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  • Nested ListBox in DataGrid? Inherit style?

    - by Chris
    I have a DataGrid with multiple columns. The data grid has a style that changes the forecolor of text on a row where the mouse is over or the row has been selected. So the text color will change from black to white, for example. In one of the columns in the data grid, I have a ListBox. Is it possible for the items in the list box to have the foreground change to that of the data grid row, when you do mouse over or select the data grid row? I don't want to have a style for the list box that is specific to mouse over for the list items, I just want the foreground of the list items to change automatically to the forground of the data grid row when the mouse is over the row or selected the row. So even if the user moves their mouse over a different column (that doesn't contain the listbox) - I would want the foreground for the listbox to change. How can I go about doing this? ValueConverter? Thanks. Chris

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  • Can I add a condition to CakePHP's update statement?

    - by Don Kirkby
    Since there doesn't seem to be any support for optimistic locking in CakePHP, I'm taking a stab at building a behaviour that implements it. After a little research into behaviours, I think I could run a query in the beforeSave event to check that the version field hasn't changed. However, I'd rather implement the check by changing the update statement's WHERE clause from WHERE id = ? to WHERE id = ? and version = ? This way I don't have to worry about other requests changing the database record between the time I read the version and the time I execute the update. It also means I can do one database call instead of two. I can see that the DboSource.update() method supports conditions, but Model.save() never passes any conditions to it. It seems like I have a couple of options: Do the check in beforeSave() and live with the fact that it's not bulletproof. Hack my local copy of CakePHP to check for a conditions key in the options array of Model.save() and pass it along to the DboSource.update() method. Right now, I'm leaning in favour of the second option, but that means I can't share my behaviour with other users unless they apply my hack to their framework. Have I missed an easier option?

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  • Streamlining my javascript with a function

    - by liz
    i have a series of select lists, that i am using to populate text boxes with ids. so you click a select option and another text box is filled with its id. with just one select/id pair this works fine, but i have multiples, and the only thing that changes is the id of the select and input.. in fact just the ending changes, the inputs all start with featredproductid and the select ids all start with recipesproduct and then both end with the category. i know that listing this over and over for each category is not the way to do it. i think i need to make an array of the categories var cats = ['olive oil', "grains", "pasta"] and then use a forEach function? maybe? here is the clunky code window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('recipesproductoliveoil').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidoliveoil").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductgrains').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidgrains").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductpasta').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidpasta").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductpantry').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidpantry").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); }); keep in mind this is mootools 1.1 (no i cant update it sorry). i am sure this is kind of basic, something i seem to have wrapping my brain around. but i am quite sure doing it as above is not really good...

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  • Starting and stopping firefox from c#

    - by Lucas Meijer
    When I start /Applications/Firefox.app/Contents/MacOS/firefox-bin on MacOSX using Process.Start() using Mono, the id of the process that gets returned does not match the process that firefox ends up running under. It looks like firefox quickly decides to start another process, and kill the current one. This makes it difficult to stop firefox, and to detect if it is still running. I've tried starting firefox using the -no-remote flag, to no avail. Is there a way to start firefox in such a way that it doesn't do this "I'll quickly make a new process for you" dance? The situation can somewhat be detected by making sure Firefox keeps on running for at least 3 seconds after its start, and when it does not, scan for other firefox processes. However, this technique is shaky at best, as on slow days it might take a bit more than 3 seconds, and then all tests depending on this behaviour fail. It turns out, that this behaviour only happens when asking firefox to start a specific profile using -P MyProfile. (Which I need to do, as I need to start firefox with specific proxyserver settings) If I start firefox "normally" it does stick to its process.

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  • Diagnosing IIS Shutdowns

    - by Tom Ritter
    Symptoms: I attach a debugger, I wait a little while, it automatically detaches I watch the event log during normal operation - after a single request comes in, it waits a little bit, the shuts down Disagnosing. I've followed the following steps for logging shutdowns in IIS: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2005/12/14/433194.aspx http://blogs.msdn.com/tess/archive/2006/08/02/asp-net-case-study-lost-session-variables-and-appdomain-recycles.aspx I know these are working because... What I see in the Event Logs when I change the web.config: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=IIS configuration change HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown CONFIG change CONFIG change HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table But it doesn't help because the mysetery error doesn't tell me anything. I see the same thing as from before I added this extra logging: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Anyone have any ideas for more debugging?

