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  • Problem using Flash Components in multiple SWC files

    - by Ken Dunnington
    [Edit: Short version - how do you properly handle namespace collisions in SWC files if one SWC has fewer classes from that namespace than another?] I have a rather large Flash application which I'm building in Flash Builder (because coding/debugging in the Flash IDE is... not good) and I've got a ton of external SWC files which I'm linking in to my application. This has worked well so far - the file size is on the large side, but it's a lot simpler than loading in SWFs, especially since I am extending most of the classes in each SWC and adding custom code that way (it's a very design-heavy app.) The problem I'm having is when I have Flash Components, like ComboBox or TextInput, in more than one SWC. Whichever SWC was compiled last will work fine, but the others will fail with errors like the following: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@1f21adc1 to fl.controls.TextInput. at flash.display::Sprite/constructChildren() at flash.display::Sprite() at flash.display::MovieClip() at com.company.design.login::LoginForm() at com.company.view::Login()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Login.as:22] at com.company.view::Main/showLogin()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Main.as:209] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at com.company.view::Navigation/handleUIClick()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Navigation.as:88] I've been researching components, ComponentShim, etc. but I'm running up against a brick wall. I thought it might be the fact that some of the components had their skins modified in the source FLA, so I tried replacing them with the default skins, but that didn't seem to help. How can I ensure that I have the components imported and available to all my classes, yet still be able to skin them and include them in my various FLAs? (I am never creating new instances of them, they are all laid out by my designer.)

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  • How to validate selects / inserts are hitting the right server with MySQL Master/Slave

    - by bwizzy
    I've got a rails app using the master_slave_adapter plugin (http://github.com/mauricio/master_slave_adapter/tree/master) to send all selects to a slave, and all other statements to the master. Replication is setup using Mysql master / slave. I'm trying to validate that all the SQL statements are indeed going to the right place. Selects to the slave (db2), inserts to the master (db1) but I'm not sure how to do it. I've tried using tcpdump on the webservers: sudo /usr/sbin/tcpdump -q -i eth0 dst port 3306 and this is the output for a page request with a ton of selects: 10:32:36.570930 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.576805 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.577201 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.577980 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 86 10:32:36.578186 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 21 10:32:36.578359 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 27 10:32:36.578522 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 5 10:32:36.578741 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 13 10:32:36.579611 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 29 10:32:36.588201 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.588323 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.588677 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.588784 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 86 It doesn't look like all the selects are going to the slave. Maybe this isn't the right way to test, anyone know a better way?

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  • How can I write a clean Repository without exposing IQueryable to the rest of my application?

    - by Simucal
    So, I've read all the Q&A's here on SO regarding the subject of whether or not to expose IQueryable to the rest of your project or not (see here, and here), and I've ultimately decided that I don't want to expose IQueryable to anything but my Model. Because IQueryable is tied to certain persistence implementations I don't like the idea of locking myself into this. Similarly, I'm not sure how good I feel about classes further down the call chain modifying the actual query that aren't in the repository. So, does anyone have any suggestions for how to write a clean and concise Repository without doing this? One problem I see, is my Repository will blow up from a ton of methods for various things I need to filter my query off of. Having a bunch of: IEnumerable GetProductsSinceDate(DateTime date); IEnumberable GetProductsByName(string name); IEnumberable GetProductsByID(int ID); If I was allowing IQueryable to be passed around I could easily have a generic repository that looked like: public interface IRepository<T> where T : class { T GetById(int id); IQueryable<T> GetAll(); void InsertOnSubmit(T entity); void DeleteOnSubmit(T entity); void SubmitChanges(); } However, if you aren't using IQueryable then methods like GetAll() aren't really practical since lazy evaluation won't be taking place down the line. I don't want to return 10,000 records only to use 10 of them later. What is the answer here? In Conery's MVC Storefront he created another layer called the "Service" layer which received IQueryable results from the respository and was responsible for applying various filters. Is this what I should do, or something similar? Have my repository return IQueryable but restrict access to it by hiding it behind a bunch of filter classes like GetProductByName, which will return a concrete type like IList or IEnumerable?

