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  • How is it that json serialization is so much faster than yaml serialization in python?

    - by guidoism
    I have code that relies heavily on yaml for cross-language serialization and while working on speeding some stuff up I noticed that yaml was insanely slow compared to other serialization methods (e.g., pickle, json). So what really blows my mind is that json is so much faster that yaml when the output is nearly identical. >>> import yaml, cjson; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}} >>> yaml.dump(d, Dumper=yaml.SafeDumper) 'foo: {bar: 1}\n' >>> cjson.encode(d) '{"foo": {"bar": 1}}' >>> import yaml, cjson; >>> timeit("yaml.dump(d, Dumper=yaml.SafeDumper)", setup="import yaml; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}}", number=10000) 44.506911039352417 >>> timeit("yaml.dump(d, Dumper=yaml.CSafeDumper)", setup="import yaml; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}}", number=10000) 16.852826118469238 >>> timeit("cjson.encode(d)", setup="import cjson; d={'foo': {'bar': 1}}", number=10000) 0.073784112930297852 PyYaml's CSafeDumper and cjson are both written in C so it's not like this is a C vs Python speed issue. I've even added some random data to it to see if cjson is doing any caching, but it's still way faster than PyYaml. I realize that yaml is a superset of json, but how could the yaml serializer be 2 orders of magnitude slower with such simple input?

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  • Crash on iOS when system purges memory and closes a UIViewController

    - by Amiramix
    My application is crashing when one of the views is purged from memory because of low-memory condition. At least this is what I understand from the crashlog. It happens on numerous screens but only when opening a Facebook dialog (using the Facebook SDK). Basically, looks like the system sometimes runs out of memory when we need to present a Facebook dialog (e.g. to let user post something on the Facebook timeline). Date/Time: 2012-03-14 19:47:33.819 +0000 OS Version: iPhone OS 5.1 (9B176) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x30000008 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x30f2bf78 objc_msgSend + 16 1 MyApp 0x00003c0e -LTBaseViewController viewDidUnload (LTBaseViewController.m:145) 2 MyApp 0x00004ea2 -LTBaseTableViewController viewDidUnload (LTBaseTableViewController.m:90) 3 UIKit 0x33766bd8 -[UIViewController unloadViewForced:] + 244 4 UIKit 0x338ae492 -[UIViewController purgeMemoryForReason:] + 58 5 Foundation 0x3071a4f8 __57-NSNotificationCenter addObserver:selector:name:object:_block_invoke_0 + 12 6 CoreFoundation 0x30e95540 ___CFXNotificationPost_block_invoke_0 + 64 7 CoreFoundation 0x30e21090 _CFXNotificationPost + 1400 8 Foundation 0x3068e3e4 -NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo: + 60 9 Foundation 0x3068fc14 -NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object: + 24 10 UIKit 0x3387926a -UIApplication _performMemoryWarning + 74 11 UIKit 0x33879364 -UIApplication _receivedMemoryNotification + 168 12 libdispatch.dylib 0x36a12252 _dispatch_source_invoke + 510 13 libdispatch.dylib 0x36a0fb1e _dispatch_queue_invoke$VARIANT$up + 42 14 libdispatch.dylib 0x36a0fe64 _dispatch_main_queue_callback_4CF$VARIANT$up + 152 15 CoreFoundation 0x30e9c2a6 __CFRunLoopRun + 1262 16 CoreFoundation 0x30e1f49e CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 294 17 CoreFoundation 0x30e1f366 CFRunLoopRunInMode + 98 18 GraphicsServices 0x33fb6432 GSEventRunModal + 130 19 UIKit 0x336f5e76 UIApplicationMain + 1074 20 MyApp 0x00004818 main (main.m:16) 21 MyApp 0x000023b4 0x1000 + 5044 I checked and there are almost no memory leaks, e.g. when testing the app for an hour the total memory leaked was around 2-3Kb caused by some string-copying libraries. So I don't believe this is caused by the application. I guess that when the phone is not restarted for some time there are applications running in the background and when using Facebook SDK the memory becomes a problem and the system tries to recover the memory from random applications, including my application. My question is, how can I prevent this crash from happening? How should I handle unloadViewForced on a view controller to make the app more robust in low-memory conditions? And lastly, am I right that this crashlog suggests the crash occurred because the system tried to free memory and my application didn't handle it properly? Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • Why doesn't this jQuery snippet work in IE8 like it does in Chrome/Firefox (live demo included)?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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  • stack overflow problem in program