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  • Compile time float packing/punning

    - by detly
    I'm writing C for the PIC32MX, compiled with Microchip's PIC32 C compiler (based on GCC 3.4). My problem is this: I have some reprogrammable numeric data that is stored either on EEPROM or in the program flash of the chip. This means that when I want to store a float, I have to do some type punning: typedef union { int intval; float floatval; } IntFloat; unsigned int float_as_int(float fval) { IntFloat intf; intf.floatval = fval; return intf.intval; } // Stores an int of data in whatever storage we're using void StoreInt(unsigned int data, unsigned int address); void StoreFPVal(float data, unsigned int address) { StoreInt(float_as_int(data), address); } I also include default values as an array of compile time constants. For (unsigned) integer values this is trivial, I just use the integer literal. For floats, though, I have to use this Python snippet to convert them to their word representation to include them in the array: import struct hex(struct.unpack("I", struct.pack("f", float_value))[0]) ...and so my array of defaults has these indecipherable values like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 0x3C83126F, // Some default float value, 0.005 } (These actually take the form of X macro constructs, but that doesn't make a difference here.) Commenting is nice, but is there a better way? It's be great to be able to do something like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 COMPILE_TIME_CONVERT(0.005), // Some default float value, 0.005 } ...but I'm completely at a loss, and I don't even know if such a thing is possible. Notes Obviously "no, it isn't possible" is an acceptable answer if true. I'm not overly concerned about portability, so implementation defined behaviour is fine, undefined behaviour is not (I have the IDB appendix sitting in front of me). As fas as I'm aware, this needs to be a compile time conversion, since DEFAULTS is in the global scope. Please correct me if I'm wrong about this.

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  • C dynamic memory allocation for table of structs

    - by JosiP
    Hi here is my code. I want to dynamincly change no of elemnts in table with structs __state: typedef struct __state{ long int timestamp; int val; int prev_value; }*state_p, state_t; int main(int argc, char **argv){ int zm; int previous_state = 0; int state = 0; int i = 0; int j; state_p st; //here i want to have 20 structs st. st = (state_p) malloc(sizeof(state_t) * 20); while(1){ previous_state = state; scanf("%d", &state); printf("%d, %d\n", state, previous_state); if (previous_state != state){ printf("state changed %d %d\n", previous_state, state); // here i got compile error: main.c: In function ‘main’: main.c:30: error: incompatible type for argument 1 of ‘save_state’ main.c:34: error: invalid type argument of ‘->’ main.c:34: error: invalid type argument of ‘->’ save_state(st[i],previous_state, state); } i++; } return 0; } I suppose i have to change that st[i] to smth like st+ptr ? where pointer is incermeting in each loop iteration ? Or am I wrong ? When i change code: initialization into state_p st[20] and in each loop iteration i put st[i] = (state_p)malloc(sizeof(state_t)) everything works fine, but i want to dynammicly change number of elemets in that table. Thx in advance for any help

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  • New projects not built when target platform is set explicitly

    - by stiank81
    I create a new solution with one project, and then change the target platform from "Any CPU" to "x86". After this new projects added doesn't get built by default, and their target platform doesn't follow the global settings. Why?! Looking at the configuration manager new projects added are not checked to "Build", and they get target platform "Any CPU" instead of the globally set x86. Why is this happening? I expect new projects too to get the globally set and defined x86 target platform.. Some things I've tried: Toggle global platform back to Any CPU, and then to x86 again. No change.. Choosing platform explicitly for the new project. x86 is not available in the list, and when I say <New..> and try adding it I'm not allowed as ".. a solution platform with the same name already exists.". On the build properties for the new project I can't change the platform in the Configuration section, but I can set "Platform target" to x86 in the General section. It is however not clear whether this actually makes a difference, and it wouldn't respond if I change the target platform globally later. Initially I thought this was a problem from converting my solution from VS2008 to VS2010, but the problem applies both places. I.e. when I create a solution in VS2008 and just stay in VS2008 I still get the problem.