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  • How to best handle exception to repeating calendar events

    - by blcArmadillo
    I'm working on a project that will require me to implement a calendar. I'm trying to come up with a system that is very flexible: can handle repeating events, exceptions to repeats, etc. I've looked at the schema for applications like iCal, Lotus Notes, and Mozilla to get an idea of how to go about implementing such a system. Currently I'm having trouble deciding what is the best way to handle exceptions to repeating events. I've used databases quite a bit but don't have a ton of experience with really optimizing everything so I'm not sure which method of the two I'm considering would be optimal in terms of overall performance and ability to query/search: Breaking the repeating event. So taking the changing the ending date on the current row for the repeating event, inserting a new row with the exception, and adding another row continuing the old sequence. Simply adding an exception. So adding a new row with some field that indicates it as an override. So here is why I can't decide. Method one will result in a lot more rows since each edit requires 2 extra rows as apposed to only one row by the second method. On the other hand I think the query to find an event would be much simper, and thus possibly faster(?) using the first method. The second method seems like it will require more calculating on the application server since once you get the data you'll have to remove the intersection of the two rows. I know databases are often the bottleneck for websites and while I'm sure a lot of you are thinking either is fine because your project will probably never get large enough for the difference in efficiency to really matter, I'd still like to implement the best solution. So what method would you guys pick, or would you do something completely different? Also, as a side note I'll be using MySQL and PHP. If there is another technology that you think would be better suited for this, especially in the database area, please mention it. Thanks for the advice.

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  • Load Balance WCF and Share a Remote MSMQ for High Throughput

    - by BarDev
    After a ton of reading in books and on the web, I have noticed hints of information that WCF and MSMQ can be used in achieving high throughput. The information I have seen mentions using multiple WCF services in a farm that reads from a single MSMQ queue. The problem is that I have found paragraphs here and there that mentions that high throughput can be done, but I cannot seem to find a document of how to implement it. The following is an excerpt from a MSDN article. The following paragraph is from Best Practices for Queued Communication http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms731093.aspx To achieve higher throughput and availability, use a farm of WCF services that read from the queue. This requires that all of these services expose the same contract on the same endpoint. The farm approach works best for applications that have high production rates of messages because it enables a number of services to all read from the same queue. This is what I'm trying to solve. I have an intranet application where a client sends a request to a WCF service. But I want the ability to load balance the WCF services on multiple servers in a farm. I also want these WCF services in the farm to do transactional reads from a remote MSMQ when an item is available in the Queue. If this is possible, an issue I have is that I do not understand the activation process of WCF to retrieve messages from a remote queue. If this is possible, does anyone know of any articles or Webcasts that would explain it in detail? BarDev

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  • CSS Validation Warning: Same colors for color and background-color in two contexts

    - by TankDriver
    I am getting a ton of warnings like the ones listed below when I do a CSS validation check via http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/validator?uri=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.gamefriction.com%2FCoded&profile=css21&usermedium=all&warning=1&lang=en > 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > #blue_module and #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > .content ul li and #red_module_top 513 > Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > #footer_container and #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > ul.tabs li a.active and > #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts #content_960 and > #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts #content_main and > #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts .content and #red_module_top > 513 Same colors for color and > background-color in two contexts > #league_module select option and #red_module_top 513 Same colors for color and background-color in two > contexts #red_module and > #red_module_top Any ideas how to fix this? CSS file: gamefriction.com/Coded/css/style.css

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  • IE and absolute positioning divs

    - by kainaw
    This problem is only in IE. Consider the following HTML: <html> <body> <div style='position:absolute;left:1em;right:1em;top:1em;bottom:1em;overflow:auto;'> Put more than a full screen of text in here. It should create a scroll inside the div. In IE, it stretches the div out vertically. </div> </body> </html> If you put a ton of text in the div, IE will stretch the div out beyond the declared "bottom". I know what it is doing. It considers the bottom of the page to be the bottom of the page after all of the text has been rendered. I want bottom to be the bottom of the visible window. So, I want to have a div that is centered inside the window. Is there some retarded hack to make IE comprehend the basic concept of CSS?

