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• Section or group name 'cachingConfiguration' is already defined - but where?

  - by Richard Ev

  On Windows XP I am working on a .NET 3.5 web app that's a combination of WebForms and MVC2 (The WebForms parts are legacy, and being migrated to MVC). When I run this from VS2008 using the ASP.NET web server everything works as expected. However, when I host the app in IIS and try to use it, I see the following error Section or group name 'cachingConfiguration' is already defined. Updates to this may only occur at the configuration level where it is defined. Source Error: Line 24: </sectionGroup> Line 25: <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> Line 26: <section name="cachingConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching.Configuration.CacheManagerSettings,Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" /> Line 27: </configSections> Line 28: Sure enough, if I remove the offending line (line 26 in the error message) from my web.config then the app runs correctly. However, I really need to find out where the duplicate definition of this is. It's nowhere in my solution. Where else could it be?

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• Screen information while Windows system is locked (.NET)

  - by Matt

  We have a nightly process that updates applications on a user's pc, and that requires bringing the application down and back up again (not looking to get into changing that process). The problem is that we are building a Windows AppBar on launch which requires a valid screen, and when the system is locked there isn't one in the Screen class. So none of the visual effects are enabled and it shows up real ugly. The only way we currently have around this is to detect a locked screen and just spin and wait until the user unlocks the desktop, then continue launching. Leaving it down isn't an option, as this is a key part of our user's workflow, and they expect it to be up and running if they left it that way the night before. Any ideas?? I can't seem to find the display information anywhere, but it has to be stored off someplace, since the user is still logged in. The contents of the Screen.AllScreens array: ** When Locked: Device Name : DISPLAY Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 0 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=2560,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} ** When Unlocked: Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY1 Primary : True Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=0,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=994} Device Name : \\.\DISPLAY2 Primary : False Bits Per Pixel : 32 Bounds : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=1024} Working Area : {X=-1280,Y=0,Width=1280,Height=964}

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• Prevent two users from editing the same data

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

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• Growing user control not updating

  - by user328259

  I am developing in C# and .Net 2.0. I have a user control that draws cells (columnar) depending upon the maximum number of cells. There are some drawing routines that generate the necessary cells. There is a property NumberOfCells that adjust the height of this control; CELLHEIGHT_CONSTANT * NumberOfCells. The OnPaint() method is overridden (code that draws the Number of cells). There is another user control that contains a panel which contains the userControl1 from above. There is a property NumberCells that changes userControl1's NumberOfCells. UserControl2 is then placed on a windows form. On that form there is a NumericUpDown control (only increments from 1). When the user increments by 1, I adjust the VerticalScroll.Maximum by 1 as well. Everything works well and good BUT when I increment once, the panel updates fine (inserts a vertical scrolll when necessary) but cells are not being added! I've tried Invalidating on userControl2 AND on the form but nothing seems to draw the newly added cells. Any assistance is appreciated. Thank you in advance. Lawrence

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• Convert string to variable in Javascript

  - by waiwai933

  Is there any way to convert a string to a variable in Javascript? Right now, what I have is a script that updates data based on the values of the select box: <script type="text/javascript"> var a = new Array(); a[0] = 'Name'; a[1] = 'Description'; var b = new Array(); b[0] = 'Name 2'; b[1] = 'Description 2'; function changeSystem(){ var selectedAccount=document.getElementById('selected_option').value; document.getElementById('name').innerHTML = selectedAccount[0]; document.getElementById('description').innerHTML = selectedAccount[1]; } </script> <form method="POST"> <select onchange="changeSystem()" id="selected_option"> <option>A</option> <option>B</option> </select> </form> <span id="name"></span><br> <span id="description"></span><br> selectedAccount is the string of the chosen element in <select>. However, for it to access the array, it needs to be a variable, i.e. a[0] instead of 'a'[0]. What solutions are there to this?

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• MySql Query lag time?