    - by Jay
    So I am currently getting a strange stack overflow exception when i try to run this program, which reads numbers from a list in a data/text file and inserts it into a binary search tree. The weird thing is that when the program works when I have a list of 4095 numbers in random order. However when i have a list of 4095 numbers in increasing order (so it makes a linear search tree), it throws a stack overflow message. The problem is not the static count variable because even when i removed it, and put t=new BinaryNode(x,1) it still gave a stack overflow exception. I tried debugging it, and it broke at if (t == NULL){ t = new BinaryNode(x,count); Here is the insert function. BinaryNode *BinarySearchTree::insert(int x, BinaryNode *t) { static long count=0; count++; if (t == NULL){ t = new BinaryNode(x,count); count=0; } else if (x < t->key){ t->left = insert(x, t->left); } else if (x > t->key){ t->right = insert(x, t->right); } else throw DuplicateItem(); return t; }

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  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validator

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

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  • Javascript/PHP and timezones

    - by James
    Hi, I'd like to be able to guess the user's timezone offset and whether or not daylight savings is being applied. Currently, the most definitive code that I've found for this is here: http://www.michaelapproved.com/articles/daylight-saving-time-dst-detect/ So this gives me the offset along with the DST indicator. Now, I want to use these in my PHP scripts in order to ouput the local date/time for the user....but what's best for this? I figure I have 2 options: a) Pick a random timezone which has the same offset and DST setting from the output of timezone_abbreviations_list(). Then call date_timezone_set() with this in order to apply the correct treatment to the time. b) Continue treating the date as UTC but just do some timestamp addition to add the appropriate number of hours on. My feeling is that option B is the best way. The reason for this is that with A, I could be using a timezone which although correct in terms of offset/dst, may have some obscur rules in place behind the scene that could give surprising results (I don't know of any but nonetheless I don't think I can rule it out). I'd then re-check the timezone using Javascript at the start of each session in order to capture when either the user's timezone changes (very unlikely) or they pass in to the DST period. Sorry for the brain dump - I'm really just after some sort of reassurance that the approaches above are valid. Thanks, James.

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  • Delegate OpenID to Google (NOT Google Apps)

    - by Rio
    OK, I searched this question on SO but no good answer. After spent some time I figured out how to do it. I'm going to answer this myself as a way to share it. Not sure if this is the correct way to use SO, but here it goes: Now it is possible delegate OpenID to your Google account (not Google Apps). No, this is not using the demo OpenID provider using App Engine. This is your REAL Google account! First you need to enable your Google Profiles. Try to view your profile and edit it, there should be an option to set your Profile URL. You have two choices there: either use your Gmail account name (without the @gmail.com part) as your profile id, or a random number assigned to you. It's up to you to decide which one to use. Either way, that id is your profile id below. Now add the following HTML code to your delegating page: <link rel="openid2.provider" href="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?source=profiles" > <link rel="openid2.local_id" href="http://www.google.com/profiles/[YOUR PROFILE ID]" > And it's done. Now try login SO with your custom url!

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  • Autologin for web application

    - by Maulin
    We want to AutoLogin feature to allow user directly login using link into our Web Application. What is the best way achieve this? We have following approches in our mind. 1) Store user credentials(username/password) in cookie. Send cookie for authentication. e.g. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin (here username/password will be passed in cookie) OR Pass user credentials in link URL. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin?userid=<&password=< 2) Generate randon token and store user random token and user IP on server side database. When user login using link, validate token and user IP on server. e.g. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin?token=< The problem with 1st approach is if hacker copies link/cookie from user machine to another machine he can login. The problem with 2nd approach is the user ip will be same for all users of same organization behind proxy. Which one is better from above from security perspective? If there is better solution which is other than mentioned above, please let us know.

