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  • PHPMailer with GMail: SMTP Error

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am making use of PHPMailer to send mail through GMail. The code I use is straight from a tutorial and it works perfectly on my laptop. However, testing this on a Windows 2003 Server - it seems to always return an SMPT error: SMTP Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. Mailer Error: SMTP Error: Could not connect to SMTP host. Here is the settings I use in PHPMailer: include("phpmailer/class.phpmailer.php"); $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->IsSMTP(); $mail->SMTPAuth = true; // enable SMTP authentication $mail->SMTPSecure = "ssl"; // use ssl $mail->Host = "smtp.gmail.com"; // GMAIL's SMTP server $mail->Port = 465; // SMTP port used by GMAIL server Can I say with confidence that this isn't a port issue, since I am connecting to another server on port 465 and it is sending mail. If not, please explain. How can I resolve this issue? Thanks all for any help

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  • wrapping aspx user controls commands in a transaction

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

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  • Single intent to let user take picture OR pick image from gallery in Android

    - by Damian
    I'm developing an app for Android 2.1 upwards. I want to enable my users to select a profile picture within my app (I'm not using the contacts framework). The ideal solution would be to fire an intent that enables the user to select an image from the gallery, but if an appropriate image is not available then use the camera to take a picture (or vice-versa i.e. allow user to take picture but if they know they already have a suitable image already, let them drop into the gallery and pick said image). Currently I can do one or the other but not both. If I go directly into camera mode using MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE then there is no option to drop into the gallery. If I go directly to the gallery using Intent.ACTION_PICK then I can pick an image but if I click the camera button (in top right hand corner of gallery) then a new camera intent is fired. So, any picture that is taken is not returned directly to my application. (Sure you can press the back button to drop back into the gallery and select image from there but this is an extra unnecessary step and is not at all intuitive). So is there a way to combine both or am I going to have to offer a menu to do one or the other from within my application? Seems like it would be a common use case...surely I'm missing something?

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  • JavaScript alert not working in Android WebView

    - by user655192
    In my application I am using WebView and in that I am using JavaScript alert( ) method but its not working, no pop-up appears. in my manifest file I have added <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> and in activity file I have added mWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); mWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mWebView.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/demo.html"); In layout xml file I have added <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> Any clue how to enable full JavaScript in WebView. Update Thanks mark the alert() method in the html file are working now :) . Now there are two issues in WebView : 1: I am using a in the html file that i am loading in WebView , and trying to write in Hindi language font in it, but when i try to write Hindi text it displays as symbols ( rectangle symbols like [] ) . when i do the same in firefox browser on desktop it works fine. any clue how to give support for multiple language in textarea in WebView ? 2: When I am clicking submit and trying to open the value of text in alert() method in another java script it doesn't work , does it mean even after using WebChromeClient its applicable only for current loaded html page and not java scripts called from that page ?

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  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

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  • How to know if a device can be disabled or not?

    - by user326498
    I use the following code to enable/disable a device installed on my computer: SP_PROPCHANGE_PARAMS params; memset(&params, 0, sizeof(params)); devParams.cbSize = sizeof(devParams); params.ClassInstallHeader.cbSize = sizeof(params.ClassInstallHeader); params.ClassInstallHeader.InstallFunction = DIF_PROPERTYCHANGE; params.Scope = DICS_FLAG_GLOBAL; params.StateChange = DICS_DISABLE ; params.HwProfile = 0; // current profile if(!SetupDiSetClassInstallParams(m_hDev, &m_hDevInfo,&params.ClassInstallHeader,sizeof(SP_PROPCHANGE_PARAMS))) { dwErr = GetLastError(); return FALSE; } if(!SetupDiCallClassInstaller(DIF_PROPERTYCHANGE,m_hDev,&m_hDevInfo)) { dwErr = GetLastError(); return FALSE; } return TRUE; This code works perfectly only for those devices that can also be disabled by using Windows Device Manager, and won't work for some un-disabled devices such as my cpu device: Intel(R) Pentium(R) Dual CPU E2160 @ 1.80GHz. So the problem is how to determine if a device can be disabled or not programmatically? Is there any API to realize this goal? Thank you!