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  • ASP .NET page runs slow in production

    - by Brandi
    I have created an ASP .NET page that works flawlessly and quickly from Visual Studio. It does a very large database read from a database on our network to load a gridview inside of an update panel. It displays progress in an Ajax modalpopupextender. Of course I don't expect it to be instant what with the large db reads, but it takes on the order of seconds, not on the order of minutes. This is all working great until I put it up on the server - it is very, VERY slow when I access it via the internet - takes several minutes to load the database information into the gridview. I'm baffled why it would not perform the exact same as it had from Visual Studio. (It is in release mode and I have taken off the debug flag) I have since been trying things like eliminating unneeded update panels and throwing out the ajax tool. Nothing has made it any faster on production. It is not the database as far as I know, since it has been consistently fast from my computer (from visual studio) and consistently slow from the server. I am wondering, where do I look next? Has anyone else had this problem before? Could this be caused by update panels or Ajax modalpopupextenders in different parts of the application? Why would the live behaviour differ so much from the localhost behaviour? Both the server with the ASP .NET page and the server with the database are servers on our network. I'm using Visual Studio 2008. Thank you in advance for any insight or advice.

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  • Most efficient way to update attribute of one instance

    - by Begbie00
    Hi all - I'm creating an arbitrary number of instances (using for loops and ranges). At some event in the future, I need to change an attribute for only one of the instances. What's the best way to do this? Right now, I'm doing the following: 1) Manage the instances in a list. 2) Iterate through the list to find a key value. 3) Once I find the right object within the list (i.e. key value = value I'm looking for), change whatever attribute I need to change. for Instance within ListofInstances: if Instance.KeyValue == SearchValue: Instance.AttributeToChange = 10 This feels really inefficient: I'm basically iterating over the entire list of instances, even through I only need to change an attribute in one of them. Should I be storing the Instance references in a structure more suitable for random access (e.g. dictionary with KeyValue as the dictionary key?) Is a dictionary any more efficient in this case? Should I be using something else? Thanks, Mike

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  • OO - inheritance vs. decoration problem

    - by Karel J
    Hi all, I have an OOP-related question. I have an interface, say: class MyInterface { public int getValue(); } In my project, this interface is implemented by 7 implementations: class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { ... } ... class MyImplementation7 implements MyInterface { ... } These implementations are used by several different modules. For some modules, the behaviour of the MyInterface must be adjusted slightly. Let's that it must return the value of the implementator + 1 (for the sake of example). I solved this by creating a little decorator: class MyDifferentInterface implements MyInterface { private MyInterface i; public MyDifferentInterface(MyInterface i) { this.i = i; } public int getValue() { return i.getValue() + 1; } } This does the job. Here is my problem: one of the modules doesn't accept an MyInterface parameter, but MyImplementation4 directly. The reason for this is that this module needs specific behaviour of MyImplementation4, which are not covered by the interface MyInterface on itself. But, and here comes the difficulty, this module must also work on the modified version of MyImplementation4. That is, getValue() must return +1; What is the best way to solve this? I fail to come up with a solution which does not include lots of code duplicates. Please note that although the example above is pretty small and simple, the interface and the decorator is quite large and complicated. Thanks a lot all.

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  • How to make std::vector's operator[] compile doing bounds checking in DEBUG but not in RELEASE

    - by Edison Gustavo Muenz
    I'm using Visual Studio 2008. I'm aware that std::vector has bounds checking with the at() function and has undefined behaviour if you try to access something using the operator [] incorrectly (out of range). I'm curious if it's possible to compile my program with the bounds checking. This way the operator[] would use the at() function and throw a std::out_of_range whenever something is out of bounds. The release mode would be compiled without bounds checking for operator[], so the performance doesn't degrade. I came into thinking about this because I'm migrating an app that was written using Borland C++ to Visual Studio and in a small part of the code I have this (with i=0, j=1): v[i][j]; //v is a std::vector<std::vector<int> > The size of the vector 'v' is [0][1] (so element 0 of the vector has only one element). This is undefined behaviour, I know, but Borland is returning 0 here, VS is crashing. I like the crash better than returning 0, so if I can get more 'crashes' by the std::out_of_range exception being thrown, the migration would be completed faster (so it would expose more bugs that Borland was hiding).