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  • Compile and optimize for different target architectures

    - by Peter Smit
    Summary: I want to take advantage of compiler optimizations and processor instruction sets, but still have a portable application (running on different processors). Normally I could indeed compile 5 times and let the user choose the right one to run. My question is: how can I can automate this, so that the processor is detected at runtime and the right executable is executed without the user having to chose it? I have an application with a lot of low level math calculations. These calculations will typically run for a long time. I would like to take advantage of as much optimization as possible, preferably also of (not always supported) instruction sets. On the other hand I would like my application to be portable and easy to use (so I would not like to compile 5 different versions and let the user choose). Is there a possibility to compile 5 different versions of my code and run dynamically the most optimized version that's possible at execution time? With 5 different versions I mean with different instruction sets and different optimizations for processors. I don't care about the size of the application. At this moment I'm using gcc on Linux (my code is in C++), but I'm also interested in this for the Intel compiler and for the MinGW compiler for compilation to Windows. The executable doesn't have to be able to run on different OS'es, but ideally there would be something possible with automatically selecting 32 bit and 64 bit as well. Edit: Please give clear pointers how to do it, preferably with small code examples or links to explanations. From my point of view I need a super generic solution, which is applicable on any random C++ project I have later. Edit I assigned the bounty to ShuggyCoUk, he had a great number of pointers to look out for. I would have liked to split it between multiple answers but that is not possible. I'm not having this implemented yet, so the question is still 'open'! Please, still add and/or improve answers, even though there is no bounty to be given anymore. Thanks everybody!

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  • Java Performance measurement

    - by portoalet
    Hi, I am doing some Java performance comparison between my classes, and wondering if there is some sort of Java Performance Framework to make writing performance measurement code easier? I.e, what I am doing now is trying to measure what effect does it have having a method as "synchronized" as in PseudoRandomUsingSynch.nextInt() compared to using an AtomicInteger as my "synchronizer". So I am trying to measure how long it takes to generate random integers using 3 threads accessing a synchronized method looping for say 10000 times. I am sure there is a much better way doing this. Can you please enlighten me? :) public static void main( String [] args ) throws InterruptedException, ExecutionException { PseudoRandomUsingSynch rand1 = new PseudoRandomUsingSynch((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); int n = 3; ExecutorService execService = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(n); long timeBefore = System.currentTimeMillis(); for(int idx=0; idx<100000; ++idx) { Future<Integer> future = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future1 = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future2 = execService.submit(rand1); int random1 = future.get(); int random2 = future1.get(); int random3 = future2.get(); } long timeAfter = System.currentTimeMillis(); long elapsed = timeAfter - timeBefore; out.println("elapsed:" + elapsed); } the class public class PseudoRandomUsingSynch implements Callable<Integer> { private int seed; public PseudoRandomUsingSynch(int s) { seed = s; } public synchronized int nextInt(int n) { byte [] s = DonsUtil.intToByteArray(seed); SecureRandom secureRandom = new SecureRandom(s); return ( secureRandom.nextInt() % n ); } @Override public Integer call() throws Exception { return nextInt((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); } } Regards

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  • how is data stored at bit level according to "Endianness" ?

    - by bakra
    I read about Endianness and understood squat... so I wrote this main() { int k = 0xA5B9BF9F; BYTE *b = (BYTE*)&k; //value at *b is 9f b++; //value at *b is BF b++; //value at *b is B9 b++; //value at *b is A5 } k was equal to "A5 B9 BF 9F" and (byte)pointer "walk" o/p was "9F BF b9 A5" so I get it bytes are stored backwards...ok. ~ so now I thought how is it stored at BIT level... I means is "9f"(1001 1111) stored as "f9"(1111 1001)? so I wrote this int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { int k = 0xA5B9BF9F; void *ptr = &k; bool temp= TRUE; cout<<"ready or not here I come \n"< for(int i=0;i<32;i++) { temp = *( (bool*)ptr + i ); if( temp ) cout<<"1 "; if( !temp) cout<<"0 "; if(i==7||i==15||i==23) cout<<" - "; } } I get some random output even for nos. like "32" I dont get anything sensible. why ?