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  • Extending Python and Objective-C

    - by chpwn
    I'm a fan of clean code. I like my languages to be able to express what I'm trying to do, but I like the syntax to mirror that too. For example, I work on a lot of programs in Objective-C for jailbroken iPhones, which patch other code using the method_setImplementation() function of the runtime. Or, in PyObjC, I have to use the syntax UIView.initWithFrame_(), which is also pretty awful and unreadable with the way the method names are structured. In both cases, the language does not support this in syntax. I've found three basic ways that this is done: Insane macros. Take a look at this "CaptainHook", it does what I'm looking for in a usable way, but it isn't quite clean and is a major hack. There's also "Logos", which implements a very nice syntax, but is written in Perl parsing my code with a ton of regular expressions. This scares me. I like the idea of adding a %hook ClassName, but not by using regular expressions to parse C or Objective-C. Finally, there is Cycript. This is an extension to JavaScript which interfaces with the Objective-C runtime and allows you to use Objective-C style code in your JavaScript, and inject that into other processes. This is likely the cleanest as it actually uses a parser for the JavaScript, but I'm not a huge fan of that language in general. Should, and how should, I create an extension to Python and Objective-C to allow me to do this? Is it worth writing a parser for my language to transform the syntax into something nicer, if it is only in a very specialized niche like this? Should I just live with the horrible syntax of the default Objective-C hooking or PyObjC?

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  • Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

    - by Bob Ralian
    I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

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  • XML validation error when using multiple schema files/namespaces

    - by user129609
    Hi, I've been reading a ton about xml and learning a lot but I am stuck on one error. I have a schema defined in multiple files and I can't get it to work. Here is an example ================================== libraryBooks.xsd <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsd:schema xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:MyNamespace" targetNamespace="urn:MyNamespace" elementFormDefault="qualified" > <xsd:element name="libraryBooks" type="libraryBooksType"/> <xsd:complexType name="libraryBooksType"> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:any minOccurs="0"/> </xsd:sequence> <xsd:attribute name="name" type="xsd:string"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:schema> ================================== book.xsd <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsd:schema xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:MyNamespace2" targetNamespace="urn:MyNamespace2" elementFormDefault="qualified" > <xsd:element name="book" type="booksType"/> <xsd:complexType name="bookType"> <xsd:attribute name="title" type="xsd:string"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:schema> ================================== myXml.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <libraryBooks xmlns="urn:MyNamespace" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:MyNamespace file:///C:/libraryBooks.xsd" name="CentralLibrary"> <mn2:book xmlns:mn2="file:///C:/book.xsd" title="How to make xml work the way I want"> </mn2:book> </libraryBooks> So the error I get would be "The 'file:///C:/book.xsd:book' element is not found". Any ideas? I'm almost certain it is something simple

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  • WPF TextBox Interceping RoutedUICommands

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    I am trying to get Undo/Redo keyboard shortcuts working in my WPF application (I have my own custom functionality implemented using the Command Pattern). It seems, however, that the TextBox control is intercepting my "Undo" RoutedUICommand. What is the simplest way to disable this so that I can catch Ctrl+Z at the root of my UI tree? I would like to avoid putting a ton of code/XAML into each TextBox in my application if possible. The following briefly demonstrates the problem: <Window x:Class="InputBindingSample.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:loc="clr-namespace:InputBindingSample" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="loc:Window1.MyUndo" Executed="MyUndo_Executed" /> </Window.CommandBindings> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Ctrl+Z Works If Focus Is Here" /> <TextBox Text="Ctrl+Z Doesn't Work If Focus Is Here" /> </StackPanel> </DockPanel> </Window> using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputBindingSample { public partial class Window1 { public static readonly RoutedUICommand MyUndo = new RoutedUICommand("MyUndo", "MyUndo", typeof(Window1), new InputGestureCollection(new[] { new KeyGesture(Key.Z, ModifierKeys.Control) })); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void MyUndo_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("MyUndo!"); } } }

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  • How do I log from inside my web application in Tomcat 6.

