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  • What is the best database structure for this scenario?

    - by Ricketts
    I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

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  • VS2010 renders controls JS awkwardly

    - by Juergen Hoffmann
    I have created a Website Project in VS2010. My Controls are not rendered correctly. The JS that is produced is not correctly formatted. Here is an example: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { objListBox.Attributes.Add("onchange", "Control_doPostBack('" + objListBox.ClientID + "','ListBox_OnClick'); return false;"); objListBox.Attributes.Add("onblur", "Control_doPostBack('" + trListbox.ClientID + "','ListBox_OnBlur'); return false;"); img.Attributes.Add("onclick", "Control_doPostBack('" + trListbox.ClientID + "','IMG_OnClick'); return false;"); } } and the responding control is rendered as: <select size="4" name="ctl00$PlaceHolder_Content$drop$objListBox" onchange="Control_doPostBack(&#39;PlaceHolder_Content_drop_objListBox&#39;,&#39;ListBox_OnClick&#39;); return false;setTimeout(&#39;__doPostBack(\&#39;ctl00$PlaceHolder_Content$drop$objListBox\&#39;,\&#39;\&#39;)&#39;, 0)" id="PlaceHolder_Content_drop_objListBox" onblur="Control_doPostBack(&#39;PlaceHolder_Content_drop_trListbox&#39;,&#39;ListBox_OnBlur&#39;); return false;" style="position:absolute;"> </select> As you can see, the ' are rendered to &#39 which screwes up the Browser. Is there a tweak to msbuild or inside the project properties? Any help is highly appreciated.

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  • ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

    - by zoopzoop
    I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

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  • How to keep your unit test Arrange step simple and still guarantee DDD invariants ?

    - by ian31
    DDD recommends that the domain objects should be in a valid state at any time. Aggregate roots are responsible for guaranteeing the invariants and Factories for assembling objects with all the required parts so that they are initialized in a valid state. However this seems to complicate the task of creating simple, isolated unit tests a lot. Let's assume we have a BookRepository that contains Books. A Book has : an Author a Category a list of Bookstores you can find the book in These are required attributes : a book has to have an author, a category and at least a book store you can buy the book from. There's likely to be a BookFactory since it is quite a complex object, and the Factory will initialize the Book with at least all the mentioned attributes. Now we want to unit test a method of the BookRepository that returns all the Books. To test if the method returns the books, we have to set up a test context (the Arrange step in AAA terms) where some Books are already in the Repository. If the only tool at our disposal to create Book objects is the Factory, the unit test now also uses and is dependent on the Factory and inderectly on Category, Author and Store since we need those objects to build up a Book and then place it in the test context. Would you consider this is a dependency in the same way that in a Service unit test we would be dependent on, say, a Repository that the Service would call ? How would you solve the problem of having to re-create a whole cluster of objects in order to be able to test a simple thing ? How would you break that dependency and get rid of all these attributes we don't need in our test ? By using mocks or stubs ? If you mock up things a Repository contains, what kind of mock/stubs would you use as opposed to when you mock up something the object under test talks to or consumes ?

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  • How to keep your unit tests simple and isolated and still guarantee DDD invariants ?

    - by ian31
    DDD recommends that the domain objects should be in a valid state at any time. Aggregate roots are responsible for guaranteeing the invariants and Factories for assembling objects with all the required parts so that they are initialized in a valid state. However this seems to complicate the task of creating simple, isolated unit tests a lot. Let's assume we have a BookRepository that contains Books. A Book has : an Author a Category a list of Bookstores you can find the book in These are required attributes : a book has to have an author, a category and at least a book store you can buy the book from. There's likely to be a BookFactory since it is quite a complex object, and the Factory will initialize the Book with at least all the mentioned attributes. Now we want to unit test a method of the BookRepository that returns all the Books. To test if the method returns the books, we have to set up a test context (the Arrange step in AAA terms) where some Books are already in the Repository. If the only tool at our disposal to create Book objects is the Factory, the unit test now also uses and is dependent on the Factory and inderectly on Category, Author and Store since we need those objects to build up a Book and then place it in the test context. Would you consider this is a dependency in the same way that in a Service unit test we would be dependent on, say, a Repository that the Service would call ? How would you solve the problem of having to re-create a whole cluster of objects in order to be able to test a simple thing ? How would you break that dependency and get rid of all these attributes we don't need in our test ? By using mocks or stubs ? If you mock up things a Repository contains, what kind of mock/stubs would you use as opposed to when you mock up something the object under test talks to or consumes ?

