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• Windows 7 disk errors after a few hours of runtime

  - by GFK

  I'm having trouble understanding what is going on with my work PC. Whenever I boot it, it runs fine for a while, then starts to randomly show disk errors. The displayed error often contains the message "not enough storage is available to process this command", although depending on the application that fails it can be different. This has happened for weeks now and is getting worse. This is what troubles me: It never seems to impact critical parts of the system (no BSOD, no freeze). Only some applications seem impacted, refusing to function correctly after a while: Outlook 2010 cannot download RSS feeds anymore, Firefox 6 or IE9 cannot download anything bigger than 3MB without failing, Windows Update fails, all msi installers fail, Visual Studio 2010 starts failing in weird manners... It only happens after a while using it (typically 3 hours, but it seems that installing a program or compiling several times makes it shorter) Rebooting solves it (temporarily). The system: The OS is Windows 7 Pro Spanish SP1, 32 bits The system is an HP Compaq 6000 Pro with 4 GB memory (only 3.4GB usable since the system is 32bit), one 500GB hard drive. Installed applications include: Visual Studio 2010, SQL Server 2008 R2, VMWare Workstation 7, Microsoft Security Essentials, Office 2010. Shutting down all related services and processes doesn't seem to change anything. The diagnostics I've run so far: Hard drive : 465GB, 165GB free Process Explorer : physical and virtual memory seem ok (pagefile is 5.3GB, physical memory usage 70%, system commit 39%) Windows Memory diagnostic tool: OK CHKDSK returned: 488282111 KB total disk space. 281668248 KB in 265779 files. 150188 KB in 62949 indexes. 0 KB in bad sectors. 571755 KB in use by the system. The log file has occupied 65536 kilobytes. 205891920 KB available on disk. For non-spanish speakers, that means all ok. SMART diagnostic tools (DiskCheckup) report all values normal. temperatures are in the normal range (HWinfo). The event viewer doesn't seem to contain any significant message. ran CCleaner 3, without any noticeable effect. I was thinking about some file number limit (between Visual Studio projects and other applications, there are around 300.000 files on the hard drive), but I couldn't find any. It's possible there is something related with the use of the temporary folders (it's the only explanation I have for why applications fail but Windows doesn't), but I cannot confirm that. Only thing I cannot find out is if chkdsk reporting 65MB for the log is normal. It seems since Vista it always reports this. Any other cleaning/diagnostic tool you might know of? Edit: I ran several other tools since I first published the question: Seagate SeaTools (the HD manufacturer's analysis tool): complete test run OK. Intel Rapid 10.1 (the HD controller manufacturer's troubleshooting tool): the HD's ok. Microsoft Desktop Heap Monitor: Desktop Heap Information Monitor Tool (Version 8.1.2925.0) Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Session ID: 1 Total Desktop: ( 46464 KB - 11 desktops) WinStation\Desktop Heap Size(KB) Used Rate(%) WinSta0\Winlogon (s1) 128 3.6 WinSta0\Disconnect (s1) 64 3.8 WinSta0\Default (s1) 20480 3.0 msswindowstation\mssrestricteddesk (s0) 1024 0.2 __X78B95_89_IW__A8D9S1_42_ID (s0) 1024 0.2 Service-0x0-3e5$\Default (s0) 1024 0.6 Service-0x0-3e4$\Default (s0) 1024 0.3 Service-0x0-3e7$\Default (s0) 1024 2.1 WinSta0\Winlogon (s0) 128 1.9 WinSta0\Disconnect (s0) 64 3.8 WinSta0\Default (s0) 20480 0.0 All ok, desktop heap usage < 5% Edit 2: I tried totally resetting my account by creating a new one, logging under this new one and delete the first one (local rights and files), then logging back with this deleted account (it is a domain account). No luck. Also, I found out often the error is "not enough storage is available to process this command". Searching on the internet, I found an old troubleshooting tip (setting a registry key to raise the IRP stack limit, whatever it is) which did not change anything.

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• Log transport and aggregation at scale

  - by markdrayton

  How're you analysing log files from UNIX/Linux machines? We run several hundred servers which all generate their own log files, either directly or through syslog. I'm looking for a decent solution to aggregate these and pick out important events. This problem breaks down into 3 components: 1) Message transport The classic way is to use syslog to log messages to a remote host. This works fine for applications that log into syslog but less useful for apps that write to a local file. Solutions for this might include having the application log into a FIFO connected to a program to send the message using syslog, or by writing something that will grep the local files and send the output to the central syslog host. However, if we go to the trouble of writing tools to get messages into syslog would we be better replacing the whole lot with something like Facebook's Scribe which offers more flexibility and reliability than syslog? 2) Message aggregation Log entries seem to fall into one of two types: per-host and per-service. Per-host messages are those which occur on one machine; think disk failures or suspicious logins. Per-service messages occur on most or all of the hosts running a service. For instance, we want to know when Apache finds an SSI error but we don't want the same error from 100 machines. In all cases we only want to see one of each type of message: we don't want 10 messages saying the same disk has failed, and we don't want a message each time a broken SSI is hit. One approach to solving this is to aggregate multiple messages of the same type into one on each host, send the messages to a central server and then aggregate messages of the same kind into one overall event. SER can do this but it's awkward to use. Even after a couple of days of fiddling I had only rudimentary aggregations working and had to constantly look up the logic SER uses to correlate events. It's powerful but tricky stuff: I need something which my colleagues can pick up and use in the shortest possible time. SER rules don't meet that requirement. 3) Generating alerts How do we tell our admins when something interesting happens? Mail the group inbox? Inject into Nagios? So, how're you solving this problem? I don't expect an answer on a plate; I can work out the details myself but some high-level discussion on what is surely a common problem would be great. At the moment we're using a mishmash of cron jobs, syslog and who knows what else to find events. This isn't extensible, maintainable or flexible and as such we miss a lot of stuff we shouldn't. Updated: we're already using Nagios for monitoring which is great for detected down hosts/testing services/etc but less useful for scraping log files. I know there are log plugins for Nagios but I'm interested in something more scalable and hierarchical than per-host alerts.