    - by Carlos
    How do I log from within my web application deployed on Tomcat 6? Where should I expect the logging output to go (internal tomcat log files, or will another logfile be generated)? I see a ton of documentation but am having a hard time finding a direct answer to the above questions. Where should I expect the logging to show up (currently it is log4j is not generating a log file and it is not showing up in my console). I am trying to follow http://www.laliluna.de/articles/log4j-tutorial.html . ### direct log messages to stdout ### log4j.appender.stdout=org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender log4j.appender.stdout.Target=System.out log4j.appender.stdout.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.stdout.layout.ConversionPattern=%d{ABSOLUTE} %5p %c{1}:%L - %m%n ### file appender log4j.appender.file=org.apache.log4j.RollingFileAppender log4j.appender.file.maxFileSize=100KB log4j.appender.file.maxBackupIndex=5 log4j.appender.file.File=test.log log4j.appender.file.threshold=info log4j.appender.file.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.file.layout.ConversionPattern=%d{ABSOLUTE} %5p %c{1}:%L - %m%n log4j.rootLogger=debug, stdout In my application I define a log object: private static org.apache.log4j.Logger log = Logger.getLogger(MyClass.class); log.error("LOGGING!"); Thanks for the help.

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  • Intern working for Indian NGO - Help with PHP 4, advising staff

    - by Kevin Burke
    Hello, For the past three months I've been working for an Indian NGO (http://sevamandir.org), doing some volunteer work in the field but also trying to improve their website, which needs a ton of work. Recently I've been trying to fix the "subscribe to newsletter" button, which is broken. I used filter_var to filter the email input, but when I tried to test this out I got an error. Then I learned that the web host is still using php version 4.3.2 and register_globals is turned on. I've mentioned that they should upgrade their web host before (they are paying around $50 per year for Rediff Web Hosting, complete with 100MB storage and 1 MySQL database). That would add a lot of complexity for the IT staff of 3, who would have to update everyone's email information (I assume? this is a 250-person organization), and have me find a new web host and teach them about it. The staff isn't that sophisticated about web usage - the head guy still uses IE6, and the website's laid out in tables (they use Dreamweaver WYSIWYG to lay out pages). So I've got two options - use regular expressions to filter the email, which I'm not that skilled at doing (and would be more vulnerable to exploitation after I leave), turn off register globals and then try to teach the staff what I'm doing, or try to get them to upgrade their versions of PHP and MySQL and/or change web host. I'd appreciate some advice. Thanks for your help, Kevin

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  • Why is my addSubview: method causing a leak?

    - by Nathan
    Okay, so I have done a ton of research on this and have been pulling my hair out for days trying to figure out why the following code leaks: [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; UIImage *comicImage = [self getCachedImage:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@%@",@"http://url/",comicNumber,@".png"]]; self.imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:comicImage] autorelease]; [self.scrollView addSubview:self.imageView]; self.scrollView.contentSize = self.imageView.frame.size; self.imageWidth = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",imageView.frame.size.width]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; Both self.imageView and self.scrollView are @propety (nonatomic, retain) and released in my dealloc.. imageView isn't used anywhere else in the code. This code is also run in a thread off of the main thread. If I run this code on my device, it will quickly run out of memory if I continually load this view. However, I've found if I comment out the following line: [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; UIImage *comicImage = [self getCachedImage:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@%@",@"http://url/",comicNumber,@".png"]]; self.imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:comicImage] autorelease]; //[self.scrollView addSubview:self.imageView]; self.scrollView.contentSize = self.imageView.frame.size; self.imageWidth = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",imageView.frame.size.width]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; Memory usage becomes stable, no matter how many times I load the view. I have gone over everything I can think to see why this is leaking, but as far as I can tell I have all my releases straight. Can anyone see what I am missing?

