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  • How to properly use Object Contexts in Entity Framework using BackgroundWorker

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am developing using Entity Framework and WPF, and I am encountering some errors and I don't know why. When saving a record (using a BackgroundWorker), I set the entities change tracker to nothing (null), attach the record to a new disposable context, save it, detach, and dispose of the context. Saving a record fires and event in the MainViewModel of the program that the other ViewModels (including the one that is saving) need to refresh their entities to reflect changes. Private Sub _saveRecordWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles _saveRecordWorker.DoWork Using MyContext As New RVShippingEntities Dim MyShipment = CType(ShipmentRecord, IEntityWithChangeTracker) MyShipment.SetChangeTracker(Nothing) MyContext.Attach(MyShipment) MyContext.Detach(ShipmentRecord) End Using End Sub The Refresh background worker is similar, but it has a Do While block to keep it from interfering with the save worker (which doesn't appear to be working; hence the post). When I save (and it subsequently refreshes) I get the following error: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it. I thought that with the DoWhile block, it would wait (and when i step through it does) until the save thread finished, and all would be good. But it would seem that something (either the main thread or the save thread) is still doing something that is interfering. Is there a better way of doing this? Am I doing it is a goofy kludgey fashion? Any help would be appreciated. (Apparently Firefox recognized kludgey as a word. Interesting)

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  • adding Json to mutable array resolves in crash

    - by user2957713
    Hello guys I am new to Xcode/iOS developing I trying to add json data to the mutable array , and it results in app crash :( so far here is my code: if(! [defaults objectForKey:@"Person1"]) [defaults setObject:[PersonsFromSearch objectAtIndex:index] forKey:@"Person1"]; else { NSMutableArray *Array = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; id object = [defaults objectForKey:@"Person1"]; Array = [object isKindOfClass:[NSArray class]] ? object : @[object]; [Array addObject:[PersonsFromSearch objectAtIndex:index]];//crash here :(( [Array moveObjectFromIndex:[Array count] toIndex:0]; } Crash Dump: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[__NSCFDictionary addObject:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0xbf98dc0' what is wrong here ? can you please help me to resolve this issue Array contains this (Json?) { Address = "\U05d3\U05e8\U05da \U05d4\U05e9\U05dc\U05d5\U05dd 53"; CellPhone = "052-3275381"; EMail = "[email protected]"; EnglishPerson = "Yehuda Konfortes"; FaceBookLink = ""; Fax1 = "03-7330703"; Fax2 = ""; FileNAme = "100050.jpg"; HomeEMail = ""; HomeFax = ""; HomePhone1 = ""; HomePhone2 = ""; PersonID = 100050; PersonName = "\U05d9\U05d4\U05d5\U05d3\U05d4 \U05e7\U05d5\U05e0\U05e4\U05d5\U05e8\U05d8\U05e1"; Phone1 = "03-7330733"; Phone2 = ""; ZipCode = ""; }

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  • App crashes every second time a tableview row is selected in navigation controller setup

    - by Thaurin
    Disclaimer first: I'm pretty new to Objective-C and the retain model. I've been developing in a garbage collected .NET environment for the last five years, so I've been spoiled. I'm still learning. I'm having my iPhone app crash with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. It happens in a navigtation controller/tableview setup. When I select a row the first time, no problems. It switches in the child controller without problems. I go back and select the same row again. Program then proceeds to crash. Every other row works fine, but every second time a row is accessed, it's a crash. I've pinpointed the location where this happens. The child controller (which is a class that I reuse for every row of the same type) that's being switched into has an array of NSString's representing the rows that will be displayed. I set it before pushing the child viewcontroller. It's there where this apparently happens. I'm having a hard time debugging this problem, still wrestling with xcode and all. I fear there may be some vital information missing here, but maybe there is something you recognize here.

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  • How do I call an Obj-C method from Javascript?