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• Backup, Migrate or Clone Failing CentOS 4 (LVM)

  - by Hegelworm

  I've been running a BlueQuartz CentOS 4 system (Nuonce.net distro) for a few years now and although the hard drive (Deskstar) has always been a bit noisy, on a few recent occasions I've heard it having trouble spinning up. Basically, I want to clone this drive to a similar sized one (80 Gig). I've spent many hours reading upon dd, dd_rescue, rsync, clonezilla and LVM mirroring yet the sheer number of options and nightmarish accounts has left me frozen - unable to make an informed decision as to how to start. I've made a few attempts. dd failed after about 2 hours, as, although the drives appeared to be identical on the surface (ATA Seagate Barracudas, Thai not Chinese), the destination drive is slightly smaller. My most recent attempt involved using a Debian CD to format the new drive and then rsync-ing everything over and editing the new drive's grub and fstab to reflect the changes. No joy here either as I hadn't chosen LVM when partitioning the destination drive and it wouldn't boot. As you can probably tell, I'm out of my depth here and a panic-invoking mixture of caution and frustration has prompted me to sign up here. The server itself, although not strictly a production environment, has a very specific installation of Festival, LAME and ffMpeg and provides the back-end for a Text-to-Speech jQuery plugin that I've built over the last 2 years. I'm also planning to rebuild the whole TTS system on Debian as the existing CentOS system still has PHP4 etc. For now though, I'd really like to just shift everything over to a new drive. As this is my first post, please feel free to lay any house rules on me that I might've overlooked; I've been hovering around StackOverflow for a while now but have only just signed up. Many thanks. Update: Thanks for your responses so far - it's much appreciated and makes me feel a little more confident when I can double-check things here. I had the idea of doing a fresh install of CentOS (from the original disk) on the new drive so the partitions and LVM were all set up correctly (after disconnecting my source drive to prevent painful mistakes). I then booted into rescue mode from the same CD, and, to avoid a conflicting label, changed the /boot partition's label using e2label to /bootnew. I then changed the VolGroup name using lvm vgrename from VolGroup00 to VolGroup001. I could then boot with both drives in. After mounting the new drive (via its VolGroup001 alias) into /newhd, I rsync-ed over everything I could to the new drive, using -avr switches and backslashes. Like mentioned here. I then disconnected my original source drive again, booted from the liveCD again, changed back the boot partition label from /bootnew to /boot using e2label and then renamed the VolGroup back to VolGroup00. I then rebooted and it went through the familiar start-up routine only to not find a host of files in proc, usr, lib, var etc. The boot did complete but there were lots of red 'FAILS'. I could log in with my existing creds, but the network was kaput, I couldn't startX (desktop GUI) and there were also a few (a lot) of error messages pertaining to iptables. Back to square one. I naively thought I'd nailed it. Shall I just buy a bigger hard drive and attempt the dd route? I've read that this can mess with LVM setups and there's the added risk of working on two unmounted drives at once with a low-level tool. Thanks again.

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• Android - How do I load a contact Photo?

  - by PaulH

  I'm having trouble loading a photo for a contact in Android. I've googled for an answer, but so far have come up empty. Does anyone have an example of querying for a Contact, then loading the Photo? So, given a contactUri which comes from an Activity result called using startActivityForResult(new Intent(Intent.ACTION_PICK,ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.CONTENT_URI),PICK_CONTACT_REQUEST) is: content://com.android.contacts/data/1557 The loadContact(..) works fine. However when I call the getPhoto(...) method, I get a null value for the photo InputStream. It is also confusing because the URI values are different. The contactPhotoUri evaluates to: content://com.android.contacts/contacts/1557 See the comments inline in the code below. class ContactAccessor { /** * Retrieves the contact information. */ public ContactInfo loadContact(ContentResolver contentResolver, Uri contactUri) { //contactUri --> content://com.android.contacts/data/1557 ContactInfo contactInfo = new ContactInfo(); // Load the display name for the specified person Cursor cursor = contentResolver.query(contactUri, new String[]{Contacts._ID, Contacts.DISPLAY_NAME, Phone.NUMBER, Contacts.PHOTO_ID}, null, null, null); try { if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { contactInfo.setId(cursor.getLong(0)); contactInfo.setDisplayName(cursor.getString(1)); contactInfo.setPhoneNumber(cursor.getString(2)); } } finally { cursor.close(); } return contactInfo; // <-- returns info for contact } public Bitmap getPhoto(ContentResolver contentResolver, Long contactId) { Uri contactPhotoUri = ContentUris.withAppendedId(Contacts.CONTENT_URI, contactId); // contactPhotoUri --> content://com.android.contacts/contacts/1557 InputStream photoDataStream = Contacts.openContactPhotoInputStream(contentResolver,contactPhotoUri); // <-- always null Bitmap photo = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(photoDataStream); return photo; } public class ContactInfo { private long id; private String displayName; private String phoneNumber; private Uri photoUri; public void setDisplayName(String displayName) { this.displayName = displayName; } public String getDisplayName() { return displayName; } public void setPhoneNumber(String phoneNumber) { this.phoneNumber = phoneNumber; } public String getPhoneNumber() { return phoneNumber; } public Uri getPhotoUri() { return this.photoUri; } public void setPhotoUri(Uri photoUri) { this.photoUri = photoUri; } public long getId() { return this.id; } public void setId(long id) { this.id = id; } } } Clearly, I'm doing something wrong here, but I can't seem to figure out what the problem is. Thanks.

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• Creating Entity Framework objects with Unity for Unit of Work/Repository pattern

  - by TobyEvans

  Hi there, I'm trying to implement the Unit of Work/Repository pattern, as described here: http://blogs.msdn.com/adonet/archive/2009/06/16/using-repository-and-unit-of-work-patterns-with-entity-framework-4-0.aspx This requires each Repository to accept an IUnitOfWork implementation, eg an EF datacontext extended with a partial class to add an IUnitOfWork interface. I'm actually using .net 3.5, not 4.0. My basic Data Access constructor looks like this: public DataAccessLayer(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, IRealtimeRepository realTimeRepository) { this.unitOfWork = unitOfWork; this.realTimeRepository = realTimeRepository; } So far, so good. What I'm trying to do is add Dependency Injection using the Unity Framework. Getting the EF data context to be created with Unity was an adventure, as it had trouble resolving the constructor - what I did in the end was to create another constructor in my partial class with a new overloaded constructor, and marked that with [InjectionConstructor] [InjectionConstructor] public communergyEntities(string connectionString, string containerName) :this() { (I know I need to pass the connection string to the base object, that can wait until once I've got all the objects initialising correctly) So, using this technique, I can happily resolve my entity framework object as an IUnitOfWork instance thus: using (IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer()) { container.RegisterType<IUnitOfWork, communergyEntities>(); container.Configure<InjectedMembers>() .ConfigureInjectionFor<communergyEntities>( new InjectionConstructor("a", "b")) DataAccessLayer target = container.Resolve<DataAccessLayer>(); Great. What I need to do now is create the reference to the repository object for the DataAccessLayer - the DAL only needs to know the interface, so I'm guessing that I need to instantiate it as part of the Unity Resolve statement, passing it the appropriate IUnitOfWork interface. In the past, I would have just passed the Repository constructor the db connection string, and it would have gone away, created a local Entity Framework object and used that just for the lifetime of the Repository method. This is different, in that I create an Entity Framework instance as an IUnitOfWork implementation during the Unity Resolve statement, and it's that instance I need to pass into the constructor of the Repository - is that possible, and if so, how? I'm wondering if I could make the Repository a property and mark it as a Dependency, but that still wouldn't solve the problem of how to create the Repository with the IUnitOfWork object that the DAL is being Resolved with I'm not sure if I've understood this pattern correctly, and will happily take advice on the best way to implement it - Entity Framework is staying, but Unity can be swapped out if not the best approach. If I've got the whole thing upside down, please tell me thanks