  - by Click Upvote

  When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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• PHP MySQL Weird Update Problem

  - by Tim

  I have a heap based table in MySQL that I am trying to update via PHP, but for some reason, the updates do not seem to be taking place. Here is my test code: <?php $freepoints[] = 1; $freepoints[] = 2; $freepoints[] = 3; foreach ($freepoints as $entrypoint) { $query = "update gates set lane='{$entrypoint}' where traffic > 50 limit 50"; echo "$query\n"; mysql_query($query); echo mysql_affected_rows()."\n"; } ?> This outputs the following: update gates set lane='1' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 update gates set lane='2' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 update gates set lane='3' where traffic > 50 limit 50 50 In the database to start with lanes 1/2/3 had 0 records and lanes 4/5/6 had 100 records. From this I am expecting all 6 lanes to now have 50 records each. However when I look lanes 4/5/6 still have 100 records and 1/2/3 still have 0 records. When I copy the query "update gates set lane='1' where traffic 50 limit 50" into phpMyAdmin it works absolutely fine, so any ideas why it isn't working in my PHP script when mysql_affected_rows is saying it has updated 50 records?

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• Can shared memory be read and validated without mutexes?

  - by Bribles

  On Linux I'm using shmget and shmat to setup a shared memory segment that one process will write to and one or more processes will read from. The data that is being shared is a few megabytes in size and when updated is completely rewritten; it's never partially updated. I have my shared memory segment laid out as follows: ------------------------- | t0 | actual data | t1 | ------------------------- where t0 and t1 are copies of the time when the writer began its update (with enough precision such that successive updates are guaranteed to have differing times). The writer first writes to t1, then copies in the data, then writes to t0. The reader on the other hand reads t0, then the data, then t1. If the reader gets the same value for t0 and t1 then it considers the data consistent and valid, if not, it tries again. Does this procedure ensure that if the reader thinks the data is valid then it actually is? Do I need to worry about out-of-order execution (OOE)? If so, would the reader using memcpy to get the entire shared memory segment overcome the OOE issues on the reader side? (This assumes that memcpy performs it's copy linearly and ascending through the address space. Is that assumption valid?)

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• Deploy GWT Application to Google App Engine using NetBeans

  - by Yan Cheng CHEOK

  Hello, I try to deploy a GWT application, to Google App Engine using NetBeans. I had successful run GWT sample http://code.google.com/webtoolkit/doc/latest/tutorial/create.html using Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, by 1) Copy generated source code from StockWatcher to C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\src\java\com\google\ 2) Modify C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\nbproject\gwt.properties gwt.module=com.google.gwt.stockwatcher.StockWatcher 3) Select Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, and run. All works fine! Now, I try to select Google App Engine server, and run. However, I get the error "There is no appengine web project opened!" I check... There is file called C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\war\WEB-INF\appengine-web.xml with content <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <appengine-web-app xmlns="http://appengine.google.com/ns/1.0" xmlns:xsi='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance' xsi:schemaLocation='http://kenai.com/projects/nbappengine/downloads/download/schema/appengine-web.xsd appengine-web.xsd'> <application>StockWatcherNetbeans</application> <version>1</version> </appengine-web-app> I am using NetBeans 6.7.1 GWT4NB (GWT Plugin for NetBeans) 2.6.12 Google App Engine plugin for NetBeans from http://kenai.com/downloads/nbappengine/1.0_NetBeans671/updates.xml Anything I had missed out? Even when I right click to the project, the Deploy to Google App Engine options is disabled. And yes, please do not ask me why not use Eclipse.

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• Multi-account sync with Dropbox API

  - by Dan

  I'm trying to create a web app that lets users share files with each other through Dropbox. At the moment, Dropbox handles all the sharing, and there's one central Dropbox account running on the web server that shares the folder with the people who want it. I'm trying to change it so people don't have to accept a new folder invitation each time. I'd like to have them authorize my app to access an app folder in their Dropbox account, and all their shared folders would go inside there. Any changes they make would get noticed by the app on the server and synced to everyone else's folders. There's a couple things I'm having trouble figuring out to make this work: Do I need to make repeated calls to /delta for every account? I can't think how else I'd do this, but that sounds like it would quickly turn into thousands of requests a minute just polling for updates. When someone adds a file, do I have to upload it once for each account? That seems like a huge waste of bandwidth. I've looked into using /copy_ref, which I think would add a file to another user's account without my app ever touching it, but my app's web interface also allows users to upload files directly to my server, which would then need to be synced with everyone else's folders. That file isn't on Dropbox's servers yet, so /copy_ref obviously wouldn't work. For a little extra context, my app is written in node.js, and I've been playing with this library to interface with Dropbox, which uses their REST API.