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  • Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

    - by georryan
    I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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  • Game of life in F# with accelerator

    - by jpalmer
    I'm trying to write life in F# using accelerator v2, but for some odd reason my output isn't square despite all my arrays being square - It appears that everything but a rectangular area in the top left of the matrix is being set to false. I've got no idea how this could be happening as all my operations should treat the entire array equally. Any ideas? open Microsoft.ParallelArrays open System.Windows.Forms open System.Drawing type IPA = IntParallelArray type BPA = BoolParallelArray type PAops = ParallelArrays let RNG = new System.Random() let size = 1024 let arrinit i = Array2D.init size size (fun x y -> i) let target = new DX9Target() let threearr = new IPA(arrinit 3) let twoarr = new IPA(arrinit 2) let onearr = new IPA(arrinit 1) let zeroarr = new IPA(arrinit 0) let shifts = [|-1;-1|]::[|-1;0|]::[|-1;1|]::[|0;-1|]::[|0;1|]::[|1;-1|]::[|1;0|]::[|1;1|]::[] let progress (arr:BPA) = let sums = shifts //adds up whether a neighbor is on or not |> List.fold (fun (state:IPA) t ->PAops.Add(PAops.Cond(PAops.Rotate(arr,t),onearr,zeroarr),state)) zeroarr PAops.Or(PAops.CompareEqual(sums,threearr),PAops.And(PAops.CompareEqual(sums,twoarr),arr)) //rule for life let initrandom () = Array2D.init size size (fun x y -> if RNG.NextDouble() > 0.5 then true else false) type meform () as self= inherit Form() let mutable array = new BoolParallelArray(initrandom()) let timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1.0) //redrawing timer do base.DoubleBuffered <- true do base.Size <- Size(size,size) do timer.Elapsed.Add(fun _ -> self.Invalidate()) do timer.Start() let draw (t:Graphics) = array <- array |> progress let bmap = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(size,size) target.ToArray2D array |> Array2D.iteri (fun x y t -> if not t then bmap.SetPixel(x,y,Color.Black)) t.DrawImageUnscaled(bmap,0,0) do self.Paint.Add(fun t -> draw t.Graphics) do Application.Run(new meform())

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  • jQuery working in everything but IE7. (checked my commas)

    - by deadlyhifi
    The following code works in IE8, FF, Safari, Chrome etc. (not bothering with IE6 for this one), but doesn't work in IE7. I've been through the code with a fine tooth-comb. Checked the commas, messed around with ; but it's not going anywhere. I'm using the jQuery Validate and Uploadify scripts. Can anyone see the problem here? Thanks. <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#validateform").validate({ errorClass: 'invalid', rules: { bike_url: { required: true, url: true } } }) $("#uploadify").uploadify({ 'uploader' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/includes/uploadify/uploadify.swf'; ?>', 'script' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/class/class.uploadify.php'; ?>', 'folder' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/uploads'; ?>', 'cancelImg' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/includes/uploadify/cancel.png'; ?>', 'auto' : true, 'fileDesc' : '.jpg or .png files only please.', 'fileExt' : '*.jpg;*.jpeg;*.png;', 'sizeLimit' : '2097152', 'buttonText': 'Choose Image', 'scriptData': { 'random': '<?php $rand = rand(0, 999999); echo $rand ?>' }, 'onComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { var image = '<?php echo $rand; ?>-' + ((fileObj.name).toLowerCase()).replace(' ', ''); setTimeout(function(){ $(".uploaded").attr('src', '<?php echo $url; ?>/wp-content/plugins/biketest/uploads/s-' + image); }, 500); $("[name=bike_img]").val(image); } }) }); </script>

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  • Help Needed With AJAX Script