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• ASP.NET 3.5 GridView - row editing - dynamic binding to a DropDownList

  - by marc_s

  This is driving me crazy :-) I'm trying to get a ASP.NET 3.5 GridView to show a selected value as string when being displayed, and to show a DropDownList to allow me to pick a value from a given list of options when being edited. Seems simple enough? My gridview looks like this (simplified): <asp:GridView ID="grvSecondaryLocations" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID" OnInit="grvSecondaryLocations_Init" OnRowCommand="grvSecondaryLocations_RowCommand" OnRowCancelingEdit="grvSecondaryLocations_RowCancelingEdit" OnRowDeleting="grvSecondaryLocations_RowDeleting" OnRowEditing="grvSecondaryLocations_RowEditing" OnRowUpdating="grvSecondaryLocations_RowUpdating" > <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblPbxTypeCaption" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PBXTypeCaptionValue") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlPBXTypeNS" runat="server" Width="200px" DataTextField="CaptionValue" DataValueField="OID" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </asp:GridView> The grid gets displayed OK when not in editing mode - the selected PBX type shows its value in the asp:Label control. No surprise there. I load the list of values for the DropDownList into a local member called _pbxTypes in the OnLoad event of the form. I verified this - it works, the values are there. Now my challenge is: when the grid goes into editing mode for a particular row, I need to bind the list of PBX's stored in _pbxTypes. Simple enough, I thought - just grab the drop down list object in the RowEditing event and attach the list: protected void grvSecondaryLocations_RowEditing(object sender, GridViewEditEventArgs e) { grvSecondaryLocations.EditIndex = e.NewEditIndex; GridViewRow editingRow = grvSecondaryLocations.Rows[e.NewEditIndex]; DropDownList ddlPbx = (editingRow.FindControl("ddlPBXTypeNS") as DropDownList); if (ddlPbx != null) { ddlPbx.DataSource = _pbxTypes; ddlPbx.DataBind(); } .... (more stuff) } Trouble is - I never get anything back from the FindControl call - seems like the ddlPBXTypeNS doesn't exist (or can't be found). What am I missing?? Must be something really stupid.... but so far, all my Googling, reading up on GridView controls, and asking buddies hasn't helped. Who can spot the missing link? ;-) Marc

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• Binding WPF DataGrid to DataTable using TemplateColumns

  - by Chris J

  I have tried everything and got nowhere so I'm hoping someone can give me the aha moment. I simply cannot get the binding to pull the data in the datagrid successfully. I have a DataTable that contains multiple columns with of MyDataType} public class MyData { string nameData {get;set;} boolean showData {get;set;} } MyDataType has 2 properties (A string, a boolean) I have created a test DataTable DataTable GetDummyData() { DataTable dt = new DataTable("Foo"); dt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("AnotherColumn", typeof(MyData))); dt.Rows.Add(new MyData("Row1C1", true)); dt.Rows.Add(new MyData("Row2C1", false)); dt.AcceptChanges(); return dt; } I have a WPF DataGrid which I want to show my DataTable. But all I want to do is to change how each cell is rendered to show [TextBlock][Button] per cell with values bound to the MyData object and this is where I'm having a tonne of trouble. My XAML looks like this <Window.Resources><ResourceDictionary><DataTemplate x:Key="MyDataTemplate" DataType="MyData"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" > <Button Background="Green" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="5,0,0,0" Content="{Binding Path=nameData}"></Button> <TextBlock Background="Green" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="5,0,0,0" Text="{Binding Path=nameData}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate></ResourceDictionary></Window.Resources> <Grid> <dg:DataGrid Grid.Row="1" AutoGenerateColumns="True" x:Name="dataGrid1" SelectionMode="Single" CanUserAddRows="False" CanUserSortColumns="true" CanUserDeleteRows="False" AlternatingRowBackground="AliceBlue" AutoGeneratingColumn="dataGrid1_AutoGeneratingColumn" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> now all I do once loaded is to attempt to bind the DataTable to the WPF DataGrid dt = GetDummyData(); dataGrid1.ItemsSource = dt.DefaultView; The TextBlock and Button show up, but they don't bind, which leaves them blank. Could anyone let me know if they have any idea how to fix this. This should be simple, thats what Microsoft leads us to believe. I have set the Column.CellTemplate during the AutoGenerating event and still get no binding. Please help!!!

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• Using multiple distinct TCP security binding configurations in a single WCF IIS-hosted WCF service a

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I have a set of IIS7-hosted net.tcp WCF services that serve my ASP.NET MVC web application. The web application is accessed over the internet. WCF Services (IIS7) <--> ASP.NET MVC Application <--> Client Browser The services are username authenticated, the account that a client (of my web application) uses to logon ends up as the current principal on the host. I want one of the services to be authenticated differently, because it serves the view model for my logon view. When it's called, the client is obviously not logged on yet. I figure Windows authentication serves best or perhaps just certificate based security (which in fact I should use for the authenticated services as well) if the services are hosted on a machine that is not in the same domain as the web application. That's not the point here though. Using multiple TCP bindings is what's giving me trouble. I tried setting it up like this: <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> <binding name="public"> <security mode="Transport"> <message clientCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> The thing is that both bindings don't seem to want live together in my host. When I remove either of them, all's fine but together they produce the following exception on the client: The requested upgrade is not supported by 'net.tcp://localhost:8081/Service2.svc'. This could be due to mismatched bindings (for example security enabled on the client and not on the server). In the server trace log, I find the following exception: Protocol Type application/negotiate was sent to a service that does not support that type of upgrade. Am I looking into the right direction or is there a better way to solve this?

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• Linux - serial port read returning EAGAIN...

  - by Andre

  Hello all! I am having some trouble reading some data from a serial port I opened the following way. I've used this instance of code plenty of times and all worked fine, but now, for some reason that I cant figure out, I am completely unable to read anything from the serial port. I am able to write and all is correctly received on the other end, but the replies (which are correctly sent) are never received (No, the cables are all ok ;) ) The code I used to open the serial port is the following: fd = open("/dev/ttyUSB0", O_RDWR | O_NONBLOCK | O_NOCTTY); if (fd == -1) { Aviso("Unable to open port"); return (fd); } else { //Get the current options for the port... bzero(&options, sizeof(options)); /* clear struct for new port settings */ tcgetattr(fd, &options); /*-- Set baud rate -------------------------------------------------------*/ if (cfsetispeed(&options, SerialBaudInterp(BaudRate))==-1) perror("On cfsetispeed:"); if (cfsetospeed(&options, SerialBaudInterp(BaudRate))==-1) perror("On cfsetospeed:"); //Enable the receiver and set local mode... options.c_cflag |= (CLOCAL | CREAD); options.c_cflag &= ~PARENB; /* Parity disabled */ options.c_cflag &= ~CSTOPB; options.c_cflag &= ~CSIZE; /* Mask the character size bits */ options.c_cflag |= SerialDataBitsInterp(8); /* CS8 - Selects 8 data bits */ options.c_cflag &= ~CRTSCTS; // disable hardware flow control options.c_iflag &= ~(IXON | IXOFF | IXANY); // disable XON XOFF (for transmit and receive) options.c_cflag |= CRTSCTS; /* enable hardware flow control */ options.c_cc[VMIN] = 0; //min carachters to be read options.c_cc[VTIME] = 0; //Time to wait for data (tenths of seconds) //Set the new options for the port... tcflush(fd, TCIFLUSH); if (tcsetattr(fd, TCSANOW, &options)==-1) { perror("On tcsetattr:"); } PortOpen[ComPort] = fd; } return PortOpen[ComPort]; After the port is initializeed I write some stuff to it through simple write command... int nc = write(hCom, txchar, n); where hCom is the file descriptor (and it's ok), and (as I said) this works. But... when I do a read afterwards, I get a "Resource Temporarily Unavailable" error from errno. I tested select to see when the file descriptor had something t read... but it always times out! I read data like this: ret = read(hCom, rxchar, n); and I always get an EAGAIN and I have no idea why. All help would be appreciated. Cheers