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• Using SetParent to steal the main window of another process but keeping the message loops separate

  - by insta

  Background: My coworker and I are maintaining a million-line legacy application we inherited. Its frontend is written in VB6, and as we're devoting almost all of our resources to converting it to C#, we are looking for quick & dirty solutions to our specific problem. The application behaves in a plugin-ish manner. There are up to 20ish separate ActiveX controls that can be loaded at once in a grid-style layout. The problem is that the ActiveX controls do all of their processing on their own UI thread, and as a lot of it is blocking waiting on network access, the UI gets very soupy. When our hosting C# app loads these controls, it becomes unresponsive because of how many controls are chewing up UI resources doing nothing. To top it off, the controls are fragile and will crash at the slightest provocation. When they are hosted in the main C# app, it creates serious instability. The best my coworker and I have come up with so far is starting a process per ActiveX control. This process, which we call the proxy, is another winforms app. It uses named pipes to communicate with the hosting process. The hosting process creates a window, loads an ActiveX control of our choice (via some reflections & AxHost magic), and tells the main process what its window handle is via the named pipe. The main process uses a combination of SetParent, and SetWindowPos to move the proxy application into itself to emulate a plugin. Size updates are sent via the named pipe. This works well enough until the ActiveX application does some sort of lengthy process and we click around on the main window while it's working. For awhile the main window is responsive, but eventually it becomes unresponsive as the child window waits for its UI thread. How can we keep the child windows on their own complete thread while still getting the benefits of SetParent? (please let me know if anything isn't clear!)

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• Update database settings in properties file in Spring

  - by mvg

  Hi all, I am trying to create a Database Manager page which shows the database details on page load and updates the database settings when the user press submit I followed this tutorial and set the database settings in properties file. I managed to update the database settings in properties file programmatically. When I retrieved the database settings using the following code DriverManagerDataSource databaseSource = (DriverManagerDataSource)context.getBean("dataSource"); databaseSource.getUsername(); I managed to get the old value and unable to get the new value This is the mapping in applicationContext.xml file <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="location"> <value>classpath:/bundle/database.properties</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driverClassName}" /> <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}" /> <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}" /> <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}" /> </bean> I checked the properties file and found it to be updated with the latest input. What am I missing? Thanks in advance P.S I am using JSF1.2 with Spring 3 Update Just making my requirement simple. I am creating a setparate dbsettings page, so that when user wishes to connect to different database he/she can just enter the details in dbsettings page and connect

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• Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

  - by Jack

  Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

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• Rails Tableless Model

  - by mplacona

  I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

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• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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• Python's asyncore to periodically send data using a variable timeout. Is there a better way?

  - by Nick Sonneveld

  I wanted to write a server that a client could connect to and receive periodic updates without having to poll. The problem I have experienced with asyncore is that if you do not return true when dispatcher.writable() is called, you have to wait until after the asyncore.loop has timed out (default is 30s). The two ways I have tried to work around this is 1) reduce timeout to a low value or 2) query connections for when they will next update and generate an adequate timeout value. However if you refer to 'Select Law' in 'man 2 select_tut', it states, "You should always try to use select() without a timeout." Is there a better way to do this? Twisted maybe? I wanted to try and avoid extra threads. I'll include the variable timeout example here: #!/usr/bin/python import time import socket import asyncore # in seconds UPDATE_PERIOD = 4.0 class Channel(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, sock, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, sock=sock, map=sck_map) self.last_update = 0.0 # should update immediately self.send_buf = '' self.recv_buf = '' def writable(self): return len(self.send_buf) > 0 def handle_write(self): nbytes = self.send(self.send_buf) self.send_buf = self.send_buf[nbytes:] def handle_read(self): print 'read' print 'recv:', self.recv(4096) def handle_close(self): print 'close' self.close() # added for variable timeout def update(self): if time.time() >= self.next_update(): self.send_buf += 'hello %f\n'%(time.time()) self.last_update = time.time() def next_update(self): return self.last_update + UPDATE_PERIOD class Server(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, port, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, map=sck_map) self.port = port self.sck_map = sck_map self.create_socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) self.bind( ("", port)) self.listen(16) print "listening on port", self.port def handle_accept(self): (conn, addr) = self.accept() Channel(sock=conn, sck_map=self.sck_map) # added for variable timeout def update(self): pass def next_update(self): return None sck_map = {} server = Server(9090, sck_map) while True: next_update = time.time() + 30.0 for c in sck_map.values(): c.update() # <-- fill write buffers n = c.next_update() #print 'n:',n if n is not None: next_update = min(next_update, n) _timeout = max(0.1, next_update - time.time()) asyncore.loop(timeout=_timeout, count=1, map=sck_map)