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  • QT QSslError being signaled with the error code set to NoError

    - by Nantucket
    My Problem I compiled OpenSSL into QT to enable OpenSSL support. Everything appeared to go correctly in the compile. However, when I try to use the official HTTP example application that can be found here, everytime I try to download an https page, it will signal two QSslError, each with contents NoError. The types of QSslErrors, including NoError, are documented here, poorly. There is no explanation on why they even included an error type called NoError, or what it means. Bizarrely, the NoError error code seems to be true, as it downloads the remote https document perfectly even while signaling the error. Does anyone have any idea what this means and what could possibly be causing it? Optional Background Reading Here is the relevant part of the code from the example app (this is connected to the network connection's sslErrors signal by the constructor): void HttpWindow::sslErrors(QNetworkReply*,const QList<QSslError> &errors) { QString errorString; foreach (const QSslError &error, errors) { if (!errorString.isEmpty()) errorString += ", "; errorString += error.errorString(); } if (QMessageBox::warning(this, tr("HTTP"), tr("One or more SSL errors has occurred: %1").arg(errorString), QMessageBox::Ignore | QMessageBox::Abort) == QMessageBox::Ignore) { reply->ignoreSslErrors(); } } I have tried the old version of this example, and it produced the same result. I have tried OpenSSL 1.0.0a and 0.9.8o. I have tried tried compiling OpenSSL myself, I have tried using pre-compiled versions of OpenSSL from the net. All produce the same result. If this were my first time using QT with SSL, I would almost think this is the intended result (even though their example application is popping up error warning message windows), if not for the fact that last time I played with QT, using what would now be an old version of QT with an old version of SSL, I distinctly remember everything working fine with no error windows. My system is running Windows 7 x64.

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  • wrapping user controls in a transaction

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

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  • Excel 2010 64 bit can't create .net object

    - by aboes81
    I have a simple class library that I use in Excel. Here is a simplification of my class... using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace SimpleLibrary { [ComVisible(true)] public interface ISixGenerator { int Six(); } public class SixGenerator : ISixGenerator { public int Six() { return 6; } } } In Excel 2007 I would create a macro enabled workbook and add a module with the following code: Public Function GetSix() Dim lib As SimpleLibrary.SixGenerator lib = New SimpleLibrary.SixGenerator Six = lib.Six End Function Then in Excel I could call the function GetSix() and it would return six. This no longer works in Excel 2010 64bit. I get a Run-time error '429': ActiveX component can't create object. I tried changing the platform target to x64 instead of Any CPU but then my code wouldn't compile unless I unchecked the Register for COM interop option, doing so makes it so my macro enable workbook cannot see SimpleLibrary.dll as it is no longer regsitered. Any ideas how I can use my library with Excel 2010 64 bit?

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby: end of file reached (EOFError)

    - by Michael Conigliaro
    Hello, I have some very simple Ruby code that is attempting to do XML-RPC over SSL: require 'xmlrpc/client' require 'pp' server = XMLRPC::Client.new2("https://%s:%d/" % [ 'api.ultradns.net', 8755 ]) pp server.call2('UDNS_OpenConnection', 'sponsor', 'username', 'password') The problem is that it always results in the following EOFError exception: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:135:in `sysread': end of file reached (EOFError) So it appears that after doing the POST, I don't get anything back. Interestingly, this is the behavior I would expect if I tried to make an HTTP connection on the HTTPS port (or visa versa), and I actually do get the same exact exception if I change the protocol. Everything I've looked at indicates that using "https://" in the URL is enough to enable SSL, but I'm starting wonder if I've missed something. Note that Even though the credentials I'm using in the RPC are made up, I'm expecting to at least get back an XML error page (similar to if you access https://api.ultradns.net:8755/ with a web browser). I've tried running this code on OSX and Linux with the exact same result, so I have to conclude that I'm just doing something wrong here. Does anyone have any examples of doing XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby?

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  • Flag bit computation and detection

    - by Majid
    Hi all, In some code I'm working on I should take care of ten independent parameters which can take one of two values (0 or 1). This creates 2^10 distinct conditions. Some of the conditions never occur and can be left out, but those which do occur are still A LOT and making a switch to handle all cases is insane. I want to use 10 if statements instead of a huge switch. For this I know I should use flag bits, or rather flag bytes as the language is javascript and its easier to work with a 10 byte string with to represent a 10-bit binary. Now, my problem is, I don't know how to implement this. I have seen this used in APIs where multiple-selectable options are exposed with numbers 1, 2, 4, 8, ... , n^(n-1) which are decimal equivalents of 1, 10, 100, 1000, etc. in binary. So if we make call like bar = foo(7), bar will be an object with whatever options the three rightmost flags enable. I can convert the decimal number into binary and in each if statement check to see if the corresponding digit is set or not. But I wonder, is there a way to determine the n-th digit of a decimal number is zero or one in binary form, without actually doing the conversion?