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• Configuring multiple distinct WCF binding configurations causes an exception to be thrown

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I have a set of IIS7-hosted net.tcp WCF services that serve my ASP.NET MVC web application. The web application is accessed over the internet. WCF Services (IIS7) <--> ASP.NET MVC Application <--> Client Browser The services are username authenticated, the account that a client (of my web application) uses to logon ends up as the current principal on the host. I want one of the services to be authenticated differently, because it serves the view model for my logon view. When it's called, the client is obviously not logged on yet. I figure Windows authentication serves best or perhaps just certificate based security (which in fact I should use for the authenticated services as well) if the services are hosted on a machine that is not in the same domain as the web application. That's not the point here though. Using multiple TCP bindings is what's giving me trouble. I tried setting it up like this: <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> <binding name="public"> <security mode="Transport"> <message clientCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> The thing is that both bindings don't seem to want live together in my host. When I remove either of them, all's fine but together they produce the following exception on the client: The requested upgrade is not supported by 'net.tcp://localhost:8081/Service2.svc'. This could be due to mismatched bindings (for example security enabled on the client and not on the server). In the server trace log, I find the following exception: Protocol Type application/negotiate was sent to a service that does not support that type of upgrade. Am I looking into the right direction or is there a better way to solve this?

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• Facebook connect displaying invite friends dialog and closing on completion

  - by Dougnukem

  I'm trying to create a Facebook Connect application that displays a friend invite dialog within the page using Facebook's Javascript API (through a FBMLPopupDialog). The trouble is to display a friend invite dialog you use a multi-friend form which requires an action="url" attribute that represents the URL to redirect your page to when the user completes or skips the form. The problem is that I want to just close the FBMLPopupDialog (the same behavior as if the user just hit the 'X' button on the popup dialog). The best I can do is redirect the user back to the page they were on basically a reload but they lose all AJAX/Flash application state. I'm wondering if any Facebook Connect developers have run into this issue and have a good way to simply display a friend invite "lightbox" dialog within their website where they don't want to "refresh" or "redirect" when the user finishes. The facebook connect JS API provides a FB.Connect.inviteConnectUsers, which provides a nice dialog but only connects existing users of your application who also have a Facebook account and haven't connected. http://bugs.developers.facebook.com/show%5Fbug.cgi?id=4916 function fb_inviteFriends() { //Invite users log("Inviting users..."); FB.Connect.requireSession( function() { //Connect succes var uid = FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid; log('FB CONNECT SUCCESS: ' + uid); //Invite users log("Inviting users..."); //Update server with connected account updateAccountFacebookUID(); var fbml = fb_getInviteFBML() ; var dialog = new FB.UI. FBMLPopupDialog("Weblings Invite", fbml) ; //dialog.setFBMLContent(fbml); dialog.setContentWidth(650); dialog.setContentHeight(450); dialog.show(); }, //Connect cancelled function() { //User cancelled the connect log("FB Connect cancelled:"); } ); } function fb_getInviteFBML() { var uid = FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid; var fbml = ""; fbml = '<fb:fbml>\n' + '<fb:request-form\n'+ //Redirect back to this page ' action="'+ document.location +'"\n'+ ' method="POST"\n'+ ' invite="true"\n'+ ' type="Weblings Invite"\n' + ' content="I need your help to discover all the Weblings and save the Internet! WebWars: Weblings is a cool new game where we can collect fantastic creatures while surfing our favorite websites. Come find the missing Weblings with me!'+ //Callback the server with the appropriate Webwars Account URL ' <fb:req-choice url=\''+ WebwarsFB.WebwarsAccountServer +'/SplashPage.aspx?action=ref&reftype=Facebook' label=\'Check out WebWars: Weblings\' />"\n'+ '>\n'+ ' <fb:multi-friend-selector\n'+ ' rows="2"\n'+ ' cols="4"\n'+ ' bypass="Cancel"\n'+ ' showborder="false"\n'+ ' actiontext="Use this form to invite your friends to connect with WebWars: Weblings."/>\n'+ ' </fb:request-form>'+ ' </fb:fbml>'; return fbml; }

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• MIPS: removing non alpha-numeric characters from a string

  - by Kron

  I'm in the process of writing a program in MIPS that will determine whether or not a user entered string is a palindrome. It has three subroutines which are under construction. Here is the main block of code, subroutines to follow with relevant info: .data Buffer: .asciiz " " # 80 bytes in Buffer intro: .asciiz "Hello, please enter a string of up to 80 characters. I will then tell you if that string was a palindrome!" .text main: li $v0, 4 # print_string call number la $a0, intro # pointer to string in memory syscall li $v0, 8 #syscall code for reading string la $a0, Buffer #save read string into buffer li $a1, 80 #string is 80 bytes long syscall li $s0, 0 #i = 0 li $t0, 80 #max for i to reach la $a0, Buffer jal stripNonAlpha li $v0, 4 # print_string call number la $a0, Buffer # pointer to string in memory syscall li $s0, 0 jal findEnd jal toUpperCase li $v0, 4 # print_string call number la $a0, Buffer # pointer to string in memory syscall Firstly, it's supposed to remove all non alpha-numeric characters from the string before hand, but when it encounters a character designated for removal, all characters after that are removed. stripNonAlpha: beq $s0, $t0, stripEnd #if i = 80 end add $t4, $s0, $a0 #address of Buffer[i] in $t4 lb $s1, 0($t4) #load value of Buffer[i] addi $s0, $s0, 1 #i = i + 1 slti $t1, $s1, 48 #if ascii code is less than 48 bne $t1, $zero, strip #remove ascii character slti $t1, $s1, 58 #if ascii code is greater than 57 #and slti $t2, $s1, 65 #if ascii code is less than 65 slt $t3, $t1, $t2 bne $t3, $zero, strip #remove ascii character slti $t1, $s1, 91 #if ascii code is greater than 90 #and slti $t2, $s1, 97 #if ascii code is less than 97 slt $t3, $t1, $t2 bne $t3, $zero, strip #remove ascii character slti $t1, $s1, 123 #if ascii character is greater than 122 beq $t1, $zero, strip #remove ascii character j stripNonAlpha #go to stripNonAlpha strip: #add $t5, $s0, $a0 #address of Buffer[i] in $t5 sb $0, 0($t4) #Buffer[i] = 0 #addi $s0, $s0, 1 #i = i + 1 j stripNonAlpha #go to stripNonAlpha stripEnd: la $a0, Buffer #save modified string into buffer jr $ra #return Secondly, it is supposed to convert all lowercase characters to uppercase. toUpperCase: beq $s0, $s2, upperEnd add $t4, $s0, $a0 lb $s1, 0($t4) addi $s1, $s1, 1 slti $t1, $s1, 97 #beq $t1, $zero, upper slti $t2, $s1, 123 slt $t3, $t1, $t2 bne $t1, $zero, upper j toUpperCase upper: add $t5, $s0, $a0 addi $t6, $t6, -32 sb $t6, 0($t5) j toUpperCase upperEnd: la $a0, Buffer jr $ra The final subroutine, which checks if the string is a palindrome isn't anywhere near complete at the moment. I'm having trouble finding the end of the string because I'm not sure what PC-SPIM uses as the carriage return character. Any help is appreciated, I have the feeling most of my problems result from something silly and stupid so feel free to point out anything, no matter how small.