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am working on an AJAX script but am having difficulties. First, here is the script: var xmlHttp; function GetXmlHttpObject(){ var objXMLHttp=null if (window.XMLHttpRequest){ objXMLHttp=new XMLHttpRequest() } else if (window.ActiveXObject){ objXMLHttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP") } return objXMLHttp } function retrieveData(){ var jBossServer = new Array(); jBossServer[0] = "d01"; jBossServer[1] = "d02"; jBossServer[2] = "p01"; jBossServer[3] = "p02"; for(var i=0; i<jBossServer.length; i++){ xmlHttp = GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlHttp == null){ alert ("Something weird happened ..."); return; } var url="./retrieveData.php"; url = url + "?jBossID=" + jBossServer[i]; url = url + "&sid=" + Math.random(); xmlHttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlHttp.onreadystatechange = updateMemory; xmlHttp.send(null); } } function updateMemory(){ if (xmlHttp.readyState == 4 || xmlHttp.readyState == "complete"){ aggregateArray = new Array(); aggregateArray = xmlHttp.responseText.split(','); for(var i=0; i<aggregateArray.length; i++){ alert(aggregateArray[i]); } return; } } The "retrieveData.php" page will return data that looks like this: d01,1 MB,2 MB,3 MB They relate to my 4 servers d01, d02, p01, and p02 (dev and prod). What I am doing is scraping the memory information from http://127.0.0.1:8080/web-console/ServerInfo.jsp I want to save code so I attempted to put the AJAX xmlHttp call into a loop, but I don't think it is working. All I ever get back is the information for "p02" four times. Am I able to do what I want or do I need four different functions for each server (i.e., xmlHttpServer01, xmlHttpServer02, xmlHttpServer03, xmlHttpServer04)? Thank you all for reading, have a good day. :)

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  • Help with animating an element in jQuery

    - by alex
    I have an unordered list with a few list elements. #tags { width: 300px; height: 300px; position: relative; border: 1px solid red; list-style: none none; } #tags li { position: absolute; background: gray; } I have also started writing a jQuery plugin to animate the list elements. So far, I place the list elements randomly in the parent container, and choose a random font size for the text. My next step (which I am a bit stuck on) is to animate the list elements... essentially, I want the list elements to do something like this Slide from left to right whilst getting slightly larger up to the middle and then dropping in size back to normal when it hits the right border. Then, it should do the same in reverse, however it should also set a negative 'z-index' and maybe fade in opacity a bit. The first bit I'm really stuck on, is how to determine if the element is near the middle, in a way that I can have a value that starts at 0.1 on the far left hand size and is 1 in the middle and then back to 0.1 on the far right hand size. Basically, I want them to appear as if they are going around in a faux 3D circle into the page. Then I could do something like this $(this).css({ fontSize: percentageTowardsMiddle * 14, }); Do you know how I could do this? Thanks

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  • Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

    - by Mikeage
    I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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  • How do I find a source code position from an address given by a crash in Window CE

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a Windows mobile 4.0 application, written using EVC++ 4.0 SP4 with MFC, that is exhibiting a random occasional crash in the field. e.g. Exception ox800000002 at 00112584. It does not happen under various emulators and simulators, hence is very difficult to trace using a debugger. The crash throws up and address and exception type. Given that I have the PDB is there any way to track this address to the source. I can't recompile using VC++ 8 as it doesn't support the mobile 4 SDK. My guess is that without a stack trace I'm not going to have much joy, as the chances are that the exception may not be in my source. Worth a try all the same. Edit As suggested, I have looked at the address in the context of the .MAP file for the program. This reveals the following Address Publics by Value Rva+Base Lib:Object 0001:00000000 ?GetUnduValue@@YANMM@Z 00011000 f 7Par.obj ' ' ' 0001:001124b8 ?OnLButtonUp@CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp@@UAAHPAVCGXGridCore@@AAVCPoint@@AAI@Z 001234b8 f gxseldrg.obj 0001:001126d8 ?OnSelDragStart@CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp@@UAAHPAVCGXGridCore@@KK@Z 001236d8 f gxseldrg.obj Which suggests the error occured during CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp::OnLButtonUp(), which seems a bit odd as I don't think there was a mouse / keyboard / screen button pressed at the time. Could be the stack got fragged before the crash got reported, and I'm wasting my time. I'll recompile with assembler output to try to isolate it to a given line, but don't hold out much hope :( Does the fact that the map file reports segmented addresses e.g. 0001:xxxxxxxxx and the crash report unsegmented addresses mean I have to carry out some computation to get the map address from the crash address?