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  • .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

    - by Miles
    I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

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  • Good web hosting for ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app

    - by magellings
    I'm looking for hosting for an ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app. I've narrowed down with research to either asphostportal, asphostcentral, godaddy, or 1&1. I've ruled out crystaltech and softsyshosting due to price with better plans. Will be running a small e-commerce site written with ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and want to be sure it will work, as well as looking for cheapest price with best value in regards to disk space/bandwidth. And bandwidth is basically how much data can be sent from your site per month right? Any opinions appreciated as I'm finding this tough to narrow down. I know you can bin deploy MVC but heard full trust mode is required as well as some routing rules in IIS. 1&1 says they can't enable full trust. This is what I was looking at: name data(disk space/bandwidth) price MVCenabled crystal tech 500MB/50GB 7.95 + 7.95 setup 2000MB/200GB 16.95 softsyshosting 500MB/5GB 3.50 + 12/year domain 1000MB/10GB 5.84 3000MB/30GB 13.33 asphostportal 5GB/50GB 5.75 + 8.99/year yes 10GB/100GB 10.25 asphostcentral 2GB/15GB 4.99 yes 3GB/30GB 7.99/month domain free 5GB/40GB 11.99 godaddy 10GB/300GB 10.69 + 4.74/month 150GB/1500GB 6.99/month 1&1 10GB/unlimited 3.99 + free domain 150GB/unlimited 6.99 1&1 seems to be best value if MVC app will work. I'm a bit confused on bandwidth being unlimited. May seem like a good thing, but what if one website on the server is a resource hog because of this?

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  • Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

    - by marcusstarnes
    I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • NUnit integration programmatically with spring

    - by harkon
    Hi! I have a component based architecture framework designed and I use NUnit for isolated testing - okay so far. Now I want to enable integration tests. Therefore the tests use real implementations of the existing components. Each element of the component has a life cycle (init, start and stop) and I created a NUnit component. In the start section the Console runner of the NUnit will be executed. Okay - now if I have a test fixture class in my dlls in the execution path the runner exectues them - fine! But: And this is crucial! Each to be tested implementation exists so far in the process and I want to use this instances for testing. If I use NUnit runner in the current way each instance will be created twice - and above all: I have a spring container and a implementation registry. Via this registry I can get access to all instances in the processes. But how do I give the test fixture access to the existing registry? Good: I can start the component architecture framework in the startup of the nunit runner - but this is not what I want. My guide is the apache Cactus framework (with JUnit and tomcat, JBoss etc.) Can someone help? Thanks a lot! Check: http://cone.codeplex.com

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  • struts2 action not calling properly

    - by Ziplin
    On default I want my struts2 app to forward to an action: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE struts PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Struts Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://struts.apache.org/dtds/struts-2.0.dtd"> <struts> <constant name="struts.enable.DynamicMethodInvocation" value="false" /> <constant name="struts.devMode" value="false" /> <package name="myApp" namespace="/myApp" extends="struts-default"> <action name="Login_*" method="{1}" class="myApp.SessionManager"> <result name="input">/myApp/Login.jsp</result> <result type="redirectAction">Menu</result> </action> </package> <package name="default" namespace="/" extends="struts-default"> <default-action-ref name="index" /> <action name="index"> <result type="redirectAction"> <param name="actionName">Login_input.action</param> <param name="namespace">/myApp</param> </result> </action> </package> </struts> I'm looking for the application to call SessionManager.input(), but instead it calls SessionManager.execute().

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  • DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

    - by David Stratton
    I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

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  • Pattern for UI configuration

    - by TERACytE
    I have a Win32 C++ program that validates user input and updates the UI with status information and options. Currently it is written like this: void ShowError() { SetIcon(kError); SetMessageString("There was an error"); HideButton(kButton1); HideButton(kButton2); ShowButton(kButton3); } void ShowSuccess() { SetIcon(kError); std::String statusText (GetStatusText()); SetMessageString(statusText); HideButton(kButton1); HideButton(kButton2); ShowButton(kButton3); } // plus several more methods to update the UI using similar mechanisms I do not likes this because it duplicates code and causes me to update several methods if something changes in the UI. I am wondering if there is a design pattern or best practice to remove the duplication and make the functionality easier to understand and update. I could consolidate the code inside a config function and pass in flags to enable/disable UI items, but I am not convinced this is the best approach. Any suggestions and ideas?