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  • delphi app freezes whole win7 system

    - by avar
    Hello i have a simple program that sorts a text file according to length of words per line this program works without problems in my xp based old machine now i run this program on my new win7/intel core i5 machine, it freezes whole system and back normal after it finishes it's work. i'v invastigated the code and found the line causing the freeze it was this specific line... caption := IntToStr(i) + '..' + IntTostr(ii); i'v changed it to caption := IntTostr(ii); //slow rate change and there is no freeze and then i'v changed it to caption := IntTostr(i); //fast rate change and it freeze again my main complete procedure code is var tword : widestring; i,ii,li : integer; begin tntlistbox1.items.LoadFromFile('d:\new folder\ch.txt'); tntlistbox2.items.LoadFromFile('d:\new folder\uy.txt'); For ii := 15 Downto 1 Do //slow change Begin For I := 0 To TntListBox1.items.Count - 1 Do //very fast change Begin caption := IntToStr(i) + '..' + IntTostr(ii); //problemetic line tword := TntListBox1.items[i]; LI := Length(tword); If lI = ii Then Begin tntlistbox3.items.Add(Trim(tntlistbox1.Items[i])); tntlistbox4.items.Add(Trim(tntlistbox2.Items[i])); End; End; End; end; any idea why ? and how to fix it? i use delphi 2007/win32

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  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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  • Animation is slow on iPhone

    - by Anthony Chan
    I'm developing an app that would display images and change them according to the user's action. I've created a subclass of UIView to contain an image, an index number and an array of image names. The code is like this: @interface CustomPic : UIView { UIImageView *pic; NSInteger index; NSMutableArray *picNames; //<-- an array of NSString } And in the implementation part, it has a method to change the image using a dissolve effect. - (void)nextPic { index++; if (index >= [picNames count]) { index = 0; } UIImageView *temp = pic; pic.image = [UIImage imageNamed:[picNames objectAtIndex:index]]; temp.alpha = 0; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.25]; pic.alpha = 0; temp.alpha = 1; [UIView commitAnimations]; } In the viewController, there are several CustomPic which would change the images depends on users' choice. The images would change as expected with the fade in/out effect, but the animation performance is really bad. I've tested it on an iPhone 3G, the Instruments shows that the animation is only 2-3FPS! I tried many methods to simplify and modify the codes but with no hope. Is there something wrong in my code or in my concept? Thanks for any help. P.S. all the images are 320*480 PNGs with a max size of 15KB.

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  • How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

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  • How to use AJAX to populate state list depending on Country list?

    - by jasondavis
    I have the code below that will change a state dropdown list when you change the country list. How can I make it change the state list ONLY when country ID number 2234 and 224 are selected? If another country is selected is should change into this text input box <input type="text" name="othstate" value="" class="textBox"> The form <form method="post" name="form1"> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="country" onchange="getState(this.value)"> <option>Select Country</option> <option value="223">USA</option> <option value="224">Canada</option> <option value="225">England</option> <option value="226">Ireland</option> </select> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="state"> <option>Select Country First</option> </select> The javascript <script> function getState(countryId) { var strURL="findState.php?country="+countryId; var req = getXMLHTTP(); if (req) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { // only if "OK" if (req.status == 200) { document.getElementById('statediv').innerHTML=req.responseText; } else { alert("There was a problem while using XMLHTTP:\n" + req.statusText); } } } req.open("GET", strURL, true); req.send(null); } } </script>

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  • Can I specify default value?

    - by atch
    Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

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  • JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate

    - by Rooh
    I have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some reference classes and then my porblem. @MappedSuperclass public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } @Entity public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } @Entity public class Child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } @Entity public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate

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  • How to make Solution Explorer behave after clearing search?