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  • Using httplib2 in python 3 properly? (Timeout problems)

    - by Sho Minamimoto
    Hey, first time post, I'm really stuck on httplib2. I've been reading up on it from diveintopython3.org, but it mentions nothing about a timeout function. I look up the documentation, but the only thing I see is an ability to put a timeout int but there are no units specified (seconds? milliseconds? What's the default if None?) This is what I have (I also have code to check what the response is and try again, but it's never tried more than once) h = httplib2.Http('.cache', timeout=None) for url in list: response, content = h.request(url) more stuff... So the Http object stays around until some arbitrary time, but I'm downloading a ton of pages from the same server, and after a while, it hangs on getting a page. No errors are thrown, the thing just hangs at a page. So then I try: h = httplib2.Http('.cache', timeout=None) for url in list: try: response, content = h.request(url) except: h = httplib2.Http('.cache', timeout=None) more stuff... But then it recreates another Http object every time (goes down the 'except' path)...I dont understand how to keep getting with the same object, until it expires and I make another. Also, is there a way to set a timeout on an individual request? Thanks for the help!

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  • Globally disabling FxCop errors in TeamCity

    - by Dave
    Ok, another FxCop question for today. I've read the arguments regarding the IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule, and whether or not it should be "XML" or "Xml". Well, I'm an "XML" guy and I want to stay that way. Therefore, I do not want FxCop to correct me all of the time. I have been using the SuppressMessage attribute only for specific cases. I have also used FxCop to mark a ton of errors and copied them as "module" level SuppressMessage statements into assemblyinfo.cs. That works pretty well. However, now I really want to globally disable this annoying IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule. I'm using TeamCity 5.0.3, and am not using an FxCop project file (however, I could do this). I was hoping that I could pass a parameter to FxCopCmd to tell it to ignore this error, but it doesn't look that way from the documentation. So... is there anything I can do short of creating an FxCop project file on the TeamCity build server and using it for the FxCop build runner?

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  • Socket errors of 10048 on the client? Possible causes?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I'm writing a custom TCP server and client and on doing a ton of requests (60,000 to be exact) I begin to get this socket error of 10048, which should mean "the address is already in use." The error keeps happening unless I pause the process for like 2 or 3 minutes and then begin it again, and then it begins to bring up the same error a short while after restarting it. If I pause the client process and restart the server process, I still get the same error on the client. So it is a complete client side problem. This does not make sense though, this error only usually occurs when binding and this error happens on the client and not the server. What could be the possible reasons for it? A small excerpt of my initialization: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(); client.Connect("XXXXX -- some ip", 25000); client.NoDelay = true; NetworkStream clientStream = client.GetStream(); Also, everything else seems to be working fine(including the amount of time it takes to send back and forth) and this works perfectly when using 127.0.0.1 but when putting it on another LAN computer I begin to get the 10048 error. Is there something wrong with how I initialize it? What else could cause this error on the client side?

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  • java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed; Causes and cures?

    - by IVR Avenger
    Hi, all. I've got an application running on Apache Tomcat 5.5 on a Win2k3 VM. The application serves up XML to be consumed by some telephony appliances as part of our IVR infrastructure. The application, in turn, receives its information from a handful of SOAP services. This morning, the SOAP services were timing out intermittently, causing all sorts of Exceptions. Once these stopped, I noticed that our application was still performing very slowly, in that it took it a long time to render and deliver pages. This sluggishness was noticed both on the appliances that consume the Tomcat output, and from a simple test of requesting some static documents from my web browser. Restarting Tomcat immediately resolved the issue. Cracking open the localhost log, I see a ton of these errors, right up until I restarted Tomcat: WARNING: Exception thrown whilst processing POSTed parameters java.net.SocketException: Software caused connection abort: recv failed After a big of Googling, my working theory is that the SOAP issue caused my users to get errors, which caused them to make more requests, which put an increased load on the application. This caused it to run out of available sockets to handle incoming requests. So, here's my quandary: 1. Is this a valid hypothesis, or am I just in over my head with HTTP and Tomcat? 2. If this is a valid hypothesis, is there a way to increase the size of the "socket queue", so that this doesn't happen in the future? Thanks! IVR Avenger