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• Impersonation - Access is denied

  - by krisg

  I am having trouble using impersonation to delete a PerformanceCounterCategory from an MVC website. I have a static class and when the application starts it checks whether or not a PerformanceCounterCategory exists, and if it contains the correct counters. If not, it deletes the category and creates it again with the required counters. It works fine when running under the built in webserver Cassini, but when i try run it through IIS7 (Vista) i get the following error: Access is denied Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied The code used is from an MS article, from memory... var username = "user"; var password = "password"; var domain = "tempuri.org"; WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; // if impersonation fails - return if (!ImpersonateValidUser(username, password, domain, out impersonationContext)) { throw new AuthenticationException("Impersonation failed"); } PerformanceCounterCategory.Delete(PerfCategory); UndoImpersonation(impersonationContext); ... private static bool ImpersonateValidUser(string username, string password, string domain, out WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext) { const int LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE = 2; const int LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT = 0; WindowsIdentity tempWindowsIdentity; var token = IntPtr.Zero; var tokenDuplicate = IntPtr.Zero; if (RevertToSelf()) { if (LogonUserA(username, domain, password, LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT, ref token) != 0) { if (DuplicateToken(token, 2, ref tokenDuplicate) != 0) { tempWindowsIdentity = new WindowsIdentity(tokenDuplicate); impersonationContext = tempWindowsIdentity.Impersonate(); if (impersonationContext != null) { CloseHandle(token); CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); return true; } } } } if (token != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(token); if (tokenDuplicate != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); impersonationContext = null; return false; } [DllImport("advapi32.dll")] public static extern int LogonUserA(String lpszUserName, String lpszDomain, String lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, ref IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern int DuplicateToken(IntPtr hToken, int impersonationLevel, ref IntPtr hNewToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool RevertToSelf(); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] public static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); The error is thrown when processing tries to execute the PerformanceCounterCategory.Delete command. Suggestions?

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• MinGW/G++/g95 link problem - libf95 undefined reference to `MAIN_'

  - by pivakaka

  Hi folks, Summing up, my problem consists on compiling g95 objects inside a C++ application. Actually, I'm constructing an interface for an old fortran program. For this task, I'm using the wxWidgets GUI library, and calling fortran subroutines when necessary. At the beginning, I was developing the entire project compiling my fortran files with gfortran (which comes with GCC) and linking them with my app by the g++ -o... command. Everything was working fine but some numbers values calculated by my fotran subroutines returned NAN values. Doing some research, I realized that compiling my fortran files with gfortran with the -m32 flag, generates this NAN values problem. Although compiling with -m64 flag, my code works properly well. The only trouble here is that my App should be 32bits and then I tryed another compiller. Here I found g95 Fortran compiler, which compiles my fortran code and gives the right output on a 32bits environment. But when I'm trying to link these g95 objects into my program I see this following error: g++ -oCyclonTechTower.exe src\fortran\Modulo_Global.o src\fortran\Prop_Fisicas.o src\fortran\inversa.o src\fortran\tower.o src\fortran\PredadeCarga.o src\fortran\gota.o src\fortran\tadi.o src\view\SimulationORSATCustomDialog.o src\view\SimulationChildGUIFrame.o src\view\ParentGUIFrame.o src\view\ClientGUIFrame.o src\model\TowerData.o src\controller\SimulationController.o src\THEIACyclonTechTower.o ..\Resource\resource.o -Lc:\wxWidgets-2.6.4\lib -Lc:\MinGW\lib\gcc-lib\i686-pc-mingw32\4.1.2 -Bdynamic -Wl,--subsystem,windows -mwindows c:\wxWidgets-2.6.4\lib\libwx_mswu-2.6.a -lwxregexu-2.6 -lwxexpat-2.6 -lwxtiff-2.6 -lwxjpeg-2.6 -lwxpng-2.6 -lwxzlib-2.6 -lrpcrt4 -loleaut32 -lole32 -luuid -lwinspool -lwinmm -lshell32 -lcomctl32 -lcomdlg32 -lctl3d32 -ladvapi32 -lwsock32 -lgdi32 -lgcc -lf95 c:\MinGW\lib\gcc-lib\i686-pc-mingw32\4.1.2/libf95.a(main.o):(.text+0x32): undefined reference to `MAIN_' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Build error occurred, build is stopped Time consumed: 1531 ms. I have already read the g95 Manual for integration with C++ and I'm actually calling these functions bellow for controlling the fortran environment: void g95_runtime_start(int argc, char *argv[]); void g95_runtime_stop(); I also included the g95 Fortran Runtime Library libf95.a and the libgcc.a into my linker command. Finishing, I don't have a main method implemented because this is managed by wxWidgets, and my fortran subroutines can not have a main function because this is a C++ program calling fortran functions. Can some of you guys help me with this problem? How can I fix this undefined reference to MAIN__ problem? Any idea will be much appreciated. Thanks in advance, George

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• Howto - Running Redmine on mongrel as a service on windows