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  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

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  • Py_INCREF/DECREF: When

    - by Izz ad-Din Ruhulessin
    Is one correct in stating the following: If a Python object is created in a C function, but the function doesn't return it, no INCREF is needed, but a DECREF is. [false]If the function does return it, you do need to INCREF, in the function that receives the return value.[/false] When assigning C typed variables as attributes, like double, int etc., to the Python object, no INCREF or DECREF is needed. Assigning Python objects as attributes to your other Python objects goes like this: PyObject *foo; foo = bar // A Python object tmp = self->foo; Py_INCREF(foo); self->foo = foo; Py_XDECREF(tmp); //taken from the manual, but it is unclear if this works in every situation EDIT: -- can I safely use this in every situation? (haven't run into one where it caused me problems) dealloc of a Python object needs to DECREF for every other Python object that it has as an attribute, but not for attributes that are C types. Edit With 'C type as an attribute I mean bar and baz: typedef struct { PyObject_HEAD PyObject *foo; int bar; double baz; } FooBarBaz;

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  • Passing arguments and values from HTML to jQuery (events)

    - by Jaroslav Moravec
    What is the practice to pass arguments from HTML to jQuery events function. For example getting id of row from db: <tr class="jq_killMe" id="thisItemId-id"> ... </tr> and jQuery: $(".jq_killMe").click(function () { var tmp = $(this).attr('id).split("-"); var id = tmp[0] // ... } What's the best practise, if I want to pass more than one argument? Is it better not to use jQuery? For example: <tr onclick="killMe('id')"> ... </tr> I didn't find the answer on my question, I will be glad even for links. Thanks. Edit (pre solution) So you suggested two methods to do that: Add custom attributes to element (XHTML) Use attribute ID and parse it by regex Attribute data-* attributes in HTML5 Use hidden children elements I like first solution, but... I would like to (I have to (employer)) produce valid code. Here is a nice question and answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/994856/so-what-if-custom-html-attributes-arent-valid-xhtml And the second is not so pretty as the first, but valid. So the compromise is... The third is the solution for future, but here is a lot of CMS where we have to use XHTML or HTML4. (And HTML5 is the long process)

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  • XPath ordered priority attribute search

    - by user94000
    I want to write an XPath that can return some link elements on an HTML DOM. The syntax is wrong, but here is the gist of what I want: //web:link[@text='Login' THEN_TRY @href='login.php' THEN_TRY @index=0] THEN_TRY is a made-up operator, because I can't find what operator(s) to use. If many links exist on the page for the given set of [attribute=name] pairs, the link which matches the most left-most attribute(s) should be returned instead of any others. For example, consider a case where the above example XPath finds 3 links that match any of the given attributes: link A: text='Sign In', href='Login.php', index=0 link B: text='Login', href='Signin.php', index=15 link C: text='Login', href='Login.php', index=22 Link C ranks as the best match because it matches the First and Second attributes. Link B ranks second because it only matches the First attribute. Link A ranks last because it does not match the First attribute; it only matches the Second and Third attributes. The XPath should return the best match, Link C. If more than one link were tied for "best match", the XPath should return the first best link that it found on the page.

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  • Concept: Is mongo right for applying schemas?

    - by Jan
    I am currently in charge of checking wether it is valuable for one of our upcoming products to be developed on mongo. Without going too much into detail, I'll try to explain, what the app does. The app simply has "entities". These entities are technical stuff, like cell phones, TVs, Laptops, tablet pcs, and so forth. Of course, a cell phone has other attributes than a Tablet PCs and a Laptop has even other attributes, like RAM, CPU, display size and so on. Now I want to have something that we wanna call a scheme: We define that we need to have saved the display size, amount of ram size of flash devices, processor type, processor speed and so on for tablet pcs. For cell phone we might save display size, GSM, Edge, 3g, 4g, processor, ram, touch screen technology, bla bla bla. I think you got it :) What I want to realize is, that each "category" has a schema and when one of the system's users enters a new product (let's say the new iphone 4), the app constructs the form to be filled out with the appropriate attributes. So far it sounds nice and should not be a problem with mongo. But now the tough for which I could not find a clean solution.... An attribute modeled in mongo looks like: { _id: 1234456, name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description" } But what to do, if i need this attribute in several languages, like: { en: {name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description"}, de: {name: "Name des Attributs, type: 0, "Beschreibung"} } I also need to ensure that the german attribute gets updated as soon as the english gets updated, for instance when type changes from 0 to 1. Any ideas on that?