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  • Connecting to a network drive programmatically and caching credentials

    - by Chris Doggett
    I'm finally set up to be able to work from home via VPN (using Shrew as a client), and I only have one annoyance. We use some batch files to upload config files to a network drive. Works fine from work, and from my team lead's laptop, but both of those machines are on the domain. My home system is not, and won't be, so when I run the batch file, I get a ton of "invalid drive" errors because I'm not a domain user. The solution I've found so far is to make a batch file with the following: explorer \\MACHINE1 explorer \\MACHINE2 explorer \\MACHINE3 Then manually login to each machine using my domain credentials as they pop up. Unfortunately, there are around 10 machines I may need to use, and it's a pain to keep entering the password if I missed one that a batch file requires. I'm looking into using the answer to this question to make a little C# app that'll take the login info once and login programmatically. Will the authentication be shared automatically with Explorer, or is there anything special I need to do? If it does work, how long are the credentials cached? Is there an app that does something like this automatically? Unfortunately, domain authentication via the VPN isn't an option, according to our admin. EDIT: If there's a way to pass login info to Explorer via the command line, that would be even easier using Ruby and highline.

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  • What are the attack vectors for passwords sent over http?

    - by KevinM
    I am trying to convince a customer to pay for SSL for a web site that requires login. I want to make sure I correctly understand the major scenarios in which someone can see the passwords that are being sent. My understanding is that at any of the hops along the way can use a packet analyzer to view what is being sent. This seems to require that any hacker (or their malware/botnet) be on the same subnet as any of the hops the packet takes to arrive at its destination. Is that right? Assuming some flavor of this subnet requirement holds true, do I need to worry about all the hops or just the first one? The first one I can obviously worry about if they're on a public Wifi network since anyone could be listening in. Should I be worried about what's going on in subnets that packets will travel across outside this? I don't know a ton about network traffic, but I would assume it's flowing through data centers of major carriers and there's not a lot of juicy attack vectors there, but please correct me if I am wrong. Are there other vectors to be worried about outside of someone listening with a packet analyzer? I am a networking and security noob, so please feel free to set me straight if I am using the wrong terminology in any of this.

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  • Weird Issues with WPMU I Can't Figure Out

    - by HollerTrain
    I know I should post this on the WPMU forum, but no one writes me back and I'm just trying to find a larger audience hoping you have run into this issue as well. I have built a WPMU site for a client, and I am able to upload media into the Media Library and within a Post or Page perfectly. I thought my job was finished, yet the client can't upload any media at all. I'm located in Kentucky, they are located in New England (if that even matters). I had the client record their process of uploading as I thought they were simply not following my instructions for uploading, yet they are doing everything correctly. When uploading a file it goes through the process of allowing them to select a file and it says it uploads it, yet when it is finished uploading nothing is in the Media Library or in the Post. Video of the client trying to upload in Media Manager (http://www.screencast.com/users/CatherineWeber/folders/Jing/media/945d33fa-a752-45fd-9bc1-f76fc5a1814a) Video of the client trying to upload within a Post (http://www.screencast.com/users/CatherineWeber/folders/Jing/media/b5c60e25-f0b5-40c0-a820-c2fc9eb00906) Asking the client to disable Flash Uploader didn't work :( Yet, I can login to the WPMU site, access their blog's backend and can easily upload a ton of files. I am so lost at to what the issue is here. I am running version 2.8.4a, and will try to upgrade to latest release hoping this will fix things.

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  • How can I find out what is stopping my object from disposing properly?