    - by gnfti
    Hi all, I'm developing a native iPhone app using Phonegap, so everything is done in HTML and JS. I am using the Flurry SDK for analytics and want to use the [FlurryAPI logEvent:@"EVENT_NAME"]; method to track events. Is there a way to do this in Javascript? So when tracking a link I would imagine using something like <a onClick="flurryTrackEvent("Click_Rainbows")" href="#Rainbows">Rainbows</a> <a onClick="flurryTrackEvent("Click_Unicorns")" href="#Unicorns">Unicorns</a> "FlurryAPI.h" has the following: @interface FlurryAPI : NSObject { } + (void)startSession:(NSString *)apiKey; + (void)logEvent:(NSString *)eventName; + (void)logEvent:(NSString *)eventName withParameters:(NSDictionary *)parameters; + (void)logError:(NSString *)errorID message:(NSString *)message exception:(NSException *)exception; + (void)setUserID:(NSString *)userID; + (void)setEventLoggingEnabled:(BOOL)value; + (void)setServerURL:(NSString *)url; + (void)setSessionReportsOnCloseEnabled:(BOOL)sendSessionReportsOnClose; @end I'm only interested in the logEvent method(s). If it's not clear by now, I'm comfortable with JS but a recovering Obj-C noob. I've read the Apple docs but the examples described there are all for newly declared methods and I imagine this could be simpler to implement because the Obj-C method(s) are already defined. Thank you in advance for any input.

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  • Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

    - by Matthew
    I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

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  • mysql row locking via php

    - by deezee
    I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

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  • How to create a platform ontop of CSLA? <-- if in case it make sense

    - by Peejay
    Hi all! here is the senario, i'm developing an application using csla 3.8 / c#.net, the application will have different modules. its like an ERP, it will have accounting, daily time record, recruitment etc as modules. Now the requirement is to check for common entities per module and build a "platform" (<- the boss calls it that way) from it. for example, DTR will have an entity "employee", Recruitment will have "Applicant" so one common entity that you can derive from both that can be put in the platform is "Person". "Person" will contain typical info like name, address, contact info etc. I know it sounds like OOP 101. the thing is, i dont know how i am to go about it. how i wish it was just a simple inheritance but the requirement is like to create an API of some sort to be used by the modules using CSLA. in csla you create smart objects right, inheriting from the base classes of csla like businessListbase, readonlylistbase etc. right? what if for example i created a businessbase Applicant class, it will have properties like salary demand, availability date etc. now for the personal info i will need the "Person" from the "platform" and implement it to the applicant class. so in summary i have several questions: how to create such platform? if such platform is possible, how will it be implemented on each module's entities? (im already inheriting from base clases of csla) if incase 1 and 2 are possible, does it have advantages on development and maintenace of the app? the reason why i'm asking #3 is because the way i see it, even if i am able to create a platform for that, i will be needing to define properties of the platform entity on my module entities so to have validation and all. im sorry if i'm typing nonesense i'm really confused. hope someone could enlighten me. thank you all!

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  • Installing django on dreamhost (help a newb out)

    - by augustfirst
    I'm trying to get django running on my dreahost account. I've been trying to sort of use two tutorials at once: the one on the dreamhost wiki and the one in the django book. I installed django using the script on the wiki page, but I ran into trouble immediately while trying to work through the django book. It says: To start the server, change into your project directory (cd mysite), if you haven’t already, and run this command: python manage.py runserver This launches the server locally, on port 8000, accessible only to connections from your own computer. Now that it’s running, visit 127.0.0.1:8000 with your Web browser. You’ll see a “Welcome to Django” page shaded in a pleasant pastel blue. It worked! Those instructions seem to assume that you're developing locally, not on a shared server. Where the heck am I supposed to look for the "Welcome to Django" page after starting the server? In my webroot? No dice. Anyway, I tried to blunder ahead through the django book to its hello world tutorial (chapter 3). But once I've edited the view file and the URLconf, I don't get a nice clean "hello world" text. Instead (as you can see) I get an "import error". Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

    - by Hown_
    I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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  • SWT Problem with MouseTrackListener and Shell