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  • Modules vs. Classes and their influence on descendants of ActiveRecord::Base

    - by Chris
    Here's a Ruby OO head scratcher for ya, brought about by this Rails scenario: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many(:prices) # define private helper methods end module PrintProduct attr_accessor(:isbn) # override methods in ActiveRecord::Base end class Book < Product include PrintProduct end Product is the base class of all products. Books are kept in the products table via STI. The PrintProduct module brings some common behavior and state to descendants of Product. Book is used inside fields_for blocks in views. This works for me, but I found some odd behavior: After form submission, inside my controller, if I call a method on a book that is defined in PrintProduct, and that method calls a helper method defined in Product, which in turn calls the prices method defined by has_many, I'll get an error complaining that Book#prices is not found. Why is that? Book is a direct descendant of Product! More interesting is the following.. As I developed this hierarchy PrintProduct started to become more of an abstract ActiveRecord::Base, so I thought it prudent to redefine everything as such: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base end class PrintProduct < Product end class Book < PrintProduct end All method definitions, etc. are the same. In this case, however, my web form won't load because the attributes defined by attr_accessor (which are "virtual attributes" referenced by the form but not persisted in the DB) aren't found. I'll get an error saying that there is no method Book#isbn. Why is that?? I can't see a reason why the attr_accessor attributes are not found inside my form's fields_for block when PrintProduct is a class, but they are found when PrintProduct is a Module. Any insight would be appreciated. I'm dying to know why these errors are occurring!

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  • How can I extend a LINQ-to-SQL class without having to make changes every time the code is generated

    - by csharpnoob
    Hi, Update from comment: I need to extend linq-to-sql classes by own parameters and dont want to touch any generated classes. Any better suggestes are welcome. But I also don't want to do all attributes assignments all time again if the linq-to-sql classes are changing. so if vstudio generates new attribute to a class i have my own extended attributes kept separate, and the new innerited from the class itself Original question: i'm not sure if it's possible. I have a class car and a class mycar extended from class car. Class mycar has also a string list. Only difference. How can i cast now any car object to a mycar object without assigning all attributes each by hand. Like: Car car = new Car(); MyCar mcar = (MyCar) car; or MyCar mcar = new MyCar(car); or however i can extend car with own variables and don't have to do always Car car = new Car(); MyCar mcar = new MyCar(); mcar.name = car.name; mcar.xyz = car.xyz; ... Thanks.

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  • Speed comparison - Template specialization vs. Virtual Function vs. If-Statement

    - by Person
    Just to get it out of the way... Premature optimization is the root of all evil Make use of OOP etc. I understand. Just looking for some advice regarding the speed of certain operations that I can store in my grey matter for future reference. Say you have an Animation class. An animation can be looped (plays over and over) or not looped (plays once), it may have unique frame times or not, etc. Let's say there are 3 of these "either or" attributes. Note that any method of the Animation class will at most check for one of these (i.e. this isn't a case of a giant branch of if-elseif). Here are some options. 1) Give it boolean members for the attributes given above, and use an if statement to check against them when playing the animation to perform the appropriate action. Problem: Conditional checked every single time the animation is played. 2) Make a base animation class, and derive other animations classes such as LoopedAnimation and AnimationUniqueFrames, etc. Problem: Vtable check upon every call to play the animation given that you have something like a vector<Animation>. Also, making a separate class for all of the possible combinations seems code bloaty. 3) Use template specialization, and specialize those functions that depend on those attributes. Like template<bool looped, bool uniqueFrameTimes> class Animation. Problem: The problem with this is that you couldn't just have a vector<Animation> for something's animations. Could also be bloaty. I'm wondering what kind of speed each of these options offer? I'm particularly interested in the 1st and 2nd option because the 3rd doesn't allow one to iterate through a general container of Animations. In short, what is faster - a vtable fetch or a conditional?