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  • Qt Socket blocking functions required to run in QThread where created. Any way past this?

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    The title is very cryptic, so here goes! I am writing a client that behaves in a very synchronous manner. Due to the design of the protocol and the server, everything has to happen sequentially (send request, wait for reply, service reply etc.), so I am using blocking sockets. Here is where Qt comes in. In my application I have a GUI thread, a command processing thread and a scripting engine thread. I create the QTcpSocket in the command processing thread, as part of my Client class. The Client class has various methods that boil down to writing to the socket, reading back a specific number of bytes, and returning a result. The problem comes when I try to directly call Client methods from the scripting engine thread. The Qt sockets randomly time out and when using a debug build of Qt, I get these warnings: QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be enabled from another thread QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be disabled from another thread Anytime I call these methods from the command processing thread (where Client was created), I do not get these problems. To simply phrase the situation: Calling blocking functions of QAbstractSocket, like waitForReadyRead(), from a thread other than the one where the socket was created (dynamically allocated), causes random behaviour and debug asserts/warnings. Anyone else experienced this? Ways around it? Thanks in advance.

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  • How can a program be detected as running?

    - by ryeguy
    I have written a program that is sort of an unofficial, standalone plugin for an application. It allows customers to get a service that is a lower priced alternative then the vendor-owned one. My program is not illegal, against any kind of TOS, and is certainly not a virus, adware, or anything like that. That being said, the vendor of course is not happy about me taking his competition, and is trying to block my application from running. He has already tried some tactics to stop people from running my app alongside his. He makes it so if it is detected, his app throws a fake error. First, he checked to see if my program was running by looking for an open window with the right title. I countered this by randomizing the program title at startup. Next, he looked for the running process name. I countered this by making the app copy itself when it is started as [random string].exe and then running that. Anyways, my question is this: what else can he do to detect if my program running? I know that you can read window text (ie status bar, labels). I'm prepared to counter this by replacing the labels with images (ugh, any other way?). But what else is there? Can you detect what .dlls a program has loaded? If so, could this be solved by randomizing the dll names before loading them? I know that it's possible to get a program's signature in memory and track it that way (like a virus scanner), but the chances of him doing that probably aren't good because that sounds pretty advanced. Even though this is kinda crappy of him to be doing, its kind of fun. It's like a nerdy fist fight. EDIT: When I said it's a plugin, that is just the (incorrect) term I used. It's a standalone EXE. The "API" between my program and the other is mine is simply entering data into the controls (like textboxes, etc).

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  • How can I test that my hash function is good in terms of max-load?

    - by philcolbourn
    I have read through various papers on the 'Balls and Bins' problem and it seems that if a hash function is working right (ie. it is effectively a random distribution) then the following should/must be true if I hash n values into a hash table with n slots (or bins): Probability that a bin is empty, for large n is 1/e. Expected number of empty bins is n/e. Probability that a bin has k collisions is <= 1/k!. Probability that a bin has at least k collisions is <= (e/k)**k. These look easy to check. But the max-load test (the maximum number of collisions with high probability) is usually stated vaguely. Most texts state that the maximum number of collisions in any bin is O( ln(n) / ln(ln(n)) ). Some say it is 3*ln(n) / ln(ln(n)). Other papers mix ln and log - usually without defining them, or state that log is log base e and then use ln elsewhere. Is ln the log to base e or 2 and is this max-load formula right and how big should n be to run a test? This lecture seems to cover it best, but I am no mathematician. http://pages.cs.wisc.edu/~shuchi/courses/787-F07/scribe-notes/lecture07.pdf BTW, with high probability seems to mean 1 - 1/n.