    - by Krt_Malta
    Hi! I'm developing an Eclipse plug-in and I have a problem which is reproduced in this small SWT application: public static void main(String[] args) { Display display = new Display(); Shell shell = new Shell(display); Text text = new Text(shell, SWT.MULTI | SWT.WRAP | SWT.READ_ONLY | SWT.V_SCROLL); text.setText("Hello"); shell.setLayout(new FillLayout()); shell.addMouseTrackListener(new MouseTrackListener() { public void mouseEnter(MouseEvent arg0) { System.out.println("mouseEnter"); } public void mouseExit(MouseEvent arg0) { System.out.println("mouseExit"); } public void mouseHover(MouseEvent arg0) { System.out.println("mouseHover"); } }); // Display the window shell.open(); while (!shell.isDisposed()) { if (!display.readAndDispatch()) { display.sleep(); } } display.dispose(); } As you can see I'm creating a shell and putting a Textbox inside it and putting it all across the shell. Then I attach a MouseTrackListener to the shell. The events don't fire (as in when I hover in the shell "mouseHover" is not printed etc). When I remove the Textbox the events fire. Can anyone tell me where the problem lies please? I don't want to attach a listener to the textbox but to the shell. I'll really appreciate the help because I've been trying to trace it for quite some time now. Thanks and regards, Krt_Malta

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  • In Visual Studio (2008) is there a way to have a custom dependent file on another custom file?

    - by rball
    Instead of a *.cs code behind or beside I'd like to have a *.js file. I'm developing a MVC application an have no need for a code beside because I have controllers, but in certain cases it'd be nice to have a JavaScript code beside or some way to associate the file to the page it's being used on. I suppose I could just name them similarly, but I'm wanting to show the association if possible so there's no question about what the file is for. Typically what I'm talking about is within Visual Studio now under your Global.asax file you will have a plus sign to the left: + Global.asax Once you expand it you'll get - Global.asax Global.asax.cs I'd like the same thing to happen: + Home.spark - Home.spark Home.spark.js Updated: My existing csproj file has a path to the actual file, not sure if that's screwing it up. I've currently got: <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark.js"> <DependentUpon>Views\User\Profile.spark</DependentUpon> </Content> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark" /> </ItemGroup> and it's simply just showing the files besides each other.

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  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

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  • Big trouble after app update. CoreData migration error

    - by MrBr
    this morning we had a big trouble with our iphone app. We had to even take it off the store. The thing is that we made real small changes to our xcdatamodel. We thought that the update process is automatically taking care about exchanging it the right way until we found out something like CoreData migration exists. We are using the UIManagedDocument to connect to the persistent store. How is it possible to exchange this file with the new one? While we were developing we just uninstalled the whole app from the device and then installed it again and everything worked. How can we simulate this process in the app store with updates? UPDATE I try to set the migration option like this _database = [[UIIManagedDocument alloc] init]; NSMutableDictionary *options = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [options setObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption], _database.persistentStoreOptions = options; but the app is still crashing with ** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'This NSPersistentStoreCoordinator has no persistent stores. It cannot perform a save operation.'

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  • Change default java installation

    - by user1501700
    I have many Java versions installed on a Windows 7 machine. Some of them are 32 bits, some are 64 bits. Now as default it starts one of those last versions (1.7 64 bits). How do I tell my Windows 7 machine to use another version of Java? One of the reasons is that I'm developing a JNI project from Microsoft Visual Studio C++ - it uses also java 1.7 64 bits. Best regards, Andrej I have set: User variable: JAVA_HOME=C:\j2sdk1.4.2_04 PATH=%JAVA_HOME%\bin;%PATH% and system variable: JAVA_HOME=C:\j2sdk1.4.2_04 PATH=...a_lot_of_paths...;%JAVA_HOME%\bin;%PATH% I had no idea which is better to set - for user or system settings. Done both. System restart. And...it didn't helped :( When I run "java -version" from cmd i have java 1.7, but not java 1.4 like defined in PATH. after run C:where java I got two results: C:\Windows\System32\java.exe C:\j2sdk1.4.2_04\bin\java.exe Who let Java go to my windows directory ???!!! How to deal with that?