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  • Show only div of the product hovering in category grid with jQuery

    - by Dane
    On Magento, I'm trying to get avalable attributes per product in a new div (show/ hide onmouseover) as soon as I hover a product. Unfortunately, my jQuery code opens every div with the same name. I think, I need to do it with jQuery(this) but I tried it in a 1000 different ways, and it won't work. Maybe, somebody here can help me with a better code. jQuery(function() { jQuery('.slideDiv').hide().data('over', false); jQuery('#hover').hover(function() { jQuery('.slideDiv').fadeIn(); }, function() { // Check if mouse did not go over .dialog before hiding it again var timeOut = setTimeout(function() { if (!jQuery('.slideDiv').data('over')) { jQuery('.slideDiv').fadeOut(); clearTimeout(timeOut); } }, 100); }); // Set data for filtering on mouse events for #hover-here jQuery('.slideDiv').hover(function() { jQuery(this).data('over', true); }, function() { jQuery(this).fadeOut().data('over', false); }); }); The PHP just prints the attributes needed. <a href="#" id="hover">Custom Attributes</a> <div class="slideDiv"> <?php $attrs = $_product->getTypeInstance(true)->getConfigurableAttributesAsArray($_product); foreach($attrs as $attr) { if(0 == strcmp("shoe_size", $attr['attribute_code'])) { $options = $attr['values']; print "Größen:<br />"; foreach($options as $option) { print "{$option['store_label']}<br />"; } } } ?> </div> I added the script to [new link] http://jsfiddle.net/xsxfr/47/ so you can see there, that it is not working like this right now :(.

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  • How to get attribute value using SelectSingleNode in C#?

    - by Nano HE
    Hello. I am parsing a xml document, I need find out the gid (an attribute) value (3810). Based on SelectSingleNode(). I found it is not easy to find the attribute name and it's value. Can I use this method or I must switch to other way. Attached my code. How can I use book obj to get the attribute value3810 for gid. Thank you. My test.xml file as below <?xml version="1.0"?> <root> <VersionInfo date="2007-11-28" version="1.0.0.2"/> <Attributes> <AttrDir name="EFEM" DirID="1"> <AttrDir name="Aligner" DirID="2"> <AttrDir name="SequenceID" DirID="3"> <AttrObj text="Slot01" gid="3810" unit="" scale="1"/> <AttrObjCount value="1"/> </AttrDir> </AttrDir> </AttrDir> </Attributes> </root> I wrote the test.cs as below public class Sample { public static void Main() { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load("test.xml"); XmlNode book; XmlNode root = doc.DocumentElement; book = root.SelectSingleNode("Attributes[AttrDir[@name='EFEM']/AttrDir[@name='Aligner']/AttrDir[@name='SequenceID']/AttrObj[@text='Slot01']]"); Console.WriteLine("Display the modified XML document...."); doc.Save(Console.Out); } }

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  • Refactoring two methods down to one

    - by bflemi3
    I have two methods that almost do the same thing. They get a List<XmlNode> based on state OR state and schoolType and then return a distinct, ordered IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string,string>>. I know they can be refactored but I'm struggling to determine what type the parameter should be for the linq statement in the return of the method (the last line of each method). I thank you for your help in advance. private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getAreaDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(STATE_AND_SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, StateOfInterest, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["idLocation"].Value, x.Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); } private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getStateOfInterestDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["stateCode"].Value, x.Attributes["stateName"].Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); }

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  • Rails - Beginner wants feedback on how they've modeled their app and how to do it better.