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  • is this uibutton autoreleased ?

    - by dubbeat
    HI This is just a question to check my sanity really. I'm hunting memory leaks that show up in instruments but not the static analyzer. In one spot the analyzer is pointing to this block of code UIButton *randomButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect ]; randomButton.frame = CGRectMake(205, 145, 90, 22); // size and position of button [randomButton setTitle:@"Random" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; randomButton.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; randomButton.adjustsImageWhenHighlighted = YES; [randomButton addTarget:self action:@selector(getrandom:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self.view addSubview:randomButton]; For some reason I thought the above code would auto release the button because I'm not calling init or alloc? If I add [randombutton release] at the bottom of the code my button fails to show. Could somebody describe to me the correct way to release a button from memory that is created in the above way? Or would I be better off making the button a class variable and sticking the release in the dealloc method?

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  • How to generate a key for a group entity?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to make a group entity. Something like: class User { } class UserColor { } ... Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username). .addChild(UserColor.class.getSimpleName(), ???).getKey(); I know the unique username up-front to use for the key of the User object. But I just want app engine to generate a random unique value for the key value of the UserColor instance. I think this is described here, but I don't understand their wording: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html To create an object with a system-generated numeric ID and an entity group parent, you must use an entity group parent key field (such as customerKey, above). Assign the key of the parent to the parent key field, then leave the object's key field set to null. When the object is saved, the datastore populates the key field with the complete key, including the entity group parent. and this is their example: @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key customerKey; but I don't understand - should UserColor look like this then?: class UserColor { @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key mKeyParent; @Primary private Key mKey; // leave null } ... Key keyParent = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username); UserColor uc = new UserColor(); uc.setKeyParent(keyParent); pm.makePersistent(uc); // now generated for me automatically? is that correct? Using this method, I should be able to use a User and a UserColor object in a transaction together, right? Thanks

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  • VS2008 - Find and Replace - Searches too many files.

    - by Pam Bullock
    I've used VS2008 a lot and have never had this problem. However, I started a new job and am using a new machine. Ever since I've gotten here the VS Find feature has been acting funny. I first noticed it when I did a replace all for "All Open Files". The project wouldn't build because the values had actually been replaced in other files within the solution that were not open and didn't even open after I pressed replace all. I have found that I can never use replace all on this machine because I never know what it is going to do. Even if I just do a find on "Current Document", once it's done with the document and I should get that message that says "No more matches found" it actually OPENS another random file from my solution where there is a match and keeps on going. It seems to never make any difference what "Look in" option I've chosen. My coworker has an install off the same disk and claims to not be experiencing this. We're in the middle of a stressful, huge project with a close deadline so I know my boss won't let me do a reinstall. Has anyone else ever had this happen? Anyone know a fix?? Thanks, Pam

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  • Are licenses relevant for small code snippets?

    - by Martin
    When I'm about to write a short algorithm, I first check in the base class library I'm using whether the algorithm is implemented in it. If not, I often do a quick google search to see if someone has done it before (which is the case, 19 times out of 20). Most of the time, I find the exact code I need. Sometimes it's clear what license applies to the source code, sometimes not. It may be GPL, LGPL, BSD or whatever. Sometimes people have posted a code snippet on some random forum which solves my problem. It's clear to me that I can't reuse the code (copy/paste it into my code) without caring about the license if the code is in some way substantial. What is not clear to me is whether I can copy a code snippet containing 5 lines or so without doing a license violation. Can I copy/paste a 5-line code snippet without caring about the license? What about one-liner? What about 10 lines? Where do I draw the line (no pun intended)? My second problem is that if I have found a 10-line code snippet which does exactly what I need, but feel that I cannot copy it because it's GPL-licensed and my software isn't, I have already memorized how to implement it so when I go around implementing the same functionality, my code is almost identical to the GPL licensed code I saw a few minutes ago. (In other words, the code was copied to my brain and my brain after that copied it into my source code).

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