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  • Lost in dates and timezones

    - by Sebastien
    I'm working on an application that stores conferences with their start and end date. Up until now, I was developing in Belgium and my server is in France, so everything is in the same timezone, no problem. But today, I'm in San Francisco, my server is in France and I noticed I have a bug. I'm setting dates from a Flex client (ActionScript automatically adapts date display according to client local timezone, which is GMT-8 for me today. My server runs on Hibernate and MySQL in France (GMT+1). So when I look at my database using phpMyAdmin, I see a date set to "2010-06-07 00:00:01" but in my Flex client it displays "2010-06-06 15:00:01". Ultimately, what I want is that the dates are displayed in the local timezone of the event, which is the date I set it to. So when I'm in Belgium and I set the start date of an event to be "2010-06-07 00:00:01" I want to retrieve it that way. But I'm lost as to what layer adapts what. Is timezone stored in DATETIME MySQL columns (I can't see it in MySQL)? Does Hibernate to anything to it when it transfers it to java.lang.Date that has Timezone information? And ultimately, what is the best way to solve this mess?

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  • Credit Card storage solution

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

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  • EPL (Eclipse Public Licence) for commercial usage

    - by code-gijoe
    Hi, I'm developing an application which requires a third party framework which is under an Eclipse Public Licence (EPL). The application is a server-side commercial application which will be running on my servers. The EPL software is distributed as binaries (jar files). I'm only using the packages and am not making any contribution, i.e. not making any changes to the source. Under EPL I believe I'm not a "Contributor" nor am I making a "Contribution". But if I want to make my software available to be installed at some offsite server I'm having trouble with REQUIREMENTS of EPL: b.iv - "states that source code for the Program is available from such Contributor, and informs licensees how to obtain it in a reasonable manner on or through a medium customarily used for software exchange". Does this mean that if I where to modify the source code of the 3rd party framework for my own purposes I would need to distribute all of my source code? EPL is supposed to be commercially friendly but it doesn't seem that way to me. Thank you.

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  • To use the 'I' prefix for interfaces or not to

    - by ng
    That is the question? So how big a sin is it not to use this convention when developing a c# project? This convention is widely used in the .NET class library. However, I am not a fan to say the least, not just for asthetic reasons but I don't think it makes any contribution. For example is IPSec an interface of PSec? Is IIOPConnection An interface of IOPConnection, I usually go to the definition to find out anyway. So would not using this convention cause confusion? Are there any c# projects or libraries of note that drop this convention? Do any c# projects that mix conventions, as unfortunately Apache Wicket does? The Java class libraries have existed without this for many years, I don't feel I have ever struggled to read code without it. Also, should the interface not be the most primitive description? I mean IList<T> as an interface for List<T> in c#, is it not better to have List<T> and LinkedList<T> or ArrayList<T> or even CopyOnWriteArrayList<T>? The classes describe the implementation? I think I get more information here, than I do from List<T> in c#.

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  • How to calculate commision based on referred memebrs?

    - by RAJKISHOR SAHU
    Hello everybody, I am developing a small software in C# WPF for a consultancy which does chain system business. I have coded tree structure to show who referred whom. Now it has commission depending on level. If 1 referred 2 & 3 then 1 will get level-1 commission. If 2 referred 4, 5 & 3 referred 6, 7 then 1 will receive level-2 commission. This chain will go on to certain total number. My problem is how I would implement this logic; I am able to calculate who has referred how many members via UDF written for adding TreeViewItem to TreeView. Or tell me how I can count items in treeview in certain level? Node adding UDF: public void AddNodes(int uid, TreeViewItem tSubNode) { string query = "select fullname, id from members where refCode=" + uid + ";"; MySqlCommand cmd = new MySqlCommand(query, db.conn); MySqlDataAdapter _DA = new MySqlDataAdapter(cmd); DataTable _DT = new DataTable(); tSubNode.IsExpanded = true; _DA.Fill(_DT); foreach (DataRow _dr in _DT.Rows) { TreeViewItem tNode = new TreeViewItem(); tNode.Header = _dr["fullname"].ToString()+" ("+_dr["id"].ToString()+")"; tSubNode.Items.Add(tNode); if (db.HasMembers(Convert.ToInt32(_dr["id"].ToString()))) { AddNodes(Convert.ToInt32(_dr["id"]), tNode); } } //This line tracks who has referred how many members Console.WriteLine("Tree node Count : "+tSubNode.Items.Count.ToString()+", UID "+uid); } Help me PLEASE!!!!