    - by adam
    I think the way I've modelled my app is a bit fishy and i need to rejig things, im just not sure how. I've already re-jigged and refactored before. It took a long time ( I'm a beginner ) and I'm hesitant to it again in case i head off in the wrong direction again. Basic Idea, user can submit an answer, another user can mark it correct or incorrect. If incorrect they have to write the correct answer. Users can view their and everybody else's correct and incorrect answers. So I did it this way class Answer has_one: correction end class Correction belongs_to :answer end when a user marks an answer as correct, I set checked_at:DateTime and checked_by_id:integer on the Answer object to keep track of who checked the answer and when. For incorrect answers I create a correction object which holds the correct answer and again checked_by and checked_at details. I don't like this because I have checked_by and checked_at in both models. It just doesn't sit right. Possible solutions are: Create a third model such as VerifiedAnswer and move the checked_by/at attributes to that. It will handle the situtation where an answer is marked correct. Or are these models thin enough (they dont have any other attributes) that I can just have one model ( Answer ) that has all the attributes to store all this information?

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  • Python "callable" attribute (pseudo-property)

    - by mgilson
    In python, I can alter the state of an instance by directly assigning to attributes, or by making method calls which alter the state of the attributes: foo.thing = 'baz' or: foo.thing('baz') Is there a nice way to create a class which would accept both of the above forms which scales to large numbers of attributes that behave this way? (Shortly, I'll show an example of an implementation that I don't particularly like.) If you're thinking that this is a stupid API, let me know, but perhaps a more concrete example is in order. Say I have a Document class. Document could have an attribute title. However, title may want to have some state as well (font,fontsize,justification,...), but the average user might be happy enough just setting the title to a string and being done with it ... One way to accomplish this would be to: class Title(object): def __init__(self,text,font='times',size=12): self.text = text self.font = font self.size = size def __call__(self,*text,**kwargs): if(text): self.text = text[0] for k,v in kwargs.items(): setattr(self,k,v) def __str__(self): return '<title font={font}, size={size}>{text}</title>'.format(text=self.text,size=self.size,font=self.font) class Document(object): _special_attr = set(['title']) def __setattr__(self,k,v): if k in self._special_attr and hasattr(self,k): getattr(self,k)(v) else: object.__setattr__(self,k,v) def __init__(self,text="",title=""): self.title = Title(title) self.text = text def __str__(self): return str(self.title)+'<body>'+self.text+'</body>' Now I can use this as follows: doc = Document() doc.title = "Hello World" print (str(doc)) doc.title("Goodbye World",font="Helvetica") print (str(doc)) This implementation seems a little messy though (with __special_attr). Maybe that's because this is a messed up API. I'm not sure. Is there a better way to do this? Or did I leave the beaten path a little too far on this one? I realize I could use @property for this as well, but that wouldn't scale well at all if I had more than just one attribute which is to behave this way -- I'd need to write a getter and setter for each, yuck.

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  • Vista Power Management GPO

    - by Matt
    Hi, I've created a loopback GPO that has several settings (both computer and user) including a Custom User Interface (Access 2007 Application) and Power Management (has the computer sleep after being idle for 2 min). I'm also filtering so that this policy does not apply to "Admins" - only to "Users". The problem I'm having is when the "Users" login the Power Management settings don’t work, but they do for "Admins". For testing I'm allowing the "Users" to launch Task Manager and use the Run line, so I'll run Explorer and look at Power Management and it shows the settings from my GPO. So I created a test OU with copies of the aforementioned GPO, but removed the Custom User Interface and found the Power Management settings do work for both the "Users" and "Admins". When I add the Custom UI the Power Management settings break for the "User" but continue to work for "Admins". Do the Power Management options need to have User Interface be "Explorer.exe"? Is this a bug or am I doing this the wrong way? BTW the tablets are using Vista SP2. Any insight or advice would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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  • Web Deploy 3.0 Installation Fails