  - by Achilles

  I use Redmine on Mongrel as a project manager and I use a batch file (start-redmine.bat) to start the redmine in mongrel. There are 2 issues with my setup: 1. I have a running IIS on the server that occupies the HTTP port (80) 2. The start-redmine.bat must be periodically checked to see if it's stopped after a restart that is caused by windows update service. for the first issue, I have no choice but running mongrel on a port like 3000 and for the second issue I have to create a windows service that runs automatically in the background when the windows starts; and here comes the trouble! There are at least 3 ways to run redmine as a service that I'm aware of; none of them can satisfy a performance view on this subject. you may read about them on http://stackoverflow.com/questions/877943/how-to-configure-a-rails-app-redmine-to-run-as-a-service-on-windows I tried them all. The easiest way to setup such a service is using mongrel_service approach; in 3 lines of command you're done. but the performance is significantly lower than running that batch file... Now, I wanna show you my approach: First suppose we have ruby installed into c:\ruby and we have issued the command gem install mongrel to get the mongrel gem installed into c:\ruby\bin Also, suppose we have installed the Redmine into a folder like c:\redmine; and we have ruby's path (i.e. c:\ruby\bin) in our PATH environment variable. Now Download and install the Windows NT Resource Kit Tools from microsoft website. Open the command-line tool that comes with the Resource Kit (from start menu). Use instsrv to install a dummy service called Redmine using the following command: "[path-to-instsrv.exe]\instsrv" Redmine "[path-to-srvany.exe]\srvany.exe" in my case (which is the default case) it was something like this: "C:\Program Files\Windows Resource Kits\Tools\instsrv" Redmine "C:\Program Files\Windows Resource Kits\Tools\srvany.exe" Now create the batch file. Open a notepad and paste these instructions into it and then save it as "c:\redmine\start-redmine.bat" @echo off cd c:\redmine\ mongrel_rails start -a 0.0.0.0 -p 3000 -e production Now we need to configure that dummy service we had created before. WATCH OUT WHAT YOU'RE DOING FROM HERE ON, OR YOU MAY CORRUPT YOUR WINDOWS. To configure that service, open windows registry editor (Start - Run - regedit) and navigate to this node: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\Redmine Right-Click on "Redmine" node and using the context menu, create a new key called Parameters (New - Key) Right-Click on "Parameters" and create a String Value property called Application. Do this again and create another String Value called AppParameters. Now Double-click on "Application" and put cmd.exe into "Value data" section. Then Double-click on "AppParameters" and put /C "C:\redmine\start-redmine.bat" into Value data section. We're done! issue this command to run the redmine on mongrel as a service: net start Redmine

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• Example to get Facebook Events using sdk v4 from fan page into Wordpress site [on hold]

  - by Dorshin

  Been trying to update to the new FB php sdk v4 for pulling events into my website, but having trouble finding how to do it. I want to pull public event information from a FB "page" using their fan page ID number. For example, a venue that has multiple events. What are the minimal classes I need to "require_once" and "use" to only pull the events (don't need to login)? The site is on Wordpress which doesn't use sessions, so what do I do with the "session_start()" statement? Will it work anyway? Could I get a basic code example of how to get the event info into an array? (I want to make sure I get the syntax correct) So far I've got the below code, but it is not working. session_start(); require_once( 'Facebook/GraphObject.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/GraphSessionInfo.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookSession.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookCurl.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookHttpable.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookCurlHttpClient.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookResponse.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookSDKException.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookRequestException.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookAuthorizationException.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookRequest.php' ); require_once( 'Facebook/FacebookRedirectLoginHelper.php' ); use Facebook\GraphSessionInfo; use Facebook\FacebookSession; use Facebook\FacebookCurl; use Facebook\FacebookHttpable; use Facebook\FacebookCurlHttpClient; use Facebook\FacebookResponse; use Facebook\FacebookAuthorizationException; use Facebook\FacebookRequestException; use Facebook\FacebookRequest; use Facebook\FacebookSDKException; use Facebook\FacebookRedirectLoginHelper; use Facebook\GraphObject; function facebook_event_function() { FacebookSession::setDefaultApplication('11111111111','00000000000000000'); /* make the API call */ $request = new FacebookRequest($session, '/{123456789}/events','GET'); $response = $request->execute(); $graphObject = $response->getGraphObject(); } So far, not getting anything in the $graphObject and it's throwing this error as well: PHP Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Facebook\FacebookAuthorizationException' with message '(#803) Some of the aliases you requested do not exist: v2.0GET' in ../Facebook/FacebookRequestException.php:134 After I get something in the $graphObject, I want to add the info to a DB table. This part I am OK on. Thank you for the help.

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• Problems connecting to WCF Service via NetNamedPipeBinding

  - by John

  I'm having trouble figuring out how to get a named pipe WCF service to work. The service is in a seperate assembly from the executable. The config looks like this: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netNamedPipeBinding> <binding name="NoSecurityIPC"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netNamedPipeBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint name="internal" address="channel1" binding="netNamedPipeBinding" bindingConfiguration="NoSecurityIPC" contract="conplement.TimeService.ICpTimeService" /> </client> <services> <service name="cpTimeService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.pipe://localhost/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="channel1" binding="netNamedPipeBinding" bindingConfiguration="NoSecurityIPC" contract="conplement.TimeService.ICpTimeService" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I'm using a ChannelFactory to create a proxy to access the service host: ServiceHost h = new ServiceHost(typeof(TimeService), new Uri("net.pipe://localhost/")); h.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ITimeService), new NetNamedPipeBinding("NoSecurityIPC"), "net.pipe://localhost/"); h.Open(); ChannelFactory<ITimeService> factory = new ChannelFactory<ITimeService>("channel1", new EndpointAddress(new Uri("net.pipe://localhost/"))); ICpTimeService proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); using (proxy as IDisposable) { this.ds = proxy.LoadData(); } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong when I create the ChannelFactory. It can't seem to find the "channel1" in the config. When I create my binding manually and pass it to the ChannelFactory constructor, the factory and the proxy are created but the call to the LoadData() fails (times out). Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong here?

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• iPhone MapKit problems: viewForAnnotation inconsistently setting pinColor?

  - by blackkettle

  Hi, I'm trying setup a map that displays different pin colors depending on the type/class of the location in question. I know this is a pretty common thing to do, but I'm having trouble getting the viewForAnnotation delegate to consistently update/set the pin color. I have a showThisLocation function that basically cycles through a list of AddressAnnotations and then based on the annotation class (bus stop, hospital, etc.) I set an if( myClass == 1){ [defaults setObject:@"1" forKey:@"currPinColor"]; [defaults synchronize]; NSLog(@"Should be %@!", [defaults objectForKey:@"currPinColor"]); } else if( myClass ==2 ){ [defaults setObject:@"2" forKey:@"currPinColor"]; [defaults synchronize]; NSLog(@"Should be %@!", [defaults objectForKey:@"currPinColor"]); } [_mapView addAnnotation:myCurrentAnnotation]; then my viewForAnnotation delegate looks like this, - (MKAnnotationView *) mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation { if( annotation == mapView.userLocation ){ return nil; } NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; MKPinAnnotationView *annView = nil; annView = (MKPinAnnotationView*)[mapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; if( annView == nil ){ annView = [[MKPinAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; } annView.pinColor = [defaults integerForKey:@"currPinColor"]; NSLog(@"Pin color: %d", [defaults integerForKey:@"currPinColor"]); annView.animatesDrop=TRUE; annView.canShowCallout = YES; annView.calloutOffset = CGPointMake(-5, 5); return annView; } The problem is that, although the NSLog statements in the "if" block always confirm that the color has been set, the delegate sometimes but not always ends up with the correct color. I've also noticed that what generally happens is that the first search for a new location will set all pins to the last color in the "if" block, but search for the same location again will set the pins to the correct color. I suspect I am not supposed to usen NSUserDefaults in this way, but I also tried to create my own subclass for MKAnnotation which included an additional property "currentPinColor", and while this allowed me to set the "currentPinColor", when I tried to access the "currentPinColor from the delegate method, the compiler complained that it didn't know anything about "currentPinColor in connection with MKAnnotation. Fair enough I guess, but then I tried to revise the delegate method, - (MKAnnotationView *) mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation instead of the default - (MKAnnotationView *) mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation at which point the compiler complained that it didn't know anything about the protocol for MyCustomMKAnnotation in this delegate context. What is the proper way to set the delegate method and/or MyCustomMKAnnotation, or what is the appropriate way to achieve consistent pinColor settings. I'm just about out of ideas for things to try here.