    - by stijn
    I currently have a VS installation with no extensions to see how that works out. For navigation that means making heavy use of Ctrl+; aka Search Solution Explorer. While the search itself is ok, it has one major drawback for me that makes it a pain to use for me (both with keyboard and mouse): Solution with two projects, one collapsed, one opened: Use Ctrl+; and start typing until match found from collapsed project What I want now is to simply clear the search and return to the previous view. Seems like a pretty standard requirement, no? But there seems to be no such functionality built in. Problem with the current commands that come close (pressing Esc, clicking Back or Home buttons in Solution Explorer Toolbar) is all the same: they have the extremely annoying behaviour that they insist on suddenly uncollapsing the previously collapsed project and track the match found! (Btw the Track Active Item in Solution Explorer option is turned of in the options). This makes no sense from a UX point of view? You select some kind of 'undo' command, the search box clears which is expected, but then suddenly there's an item visible from a previous search: So if the collapsed project has like 50 items in it, solution explorer is now useless visually since it litters the screen with stuff you don't want to see, and worse you have to manually collapse the project again to return to the previous view. Is there a way around this? I thought maybe keyboard shortcuts for Back/Home would be different, but the commands do not seem to be registered. I looked into EnvDTE80.DTE2.ToolWindows.SolutionExplorer but it has no properties/methods that have anything to do with this issue. And somewhere in the tree there is a Microsoft.VisualStudio.PlatformUI.SolutionPivotNavigator which is probably the class responsible for this behaviour, but I have no idea how to access it?

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  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

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  • Visual Studio hangs when deploying a cube

    - by Richie
    Hello All, I'm having an issue with an Analysis Services project in Visual Studio 2005. My project always builds but only occasionally deploys. No errors are reported and VS just hangs. This is my first Analysis Services project so I am hoping that there is something obvious that I am just missing. Here is the situation I have a cube that I have successfully deployed. I then make some change, e.g., adding a hierarchy to a dimension. When I try to deploy again VS hangs. I have to restart Analysis Services to regain control of VS so I can shut it down. I restart everything sometimes once, sometimes twice or more before the project will eventually deploy. This happens with any change I make there seems to be no pattern to this behaviour. Sometimes I have to delete the cube from Analysis Services before restarting everything to get a successful deploy. Also I have successfully deployed the cube, and then subsequently successfully reprocessed a dimension then when I open a query window in SQL Server Management Studio it says that it can find any cubes. As a test I have deployed a cube successfully. I have then deleted it in Analysis Services and attempted to redeploy it, without making any changes to the cube, only to have the same behaviour mentioned above. VS just hangs with no reason so I have no idea where to start hunting down the problem. It is taking 15-20 minutes to make a change as simple as setting the NameColumn of a dimension attribute. As you can imagine this is taking hours of my time so I would greatly appreciate any assistance anyone can give me.

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  • Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible?

    - by fyasar
    I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • Why am I losing my characters from my html string when trying to add html dynamically using javascri

    - by Hamman359
    I have a page that I am trying to dynamically add some links to. The links are getting added to the page fine, but the '[' and ']' at either end of the line are getting dropped. The code from my .js file is: var html = "[ <a href='#'>Change</a>&nbsp;|&nbsp;<a href='#'>Remove </a> ]"; $(html).appendTo("#id123"); The result I want is: [ <a href='#'>Change</a>&nbsp;|&nbsp;<a href='#'>Remove</a> ] The result I'm getting is: <a href='#'>Change</a>&nbsp;|&nbsp;<a href='#'>Remove</a> If I wrap the line in a <span> tag like so: var html = "<span>[ <a href='#'>Change</a>&nbsp;|&nbsp;<a href='#'>Remove </a> ]</span>"; $(html).appendTo("#id123"); it renders as expected. I set a breakpoint on the code and checked the html var right before the .appendTo and it contains the '[' and ']'. Anyone know why this is happening? Are '[' and ']' special character that need escaped and I'm just forgetting that fact?

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