    - by jkarpilo
    I am having difficulty installing Microsoft Web Deploy 3.0 to a Windows Server 2008 R2 box. I have tried installing with both the Web Platform Installer and the MSI package but installation fails while trying to execute the MSI custom action ExecuteRegisterUIModuleCA. This server is a VM and a member of a farm but shared config is disabled while I'm installing. Here's the point at which it fails in the MSI log (starting at line 1875): MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:358]: Executing op: ActionStart(Name=IISBeginTransactionCA,,) MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:374]: Executing op: CustomActionSchedule(Action=IISBeginTransactionCA,ActionType=3073,Source=BinaryData,Target=IISBeginTransactionCA,) MSI (s) (80:A8) [15:29:01:374]: Invoking remote custom action. DLL: C:\Windows\Installer\MSI6C6A.tmp, Entrypoint: IISBeginTransactionCA MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:436]: Executing op: ActionStart(Name=IISRollbackTransactionCA,,) MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:436]: Executing op: CustomActionSchedule(Action=IISRollbackTransactionCA,ActionType=3329,Source=BinaryData,Target=IISRollbackTransactionCA,) MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:436]: Executing op: ActionStart(Name=IISCommitTransactionCA,,) MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:436]: Executing op: CustomActionSchedule(Action=IISCommitTransactionCA,ActionType=3585,Source=BinaryData,Target=IISCommitTransactionCA,) MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:436]: Executing op: ActionStart(Name=IISExecuteCA,,) MSI (s) (80:FC) [15:29:01:452]: Executing op: CustomActionSchedule(Action=IISExecuteCA,ActionType=3073,Source=BinaryData,Target=IISExecuteCA,CustomActionData=1^3^21^WebDeployment_Current^154^Microsoft.Web.Deployment.UI.PackagingModuleProvider, Microsoft.Web.Deployment.UI.Server, Version=9.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35^1^1^0^^1^3^28^DelegationManagement_Current^171^Microsoft.Web.Management.Delegation.DelegationModuleProvider, Microsoft.Web.Management.Delegation.Server, Version=9.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35^1^1^0^^1^7^38^system.webServer/management/delegation^4^Deny^16^MachineToWebRoot^0^^3^yes^1^7^31^system.webServer/wdeploy/backup^4^Deny^20^MachineToApplication^0^^2^no^) MSI (s) (80:84) [15:29:01:452]: Invoking remote custom action. DLL: C:\Windows\Installer\MSI6CB9.tmp, Entrypoint: IISExecuteCA 1: IISCA IISExecuteCA : Begin CA Setup 1: IISCA IISExecuteCA : CA 'ExecuteRegisterUIModuleCA' completed with return code hr=0x8007000d 1: IISCA IISExecuteCA : CA 'IISExecuteCA' completed with return code hr=0x8007000d 1: IISCA IISExecuteCA : End CA Setup CustomAction IISExecuteCA returned actual error code 1603 (note this may not be 100% accurate if translation happened inside sandbox) Action ended 15:29:05: InstallFinalize. Return value 3. I can't seem to find any information regarding this particular issue; can someone help point me in the right direction?

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  • How can I set up a 404 error page when people access http://ftp.mydomain.com?

    - by Tim B.
    I am a freelance videographer/developer, and part of my job involves transferring large files over FTP to production houses/television stations. While the majority of people in my industry understand the difference between FTP and HTTP, I've experienced several interactions in the past couple months of people who still open Internet Explorer and try to access http://ftp.mydomain.com, receive an error page served by HostGator, and tell me that they cannot access my FTP server. Instead of spending time delivering instructions via e-mail, I'd much prefer to serve up a custom error page in this instance that instructs them how to download and use an FTP client. I tried setting up a sub-domain in Cpanel hoping I could simply drop in an .htaccess file with the error page, but I got this error: ftp.mydomain.com domainadmin-domainexistsglobal I also tried creating a custom error page in PHP which reads the site URL and serves up the custom content only when http://ftp.mydomain.com is accessed. Unfortunately, the error page works for every subdomain except that one. I'm not entirely sure this is even technically possible, which is why I bring it to the good people of StackOverflow to help. Thanks!

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  • BizTalk configuration broken following WCF hotfix installation

    - by Sir Crispalot
    I usually post over on StackOverflow, but thought this was probably better suited to ServerFault. Please migrate if I'm wrong! I am developing a WCF service and a BizTalk application on my workstation at the moment. As part of the WCF service, I had to install hotfix 971493 from Microsoft which updates some core WCF assemblies. Following installation of that hotfix, I am now experiencing severe issues in my existing BizTalk application. When I attempt to configure the properties of an existing WCF-Custom receive location, I get this error: Error loading properties (System.IO.FileLoadException) The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040) If I click OK (the same error repeats four times) I eventually see the WCF-Custom properties dialog. However if I click on the various tabs, I continue to receive errors: The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040) (Microsoft.BizTalk.Adapter.Wcf.Admin) The WCF-Custom receive location was working yesterday, and I installed the hotfix this morning. I'm guessing these two are related, and that BizTalk somehow has a reference to the old WCF assemblies. Does anyone know how I can fix this?