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• getting autodiscover URL from Exchange email address

  - by Anthony

  I'm starting with an address for an Exchange 2007 server: [email protected] And I attempted to send an autodiscover request, as documented at MSDN. I attempted to use the generic autodiscover address documented at the TechNet White Paper. So, using curl on PHP, I sent the following request: <Autodiscover xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/requestschema/2006"> <Request> <EMailAddress>[email protected]</EMailAddress> <AcceptableResponseSchema> http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/responseschema/2006a </AcceptableResponseSchema> </Request> </Autodiscover> to the following URL: https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml But got no response, just an eventual timeout. I also tried: https://autodiscover.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml With the same result. Now, since my larger goal is to use Autodiscover with Exchange Web Services, and since all of the EWS URLs start with the same sub-domain as the Outlook Web Access address, I thought I'd give that a try: OWA: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org So I tried: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml And sure enough, I got back the expected response. However, I only knew the OWA sub-domain because it's the server I have access to and that I'm using to test everything. I would not know it for sure or be able to guess it if this were a live app and the user was entering in their own Exchange email. I know that whatever generic autodiscover settings must be turned on, because I can enter: [email protected] into Apple Mail on Snow Leopard and it finds everything without trouble. So the question is... Should https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml have worked, and I just missed a step when trying to connect to it? Or, Is there some trick (maybe involving pinging the email address?) that Apple Mail and other clients use to resolve the address to the OWA subdomain before sending the autodiscover request? Thanks to anyone who knows or can take a wild guess.

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• Iterating through a directory with Ant

  - by Shaggy Frog

  Let's say I have a collection of PDF files with the following paths: /some/path/pdfs/birds/duck.pdf /some/path/pdfs/birds/goose.pdf /some/path/pdfs/insects/fly.pdf /some/path/pdfs/insects/mosquito.pdf What I'd like to do is generate thumbnails for each PDF that respect the relative path structure, and output to another location, i.e.: /another/path/thumbnails/birds/duck.png /another/path/thumbnails/birds/goose.png /another/path/thumbnails/insects/fly.png /another/path/thumbnails/insects/mosquito.png I'd like this to be done in Ant. Assume I'm going to use Ghostscript on the command line and I've already worked out the call to GS: <exec executable="${ghostscript.executable.name}"> <arg value="-q"/> <arg value="-r72"/> <arg value="-sDEVICE=png16m"/> <arg value="-sOutputFile=${thumbnail.image.path}"/> <arg value="${input.pdf.path}"/> </exec> So what I need to do is work out the correct values for ${thumbnail.image.path} and ${input.pdf.path} while traversing the PDF input directory. I have access to ant-contrib (just installed the "latest", which is 1.0b3) and I'm using Ant 1.8.0. I think I can make something work using the <for> task, <fileset>s and <mapper>s, but I am having trouble putting it all together. I tried something like: <for param="file"> <path> <fileset dir="${some.dir.path}/pdfs"> <include name="**/*.pdf"/> </fileset> </path> <sequential> <echo message="@{file}"/> </sequential> </for> But unfortunately the @{file} property is an absolute path, and I can't find any simple way of decomposing it into the relative components. If I can only do this using a custom task, I guess I could write one, but I'm hoping I can just plug together existing components.

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• Error when logging in with Machinist in Shoulda test

  - by user303747

  I am having some trouble getting the right usage of Machinist and Shoulda in my testing. Here is my test: context "on POST method rating" do p = Product.make u = nil setup do u = login_as post :vote, :rating => 3, :id => p end should "set rating for product to 3" do assert_equal p.get_user_vote(u), 3 end And here's my blueprints: Sham.login { Faker::Internet.user_name } Sham.name { Faker::Lorem.words} Sham.email { Faker::Internet.email} Sham.body { Faker::Lorem.paragraphs(2)} User.blueprint do login password "testpass" password_confirmation { password } email end Product.blueprint do name {Sham.name} user {User.make} end And my authentication test helper: def login_as(u = nil) u ||= User.make() @controller.stubs(:current_user).returns(u) u end The error I get is: /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/validations.rb:1090:in `save_without_dirty!': Validation failed: Login has already been taken, Email has already been taken (ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid) from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/dirty.rb:87:in `save_without_transactions!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in `save!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:136:in `transaction' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:182:in `transaction' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in `save!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:208:in `rollback_active_record_state!' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/rails/activerecord/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in `save!' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist/active_record.rb:55:in `make' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/test/blueprints.rb:37 from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:77:in `generate_attribute_value' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:46:in `method_missing' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/test/blueprints.rb:37 from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:20:in `instance_eval' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist.rb:20:in `run' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/machinist-1.0.6/lib/machinist/active_record.rb:53:in `make' from ./test/functional/products_controller_test.rb:25:in `__bind_1269805681_945912' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:293:in `call' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:293:in `merge_block' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:288:in `initialize' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:169:in `new' from /home/jason/moderndarwin/vendor/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:169:in `context' from ./test/functional/products_controller_test.rb:24 I can't figure out what it is I'm doing wrong... I have tested the login_as with my auth (Authlogic) in my user_controller testing. Any pointers in the right direction would be much appreciated!