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  • VS 2008 debugger: How does it decide what Cassini port to run a web service under?

    - by BDW
    I have a VS 2008 solution that includes a web site and a web service. I'm developing both at once, and it's helpful to be able to debug from one into the other. It occasionally can't find the web service. If I look in the web.config, I find the port number it's looking at is not the port number it auto-runs the service in when I use the debugger. For example, the web.config reference says something like: add key="mynamespace.mywebservice" value="http://localhost:55765/mywebservice.asmx" When I hover over the Cassini port icon, I find that the web service is running in port 55382 (or some other non-55765 port). No wonder it can't find it. Is there a way to enforce that the port number it runs under is the one specified in the web config? And if it's not using the web config port number to figure out where to run it... where does it decide? I know in VS2005, there was a way to specify the port number to use when debugging, but I can't find that anywhere in the web service project in VS 2008. This is really going to cause problems as more developers come on to this project - how can I fix it? Deleting and re-adding the web services to the project fixes it, but I'd literally have to do it a couple times a day, not an ideal solution.

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  • Getting all selected checkboxes values using ajax and jsp/servlets?

    - by A.S al-shammari
    Hi.. I'm developing a jsp/serlvet application. I have a page with a list of inputs as checkboxes . I want to send values of selected buttons to a servlet using ajax/jquery. In the servlet , I want to extract these values and use them . for example: The user checks some checkboxes , for example, list of messages. He/She presses Delete Link to delete selected messages. I searched and found something like this : $("#inboxDeleteSelected").click(function(){ var data = { 'checkBoxList[]' : []}; var list=$(":input:checkbox:checked"); // getting all selected checkboxes. $(list.each(function() { data['checkBoxList[]'].push($(this).val()); })); $.post("servlet?do=deleteSelected",data,function(d){ // do something here }); }); My questions: How can I send selected checkboxes values to a servlet ? How can I extract these values in the servlet ? Note: I don't use submit button to submit the selected checkboxes,Indeed I use link/anchor to send those values .

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  • ASP.NET MVC Viewmodel trouble...

    - by ile
    I've already started similar topic, but still didn't find final solution... So here I am with new one :) ... I'm developing NerdDinner from scratch and now I came to point where I define DinnerViewModel. Following these instructions (starting from Listing 5) I came to this: namespace Nerd.Controllers { // View Model Classes public class DinnerViewModel { public DinnerViewModel(List<Dinner> dinners) { this.Dinners = dinners; } public List<Dinner> Dinners { get; private set; } } public class DinnerController : Controller { private DinnerRepository dinnerRepository = new DinnerRepository(); .... public ActionResult NewDinners() { // Create list of products var dinners = new List<Dinner>(); dinners.Add(new Dinner(/*Something to add*/)); // Return view return View(new DinnerViewModel(dinners)); } } } Also, the Dinner table in this new version of NerdDinner is a bit shortened (it contains of DinnerID, Title, EventDate and Description fields). No matter what I try to add here dinners.Add(new Dinner(/*Something to add*/)); I always get following error Error 1 'Nerd.Model.Dinner' does not contain a constructor that takes '1' arguments C:\Documents and Settings\ilija\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\Nerd\Nerd\Controllers\DinnerController.cs 150 25 Nerd Because I'm total beginner in C# and generally OOP, I have no idea what to do here... I suppose I need to declare a constructor, but how and where exactly? Thanks, Ile

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  • Modify the server side functions using jquery

    - by ant
    Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

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  • XSS attack prevention

    - by Colby77
    Hi, I'm developing a web app where users can response to blog entries. This is a security problem because they can send dangerous data that will be rendered to other users (and executed by javascript). They can't format the text they send. No "bold", no colors, no nothing. Just simple text. I came up with this regex to solve my problem: [^\\w\\s.?!()] So anything that is not a word character (a-Z, A-Z, 0-9), not a whitespace, ".", "?", "!", "(" or ")" will be replaced with an empty string. Than every quatation mark will be replaced with: "&quot". I check the data on the front end and I check it on my server. Is there any way somebody could bypass this "solution"? I'm wondering how StackOverflow does this thing? There are a lot of formatting here so they must do a good work with it.

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