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  • Apache mod_proxy with SSL not redirecting

    - by simonszu
    I have a custom server running behind an apache reverse proxy. Since the custom server can only handle HTTP traffic, i am trying to use apache for wrapping proper SSL around it, and for some kind of HTTP authentication. So i enabled mod_proxy and mod_ssl and modified sites-available/default-ssl. The config is as following: <Location /server> order deny,allow allow from all AuthType Basic AuthName "Please log in" AuthUserFile /etc/apache2/htpasswd Require valid-user ProxyPass http://192.168.1.102:8181/server ProxyPassReverse http://192.168.1.102:8181/server </Location> The custom server is accessible from the internal network via the location specified in the ProxyPass directive. However, when the proxy is accessed from the outside, it presents the login prompt, and after successfully authenticated, i get a blank page with the words The resource can be found at http://192.168.1.102:8181/server. When i type the external URL again in an already authenticated browser instance, i am properly redirected to the server frontend. The access.log is full of entrys stating that my browser does successful GET requests, and the proxy is happily serving the /server ressource. However, the ressource isn't containing the server's frontend, but this blank page with these words on it.

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  • rsyslog - template - regex data for insertion into db

    - by Mike Purcell
    I've been googling around the last few days looking for a solid example of how to regex a log entry for desired data, which is then to be inserted into a database, but apparently my google-fu is lacking. What I am trying to do is track when an email is sent, and then track the remote mta response, specifically the dsn code. At this point I have two templates setup for each situation: # /etc/rsyslog.conf ... $Template tpl_custom_header, "MPurcell: CUSTOM HEADER Template: %msg%\n" $Template tpl_response_dsn, "MPurcell: RESPONSE DSN Template: %msg%\n" # /etc/rsyslog.d/mail if $programname == 'mail-myapp' then /var/log/mail/myapp.log if ($programname == 'mail-myapp') and ($msg contains 'X-custom_header') then /var/log/mail/test.log;tpl_custom_header if ($programname == 'mail-myapp') and ($msg contains 'dsn=') then /var/log/mail/test.log;tpl_response_dsn & ~ Example log entries: MPurcell: CUSTOM HEADER Template: D921940A1A: prepend: header X-custom_header: 101 from localhost[127.0.0.1]; from=<[email protected]> to=<[email protected]> proto=ESMTP helo=<localhost>: headername: message-id MPurcell: RESPONSE DSN Template: D921940A1A: to=<[email protected]>, relay=gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com[2607:f8b0:400e:c02::1a]:25, delay=2, delays=0.12/0.01/0.82/1.1, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (250 2.0.0 OK 1372378600 o4si2828280pac.279 - gsmtp) From the CUSTOM HEADER Template I would like to extract: D921940A1A, and X-custom_header value; 101 From the RESPONSE DSN Template I would like to extract: D921940A1A, and "dsn=2.0.0"

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  • MS Dynamics CRM users disappear

    - by Max Kosyakov
    Recently we came across quite a weird issue. The administrators say that once in a while they notice that user accounts in MS Dynamics CRM are lost . When a new user is added to the system, the administrators add him/her to the Active Directory first. Then, they go to Dynamics CRM interface, then to system configuration -> administration -> users and add the new user to the CRM, add roles to this user, grant them relevant permissions. Then the user is able to use a custom application, which connects to the Dynamics CRM via WCF. After a while (few weeks or months) the user is unable to use the custom application because Dynamics CRM cannot authorise this user. When administrators open the Dynamics CRM user management interface (configuration -> administration -> users ) and browse through the list of CRM users they cannot find the user in the list. When they try to add the user to Dynamics CRM back, the CRM fails with the error message "User already exists". Moreover, the user still exists in the Active Directory. The admins are very sure the user had been added to the CRM before he/she started to work. The only fact the the user was able to use the custom application normally says that the user had been indeed registered in the CRM. How come the user is not listed in the CRM user management interface at all? Have anyone faced any issues like that? Seen or heard of disappearing CRM users somewhere? Any help is appreciated. Where can one start digging?

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