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• Session Id in url and/or cookie? [closed]

  - by Jacco

  Most people advice against rewriting every (internal) url to include the sessionId (both GET and POST). The standard argument against it seems to be:   If an attacker gets hold of the sessionId, they can hijack the session.   With the sessionId in the url, it easily leaks to the attacker (by referer etc.) But what if you put the sessionId in both an (encrypted) cookie and the url. if the sessionId in either the cookie or the url is missing or if they do not match, decline the request. Let's pretend the website in question is free of xss holes, the cookie encryption is strong enough, etc. etc. Then what is the increased risk of rewriting every url to include the sessionId? UPDATE: @Casper That is a very good point. so up to now there are 2 reasons: bad for search engines / SEO if used in public part of the website can cause trouble when users post an url with a session Id on a forum, send it trough email or bookmark the page apart from the:   It increases the security risk, but it is not clear what the increased risk is. some background info: I've a website that offers blog-like service to travellers. I cannot be sure cookies work nor can I require cookies to work. Most computers in internet cafes are old and not (even close to) up-to-date. The user has no control over them and the connection can be very unreliable for some more 'off the beaten path' locations. Binding the session to an IP-address is not possible, some places use load-balancing proxies with multiple IP addresses. (and from China there is The Great Firewall). Upon receiving the first cookie back, I flag cookies as mandatory. However, if the cookie was flagged as mandatory but not there, I ask for their password once more, knowing their session from the url. (Also cookies have a 1 time token in them, but that's not the point of this question). UPDATE 2: The conclusion seems to be that there are no extra *security* issues when you expose you session id trough the URL while also keeping a copy of the session id in an encrypted cookie. Do not hesitate to add additional information about any possible security implications

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• Interfacing Android Nexus One with Arduino + BlueSmirf

  - by efgomez

  I'm a bit new to all of this, so bear with me - I'd really appreciate your help. I am trying to link the Android Nexus One with an arduino (Duemilanove) that is connected to a BlueSmirf. I have a program that is simply outputting the string "Hello Bluetooth" to whatever device the BlueSmirf is connected to. Here is the Arduino program: void setup(){ Serial.begin(115200); int i; } void loop(){Serial.print("Hello Bluetooth!"); delay(1000); } One my computer BT terminal I can see the message and connect no problem. The trouble is with my android code. I can connect to the device with android, but when I look at the log it is not displaying "Hello Bluetooth". Here is the debug log: 04-09 16:27:49.022: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): FireFly-2583 connected 04-09 16:27:49.022: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): STARTING TO CONNECT THE SOCKET 04-09 16:27:55.705: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): Received: 16 04-09 16:27:56.702: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): Received: 1 04-09 16:27:56.712: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): Received: 15 04-09 16:27:57.702: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): Received: 1 04-09 16:27:57.702: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): Received: 15 04-09 16:27:58.704: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): Received: 1 04-09 16:27:58.704: ERROR/BTArduino(17288): Received: 15 ect... Here is the code, I'm trying to put only the relative code but if you need more please let me know: private class ConnectThread extends Thread { private final BluetoothSocket mySocket; private final BluetoothDevice myDevice; public ConnectThread(BluetoothDevice device) { myDevice = device; BluetoothSocket tmp = null; try { tmp = device.createRfcommSocketToServiceRecord(MY_UUID); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG, "CONNECTION IN THREAD DIDNT WORK"); } mySocket = tmp; } public void run() { Log.e(TAG, "STARTING TO CONNECT THE SOCKET"); InputStream inStream = null; boolean run = false; //...More Connection code here... The more relative code is here: byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int bytes; // handle Connection try { inStream = mySocket.getInputStream(); while (run) { try { bytes = inStream.read(buffer); Log.e(TAG, "Received: " + bytes); } catch (IOException e3) { Log.e(TAG, "disconnected"); } } I am reading bytes = inStream.read(buffer). I know bytes is an integer, so I tried sending integers over bluetooth because "bytes" was an integer but it still didn't make sense. It almost appears that is sending incorrect baud rate. Could this be true? Any help would be appreciated. Thank you very much.

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• Bugs in Excel's ActiveX combo boxes?

  - by k.robinson

  I have noticed that I get all sorts of annoying errors when: I have ActiveX comboboxes on a worksheet (not an excel form) The comboboxes have event code linked to them (eg, onchange events) I use their listfillrange or linkedcell properties (clearing these properties seems to alleviate a lot of problems) (Not sure if this is connected) but there is data validation on the targeted linkedcell. I program a fairly complex excel application that does a ton of event handling and uses a lot of controls. Over the months, I have been trying to deal with a variety of bugs dealing with those combo boxes. I can't recall all the details of each instance now, but these bugs tend to involve pointing the listfillrange and linkedcell properties at named ranges, and often have to do with the combo box events triggering at inappropriate times (such as when application.enableevents = false). These problems seemed to grow bigger in Excel 2007, so that I had to give up on these combo boxes entirely (I now use combo boxes contained in user forms, rather than directly on the sheets). Has anyone else seen similar problems? If so, was there a graceful solution? I have looked around with Google and so far haven't spotted anyone with similar issues. Some of the symptoms I end up seeing are: Excel crashing when I start up (involves combobox_onchange, listfillrange-named range on another different sheet, and workbook_open interactions). (note, I also had some data validation on the the linked cells in case a user edited them directly.) Excel rendering bugs (usually when the combo box changes, some cells from another sheet get randomly drawn over the top of the current sheet) Sometimes it involves the screen flashing entirely to another sheet for a moment. Excel losing its mind (or rather, the call stack) (related to the first bullet point). Sometimes when a function modifies a property of the comboboxes, the combobox onchange event fires, but it never returns control to the function that caused the change in the first place. The combobox_onchange events are triggered even when application.enableevents = false. Events firing when they shouldn't (I posted another question on stack overflow related to this). At this point, I am fairly convinced that ActiveX comboboxes are evil incarnate and not worth the trouble. I have switched to including these comboboxes inside a userform module instead. I would rather inconvenience users with popup forms than random visual artifacts and crashing (with data loss).

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• UIViewAnimation done by a UIViewController belonging to a UINavigationController?

  - by RickiG

  Hi I have an UINavigationController which the user navigates with. When pushing a specific UIViewController onto the navigation stack, a "settings" button appear in the navigationBar. When the user clicks this button I would like to flip the current view/controller, i.e. everything on screen, including the navigationBar, over to a settings view. So I have a SettingsViewController which I would like to flip to from my CurrentViewController that lives on a navigationController stack. I get all kinds of strange behavior trying to do this, the UIViews belonging to the SettingsViewController will start to animate, sliding into place, the navigationButtons moves around, nothing acts as I would think. -(void)settingsHandler { SettingViewController *settingsView = [[SettingViewController alloc] init]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromRight forView:self.navigationController.view cache:YES]; [self.navigationController.view addSubview:settingsView.view]; [UIView commitAnimations]; } The above results in the views flipping correctly, but the subviews of the SettingsViewController are all positioned in (0, 0) and after the transition, they 'snap' into place? Is it because I instantiate and add my subviews in viewDidLoad, like this? - (void)viewDidLoad { UIImageView *imageBg = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 460.0f)]; [imageBg setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"background.png"]]; [self.view addSubview:imageBg]; [imageBg release]; SettingsSubview *switchView = [[SettingsSubview alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 460.0f)]; [self.view addSubview:switchView]; [switchView release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } 1: How should I correctly do the "flip" transition, from within the UIViewController in the UINavigationController, to a new UIViewController and subsequently from the new UIViewController and back to the "original" UIViewController residing on the UINavigationControllers stack? 2: Should I use a different approach, than the "viewDidLoad" method, when instantiating and adding subviews to a UIViewController? -question 2 is more of a "best practice" thing. I have seen different ways of doing it and I am having trouble either finding or understanding the life-cycle documentation and the different threads and posts on the subject. I am missing the "best practice" examples. Thank You very much for any help given:)

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