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• Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

  - by anonymous

  I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

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• How to stay DRY when using both Javascript and ERB templates (Rails)

  - by user94154

  I'm building a Rails app that uses Pusher to use web sockets to push updates to directly to the client. In javascript: channel.bind('tweet-create', function(tweet){ //when a tweet is created, execute the following code: $('#timeline').append("<div class='tweet'><div class='tweeter'>"+tweet.username+"</div>"+tweet.status+"</div>"); }); This is nasty mixing of code and presentation. So the natural solution would be to use a javascript template. Perhaps eco or mustache: //store this somewhere convenient, perhaps in the view folder: tweet_view = "<div class='tweet'><div class='tweeter'>{{tweet.username}}</div>{{tweet.status}}</div>" channel.bind('tweet-create', function(tweet){ //when a tweet is created, execute the following code: $('#timeline').append(Mustache.to_html(tweet_view, tweet)); //much cleaner }); This is good and all, except, I'm repeating myself. The mustache template is 99% identical to the ERB templates I already have written to render HTML from the server. The intended output/purpose of the mustache and ERB templates are 100% the same: to turn a tweet object into tweet html. What is the best way to eliminate this repetition? UPDATE: Even though I answered my own question, I really want to see other ideas/solutions from other people--hence the bounty!

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• Canvas scroll animation not working correctly

  - by pedalpete

  I'm building a gantt chart style timeline using html canvas element. I am currently attempting to add the functionality which allows the user to click a next/prev button to have the gantt chart scroll to display earlier or later times. The way I am doing this is to have a span.adjustTime where the id holds a value in seconds for the time to be adjusted (eg 86400 for one day). I am trying to animate the scrolling so it looks like a scroll, rather than jumping ahead by one day. I have a small problem in my timing calculation, but the script below is not animating, but rather jumping directly to the final time. I do have the draw function running on a separate setInterval which updates every second, so I'm hoping it isn't an issue of conflicting timers on the same function on the same element and data. jQuery('span.adjustTime').click(function() { var adjustBy = parseInt(jQuery(this).attr('id').replace('a', '')); var data = jQuery('img#logo').data(); for(var m = 1; m >= 30; m++) { gantt.startUnixTime = gantt.startUnixTime + (adjustBy * (m * 0.001)); var moveTimer = setTimeout(function() { draw(document.getElementById('gantt'), data, gantt); }, 1000); if (m == 30) { clearTimeout(moveTimer); } } });

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• asyncore callbacks launching threads... ok to do?

  - by sbartell

  I'm unfamiliar with asyncore, and have very limited knowledge of asynchronous programming except for a few intro to twisted tutorials. I am most familiar with threads and use them in all my apps. One particular app uses a couchdb database as its interface. This involves longpolling the db looking for changes and updates. The module I use for couchdb is couchdbkit. It uses an asyncore loop to watch for these changes and send them to a callback. So, I figure from this callback is where I launch my worker threads. It seems a bit crude to mix asynchronous and threaded programming. I really like couchdbkit, but would rather not introduce issues into my program. So, my question is, is it safe to fire threads from an async callback? Here's some code... {{{ def dispatch(change): global jobs, db_url # jobs is my queue db = Database(db_url) work_order = db.get(change['id']) # change is an id to the document that changed. # i need to get the actual document (workorder) worker = Worker(work_order, db) # fire the thread jobs.append[worker] worker.start() return main() . . . consumer.wait(cb=dispatch, since=update_seq, timeout=10000) #wait constains the asyncloop. }}}

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• maven assemblies. Putting each dependency with transitive dependencies in own directory?