    - by SLC
    I have a rather large and complex game in C#, and in it are various monsters. The monsters are created in the game by a MonsterCreator, and each monster has various plugins that are loaded from external DLLs. When my monsters die, they call a method in the MonsterCreator, and the MonsterCreator removes them from the game map, removes them from its own internal list of monsters, and then finally calls the Dispose() method on the monster itself. The dispose method calls the dispose method of each plugin, then clears up any of its own code. This seems to work fine, with lots of monsters, but somewhere there is a bug that crops up after a while, where a monster dies, but it has already been removed - it seems the callback telling the MonsterCreator is being called over and over, when the monster should have been removed on the first call. The likely candidate is that some of the plugins for the monster register themselves with an Event that pulses them every X number of seconds so they can perform logic. Stepping through I can see that they are unregistering with the Event when they die, but something is getting through still and I don't know what it is. Do you have any advice for debugging the problem? I can't post code really because it's split across a ton of libraries and plugin dlls, so it's more a case of figuring out the best way to debug it. I threw an exception in code when the monster died callback method is thrown and the monster cannot be found on the map to be removed, so I have the misbehaviing Monster, is there a way I can see what is still linked to it?

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  • Silverlight Data Access - how to keep the gruntwork on the server

    - by akaphenom
    What technologies are used / recommended for HTTP Rpc Calls from Silverlight. My Server Side stack is JBoss (servlets / json_rpc [jabsorb]), and we have a ton of business logic (object creation, validation, persistence, server side events) in place that I still want to take advantage of. This is our first attempt at bringing an applet style ria to our product, and ideally we keep both HTML and Silverlight versions. For better or worse the powers that be have pushed us down the silverlight path, and while flex / java fx / silverlight is an interesting debate, that question is removed from the equation. We just have to find a way to get silverlight to behave with our classes. Should I be defining .NET Class representation of our JSON objects and the methodology to serialize / deserialize access to those objects? IE "blah.com/dispenseRpc?servlet=xxxx&p1=blah&p2=blahblah creating functions that invoke the web request and convert the incomming response string to objects? Another way would be to reverse engineer the .NET wcf(or whatever) communications and implement the handler on the Java side that invokes the correct server side code and returns what .NET expects back. But that sounds much trickier. T

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  • Generating code -- is there an easy way to get a proper string representation of nullable type?

    - by Cory Larson
    So I'm building an application that is going to do a ton of code generation with both C# and VB output (depending on project settings). I've got a CodeTemplateEngine, with two derived classes VBTemplateEngine and CSharpTemplateEngine. This question regards creating the property signatures based on columns in a database table. Using the IDataReader's GetSchemaTable method I gather the CLR type of the column, such as "System.Int32", and whether it IsNullable. However, I'd like to keep the code simple, and instead of having a property that looks like: public System.Int32? SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; } or public Nullable<System.Int32> SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; }, where the property type would be resolved with this function (from my VBTemplateEngine), public override string ResolveCLRType(bool? isNullable, string runtimeType) { Type type = TypeUtils.ResolveType(runtimeType); if (isNullable.HasValue && isNullable.Value == true && type.IsValueType) { return "System.Nullable(Of " + type.FullName + ")"; // or, for example... return type.FullName + "?"; } else { return type.FullName; } }, I would like to generate a simpler property. I hate the idea of building a Type string from nothing, and I would rather have something like: public int? SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; } Is there anything built-in anywhere, such as in the VBCodeProvider or CSharpCodeProvider classes that would somehow take care of this for me? Or is there a way to get a type alias of int? from a type string like System.Nullable'1[System.Int32]? Thanks!

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  • asp.net mvc - reusing pages/controllers in workflow

    - by fregas
    I have 2 workflows: 1) the user signs up for the first time. They see 3 different screens, their basic user information, their credit card, and some additional profile information. They complete these 3 steps in a wizard like fashion, where each time they hit "submit" they leave the current screen and move on to the next. 2) the user already is signed up. He has links in the navigation to these 3 seperate pages. He can update them in any order. When he hits save, he doesn't leave the page he's on, it just shows something at the top that says "Credit Card Info saved..." or whatever. Possibly using ajax or maybe a full page refresh. I would like to reuse the code not only the view but also in the controller for these 3 screens between the two workflows, but without a ton of if...then logic to determine where to go next depending on whether its a first signup in the wizard or updating individual parts of a profile. Any ideas?

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