSet); } However when i load the page and as usual the condition that is supposed to bid the data is met, the gridview decides to displays as follows... IS IT ME OR ITS THE DATAGRID?...??

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• Problem with UITextView

  - by user367039

  I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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• Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

  - by GMan - Save the Unicorns

  I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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• asp.net mvc stand alone ascx control how do i link (css and js) most efficiently

  - by Julian

  Hi, I need some advice. I have developed some asp.net mvc web pages. Each page has a master and some ascx controls (between 2 - 6) embedded into it a js and css file. Up to now every thing was fine. In order to improve modularity, flexibility and testability the ascx's are now expected to be able to work as stand alone controls. (Each ascx has also got its own css and js files in some cases it has another control inside it) In order to meet this requirement we call the controller with the relevant parameters and it returns the ascx (partial) directly to the browser without all of the other parts of the original page . In order to get it to display correctly (css) and act correctly (js/jquery) all of the relevant files need to be added (as links or scripts eg. href="<%= ResolveUrl(styleSheet)%>") to the user control. This is "contradicting" the concept of positioning the files at the most logical place (could be the master page for example). How can I overcome this problem? Keep in mind that this is relevant for each "control" ascx file. Any thoughts will be appreciated.

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• Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

  - by Wondering

  Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

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• using STI and ActiveRecordBase<> with full FindAll

  - by oillio

  Is it possible to use generic support with single table inheritance, and still be able to FindAll of the base class? As a bonus question, will I be able to use ActiveRecordLinqBase< as well? I do love those queries. More detail: Say I have the following classes defined: public interface ICompany { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord("companies", DiscriminatorColumn="type", DiscriminatorType="String", DiscriminatorValue="NA")] public abstract class Company<T> : ActiveRecordBase<T>, ICompany { [PrimaryKey] private int Id { get; set; } [Property] public String Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="firm")] public class Firm : Company<Firm> { [Property] public string Description { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="client")] public class Client : Company<Client> { [Property] public int ChargeRate { get; set; } } This works fine for most cases. I can do things like: var x = Client.FindAll(); But sometimes I want all of the companies. If I was not using generics I could do: var x = (Company[]) FindAll(Company); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Firm b = (Firm)x[1]; Is there a way to write a FindAll that returns an array of ICompany's that can then be typecast into their respective types? Something like: var x = (ICompany[]) FindAll(Company<ICompany>); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Or maybe I am going about implementing the generic support all wrong?

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• Qt/PyQt dialog with togglable fullscreen mode - problem on Windows

  - by Guard

  I have a dialog created in PyQt. It's purpose and functionality don't matter. The init is: class MyDialog(QWidget, ui_module.Ui_Dialog): def __init__(self, parent=None): super(MyDialog, self).__init__(parent) self.setupUi(self) self.installEventFilter(self) self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Dialog | Qt.WindowTitleHint) self.showMaximized() Then I have event filtering method: def eventFilter(self, obj, event): if event.type() == QEvent.KeyPress: key = event.key() if key == Qt.Key_F11: if self.isFullScreen(): self.setWindowFlags(self._flags) if self._state == 'm': self.showMaximized() else: self.showNormal() self.setGeometry(self._geometry) else: self._state = 'm' if self.isMaximized() else 'n' self._flags = self.windowFlags() self._geometry = self.geometry() self.setWindowFlags(Qt.Tool | Qt.FramelessWindowHint) self.showFullScreen() return True elif key == Qt.Key_Escape: self.close() return QWidget.eventFilter(self, obj, event) As can be seen, Esc is used for dialog hiding, and F11 is used for toggling full-screen. In addition, if the user changed the dialog mode from the initial maximized to normal and possibly moved the dialog, it's state and position are restored after exiting the full-screen. Finally, the dialog is created on the MainWindow action triggered: d = MyDialog(self) d.show() It works fine on Linux (Ubuntu Lucid), but quite strange on Windows 7: if I go to the full-screen from the maximized mode, I can't exit full-screen (on F11 dialog disappears and appears in full-screen mode again). If I change the dialog's mode to Normal (by double-clicking its title), then go to full-screen and then return back, the dialog is shown in the normal mode, in the correct position, but without the title line. Most probably the reason for both cases is the same - the setWindowFlags doesn't work. But why? Is it also possible that it is the bug in the recent PyQt version? On Ubuntu I have 4.6.x from apt, and on Windows - the latest installer from the riverbank site.

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• Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

  - by Alex Cruise

  Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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• ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

  - by recursive

  This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

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• IE7: container of hidden Div displays incorrectly

  - by dmr

  There is a search box div that contains a boxhead div and a boxbody div. Inside the boxbody div, there is a searchToggle div. When the user clicks a certain link on the page, the display style property of the searchToggle div is toggled between block and none. The 2 background-images for the body of the search box are set via the css of the searchBox div and the boxbody div. In IE7, when the searchToggle div is hidden, the background-image from the searchBox div extends on the left more than it should. It shows up correctly when the display of the searchToggle div is block. Everything show up correctly, in both cases in IE8 and FF. Any ideas why this is happening? The relevant HTML: <div class="searchBox"> <div class="boxhead"> <h2></h2> </div> <div class="boxbody"> <div id="searchToggle" name="searchToggle"> </div> </div> </div> The relevant CSS: .searchBox { margin: 0 auto; width: 700px; background: url(/images/myImageRight-r.gif) no-repeat bottom right; font-size: 100%; text-align: left; overflow: hidden; } .boxbody { margin: 0; padding: 5px 30px 31px; background-image: url(/images/myImageLeft.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: left bottom; }

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• Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

  - by Ryan Norbauer

  I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

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