  - by jr

  I have a maven project which consists of a few modules. This is to be deployed on a client machine and will involve installing Tomcat and will make use of NSIS for installer. There is a separate application which monitors tomcat and can restart it, perform updates, etc. So, I have the modules setup as follows: project +-- client (all code, handlers, for the war) +-- client-common - (shared code, shared between monitor and client) +-- client-web - (the war, basically just uses war has applicationcontext, web.xml,etc) +-- monitor - (the monitor application jar. Uses wrapper to run) So, I need to create an installer. I was planning on creating another module which would be the installer. This is where I would have tomcat directory and I'd like maven to "assemble" everything and then run NSIS so I can create the final installer. However, I need to have the monitor jar file in a directory and then have all monitors dependencies in a lib/ directory. The final directory structure should be: project-installer-directory/monitor/monitor-version.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-1.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-2.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-3.jar project-installer-directory/webapps/client-web.war Where in the client-web\WEB-INF\lib directory we will have all client-web's dependencies after it is exploded. That works, I have the .war file. What I am having problems with is getting the monitor module dependencies independent of the dependencies of the client-web module. I tried to just create the installer module and make the monitor and client-web dependencies, but when I use dependencies-copy it gives me everything. Not what I want. I'm leaning towards creating a new module called monitor-assembly or something to give me a zip file which contains the directory format I need, but that is yet another module. Can someone please help me with the correct way to accomplish this? thanks!

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• Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

  - by dreftymac

  BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

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• How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

  - by Brann

  I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

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• Syncing magento database froms development to production

  - by ringerce

  I use git for version control. I have a development, staging and production environment. When I finish in development I push to staging for review by the client. When approved, I push changes from staging to production. That works fine as long as there is no database changes. What happens if I install modules via Magento connect on local development and it makes database modifications. How would I push those changes up to the production server since the production server is always changing? Edit: I wrote two shell scripts. One that pulls the production database down to my development server, replaces base url with develpment url and updates my development db accordingly. It also leaves the production sql dump behind to be added to my git repo. I'm not really sure if it's beneficial to keep the raw dumps in source control but I'm going to try it out. The second scripts moves the development database up to staging and essentially performs the same operations as the first. Now when it comes time to move to production I pull the updated production repo into the production server and allow magento to do it's thing. I also started using SQLYog recently and it has a database comparison wizard which will give me the differences in my development and production databases and allow me to merge the changes in selectively. It always creates a migration script that I added to source control as well. If anything goes wrong I can run the comparison to see if anything was missed. Does this sounds like a decent workflow to you guys?

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• MS Access (Jet) transactions, workspaces & scope

  - by Eric G

  I am having trouble with committing a transaction (using Access 2003 DAO). It's acting as if I never had called BeginTrans -- I get error 3034 on CommitTrans, "You tried to commit or rollback a transaction without first beginning a transaction"; and the changes are written to the database (presumably because they were never wrapped in a transaction). However, BeginTrans is run, if you step through it. I am running it within the Access environment using the DBEngine(0) workspace. The tables I'm updating are all opened via a Jet database connection (to the same database) and updated using DAO.Recordset.update. The connection is opened before starting BeforeTrans. I'm not doing anything weird in the middle of the transaction like closing/opening connections or multiple workspaces etc. There is one nested transaction level (basically it's wrapping multiple transacted updates in an outer transaction, so if any fail they all fail). The inner transactions run without errors, it's the outer transaction that doesn't work. Here are a few things I've looked into and ruled out: The transaction is spread across several methods and BeginTrans and CommitTrans (and Rollback) are all in different places. But when I tried a simple test of running a transaction this way, it doesn't seem like this should matter. I thought maybe the database connection gets closed when it goes out of local scope, even though I have another 'global' reference to it (I'm never sure what DAO does with dbase connections to be honest). But this seems not to be the case -- right before the commit, the connection and its recordsets are alive (I can check their properties, EOF = False, etc.) My CommitTrans and Rollback are done within event callbacks. (Very basically, a parser program is throwing an 'onLoad' or 'onLoadFail' event at the end of parsing, which I am handling by either committing or rolling back the inserts I made during processing.) However, again, trying a simple test, it doesn't seem like this should matter. Any ideas why this isn't working for me? Thanks.

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