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  • Trying to write up a C daemon, but don't know enough C to continue

    - by JamesM-SiteGen
    Okay, so I want this daemon to run in the background with little to no interaction. I plan to have it work with Apache, lighttpd, etc to send the session & request information to allow C to generate a website from an object DB, saving will have to be an option so, you can start the daemon with an existing DB but will not save to it unless you login to the admin area and enable, and restart the daemon. Summary of the daemon: Load a database from file. Have a function to restart the daemon. Allow Apache, lighttpd, etc to get necessary data about the request and session. A varible to allow the database to be saved to the file, otherwise it will only be stored in ram. If it is set to save back to the file, then only have neccessary data in ram. Use sql-light for the database file. Build a webpage from some template files. $(myVar) for getting variables. Get templates from a directory. ./templates/01-test/{index.html,template.css,template.js} Live version of the code and more information: http://typewith.me/YbGB1h1g1p Also I am working on a website CMS in php, but I am tring to switch to C as it is faster than php. ( php is quite fast, but the fact that making a few mySQL requests for every webpage is quite unefficent and I'm sure that it can be far better, so an object that we can recall data from in C would have to be faster ) P.S I am using Arch-Linux not MS-Windows, with the package group base-devel for the common developer tools such as make and makepgk. Edit: Oupps, forgot the question ;) Okay, so the question is, how can I turn this basic C daemon into a base to what I am attempting to do here?

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  • Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS

    - by Dezigo
    I wrote a trigger. USE [TEST] GO /****** Object: Trigger [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] Script Date: 05/26/2010 08:54:03 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] ON [dbo].[BCT_CNTR_EVENTS] FOR INSERT AS BEGIN DECLARE @MOVE_TIME varchar(14); DECLARE @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED varchar(20); DECLARE @RELEASE_NOTE varchar(32); DECLARE @CMR_NUMBER varchar(15); DECLARE @MOVE_TYPE varchar(2); SELECT @MOVE_TIME = inserted.move_time ,@MOVE_TYPE = inserted.move_type ,@RELEASE_NOTE = inserted.release_note ,@CMR_NUMBER = inserted.cmr_number FROM inserted IF(@MOVE_TYPE = 'YC') BEGIN SET @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED = SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,1,4) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,5,2) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,7,2) + ' 00:00:00' --UPDATE OpenQuery(POSTGRESQL_SERV,'SELECT visit_cmr,visit_timestamp,visit_pin FROM VISIT') -- SET visit_cmr = @RELEASE_NOTE -- WHERE visit_timestamp = @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED -- AND visit_pin = right(@CMR_NUMBER,5) -- AND visit_cmr IS NULL END SET NOCOUNT ON; END When I have inserted a row,I have get an error **Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS and ANSI_WARNINGS options to be set for the connection. This ensures consistent query semantics. Enable these options and then reissue your query.** Then I ofcourse SET SET ANSI_WARNINGS is ON but it`s not work for me. (trigger fo linked server postgresql) I have restarted a server. not work again.

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  • Make JFace Window blink in taskbar or get users attention?

    - by Sophomore
    Hi folks I wonder someone has any idea how to solve this: In my Java Eclipse plugin there are some processes which take some time. Therefore the user might minimize the window and let the process run in the background. Now, when the process is finished, I can force the window to come to the top again, but that is a no-no in usability. I'd rather want the process to blink in the taskbar instead. Is there any way to achieve this? I had a look at the org.eclipse.jface.window but could'nt find anything like that, same goes for the SWT documentation... Another thing which came to my mind - as people are using this app on mac os x and linux as well, is there a platform independant solution, which will inform the user that the process has finished but without bringing the window to the top? Any ideas are highly welcome! Edit: I found out that on windows the user can adjust whether he would like to enable a force to foreground or not. If that option is disabled, the task will just blink in the taskbar... Here's a good read on that... If anyone maybe knows about some platform independant way of achieving this kind of behaviour, please share your knowledge with me!

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  • How to eliminate tearing from animation?

    - by MusiGenesis
    I'm running an animation in a WinForms app at 18.66666... frames per second (it's synced with music at 140 BPM, which is why the frame rate is weird). Each cel of the animation is pre-calculated, and the animation is driven by a high-resolution multimedia timer. The animation itself is smooth, but I am seeing a significant amount of "tearing", or artifacts that result from cels being caught partway through a screen refresh. When I take the set of cels rendered by my program and write them out to an AVI file, and then play the AVI file in Windows Media Player, I do not see any tearing at all. I assume that WMP plays the file smoothly because it uses DirectX (or something else) and is able to synchronize the rendering with the screen's refresh activity. It's not changing the frame rate, as the animation stays in sync with the audio. Is this why WMP is able to render the animation without tearing, or am I missing something? Is there any way I can use DirectX (or something else) in order to enable my program to be aware of where the current scan line is, and if so, is there any way I can use that information to eliminate tearing without actually using DirectX for displaying the cels? Or do I have to fully use DirectX for rendering in order to deal with this problem? Update: forgot a detail. My app renders each cell onto a PictureBox using Graphics.DrawImage. Is this significantly slower than using BitBlt, such that I might eliminate at least some of the tearing by using BitBlt?

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  • Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

    - by williamjones
    I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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  • Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

    - by watain
    I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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