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  • Unity Framework constructor parameters in MVC

    - by ubersteve
    I have an ASP.NET MVC3 site that I want to be able to use different types of email service, depending on how busy the site is. Consider the following: public interface IEmailService { void SendEmail(MailMessage mailMessage); } public class LocalEmailService : IEmailService { public LocalEmailService() { // no setup required } public void SendEmail(MailMessage mailMessage) { // send email via local smtp server, write it to a text file, whatever } } public class BetterEmailService : IEmailService { public BetterEmailService (string smtpServer, string portNumber, string username, string password) { // initialize the object with the parameters } public void SendEmail(MailMessage mailMessage) { //actually send the email } } Whilst the site is in development, all of my controllers will send emails via the LocalEmailService; when the site is in production, they will use the BetterEmailService. My question is twofold: 1) How exactly do I pass the BetterEmailService constructor parameters? Is it something like this (from ~/Bootstrapper.cs): private static IUnityContainer BuildUnityContainer() { var container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<IEmailService, BetterEmailService>("server name", "port", "username", "password"); return container; } 2) Is there a better way of doing that - i.e. putting those keys in the web.config or another configuration file so that the site would not need to be recompiled to switch which email service it was using? Many thanks!

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  • Get Classic ASP variale from posted JSON

    - by Will
    I'm trying to post JSON via AJAX to a Classic ASP page, which retrieves the value, checks a database and returns JSON to the original page. I can post JSON via AJAX I can return JSON from ASP I can't retrieve the posted JSON into an ASP variable POST you use Request.Form, GET you use Request.Querystring......... what do I use for JSON? I have JSON libraries but they only show creating a string in the ASP script and then parsing that. I need to parse JSON from when being passed an external variable. Javascipt var thing = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '/ajax/check_username.asp', data: "{'userName':'" + thing + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", cache: false, async: false, success: function() { alert('success'); }); ASP file (check_username.asp) Response.ContentType = "application/json" sEmail = request.form() -- THE PROBLEM Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") SQL = "SELECT SYSUserID FROM WCE_UK.dbo.t_SYS_User WHERE Username='"&sEmail&"'" oRS.Open SQL, oConn if not oRS.EOF then sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", true, false) else sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", false, false) end if response.write sStatus

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  • SIP UAS asks for OPTIONS

    - by TacB0sS
    Hey, I have UAC that registers to a UAS, after registration the UAS sends me an OPTIONS request, what should I answer it? only the audio media streams? Update I: Allow me to explain myself better... if I want to invite someone to a session I USE the INVITE method and negotiate the media then, for that specific session. But once I register to the server, and it asks me for OPTIONS, then what should I supply, everything my client supports? once I answer it would it deduce that every INVITE I would request from now on would use these medias? or would I need to supply new media with every request? Update II: Hi Wiz, I was in the process of building a negotiation system, so i tried it out and replied the UAS here is the sort dialog we had: OPTIONS sip:[email protected] SIP/2.0 Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> Contact: <sip:[email protected]> Call-ID: [email protected] CSeq: 102 OPTIONS User-Agent: Freeswitch 1.2.3 Max-Forwards: 70 Date: Sat, 05 Jun 2010 12:06:43 GMT Allow: INVITE,ACK,CANCEL,OPTIONS,BYE,REFER,SUBSCRIBE,NOTIFY,INFO Supported: replaces Content-Length: 0 OPTIONS In Response To 102: SIP/2.0 200 OK Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> CSeq: 102 OPTIONS Call-ID: [email protected] Allow: INVITE,CANCEL,ACK,BYE,OPTIONS Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 248 v=0 o=310 4515233118481497946 4515233118481497946 IN IP4 10.0.0.1 s=- i=Nu-Art Software - TacB0sS VoIP information c=IN IP4 10.0.0.1 m=audio 40000 RTP/AVP 0 8 101 a=rtpmap:0 PCMU/8000 a=rtpmap:8 PCMA/8000 a=rtpmap:101 telephone-event/8000 This response caused the server to stop sending me the options request, does this means I can only use these parameters with the server now? or as you said, it does not matter? Thanks, Adam.

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  • Why does System.Net.Mail work in one part of my c#.net web app, but not in another?

    - by Marc
    I have a web application that is running on IIS within my company's domain, and is being accessed via intranet. I have this application sending out email based on some user actions. For example, its a scheduling application in part, so if a task is completed, an email is sent out notifying other users of that. The problem is, the email works flawlessly in some cases, and not at all in others. I have a login.aspx page which sends out report emails when the page is loaded (its loaded once a day via windows task scheduler) - this always seems to work perfectly. I have an update page which is supposed to send email when text is entered and the "Update" button is clicked - this operation will fail most of the time. Both of these tasks use the same static overloaded method I wrote to send email using System.Net.Mail. I have tried using gmail as my smtp server (instead of our internal one), and get the same results. I investigated whether having the local SMTP Service running makes any difference, and it doesn't seem to. Besides, since C# is server-side code, shouldn't it only matter whats running on the server, and not the client? Please help me figure out whats wrong! Where should I look? What can I try?

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  • Java try finally variations

    - by Petr Gladkikh
    This question nags me for a while but I did not found complete answer to it yet (e.g. this one is for C# http://stackoverflow.com/questions/463029/initializing-disposable-resources-outside-or-inside-try-finally). Consider two following Java code fragments: Closeable in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); try { doSomething(in); } finally { in.close(); } and second variation Closeable in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); doSomething(in); } finally { if (null != in) in.close(); } The part that worries me is that the thread might be somewhat interrupted between the moment resource is acquired (e.g. file is opened) but resulting value is not assigned to respective local variable. Is there any other scenarios the thread might be interrupted in the point above other than: InterruptedException (e.g. via Thread#interrupt()) or OutOfMemoryError exception is thrown JVM exits (e.g. via kill, System.exit()) Hardware fail (or bug in JVM for complete list :) I have read that second approach is somewhat more "idiomatic" but IMO in the scenario above there's no difference and in all other scenarios they are equal. So the question: What are the differences between the two? Which should I prefer if I do concerned about freeing resources (especially in heavily multi-threading applications)? Why? I would appreciate if anyone points me to parts of Java/JVM specs that support the answers.

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  • [grails] setting cookies when render type is "contentType: text/json"

    - by Robin Jamieson
    Is it possible to set cookies on response when the return render type is set as json? I can set cookies on the response object when returning with a standard render type and later on, I'm able to get it back on the subsequent request. However, if I were to set the cookies while rendering the return values as json, I can't seem to get back the cookie on the next request object. What's happening here? These two actions work as expected with 'basicForm' performing a regular form post to the action, 'withRegularSubmit', when the user clicks submit. // first action set the cookie and second action yields the originally set cookie def regularAction = { // using cookie plugin response.setCookie("username-regular", "regularCookieUser123",604800); return render(view: "basicForm"); } // called by form post def withRegularSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-regular"); // returns the value 'regularCookieUser123' return render(view: "resultView"); } When I switch to setting the cookie just before returning from the response with json, I don't get the cookie back with the post. The request starts by getting an html document that contains a form and when doc load event is fired, the following request is invoked via javascript with jQuery like this: var someUrl = "http://localhost/jsonAction"; $.get(someUrl, function(jsonData) { // do some work with javascript} The controller work: // this action is called initially and returns an html doc with a form. def loadJsonForm = { return render(view: "jsonForm"); } // called via javascript when the document load event is fired def jsonAction = { response.setCookie("username-json", "jsonCookieUser456",604800); // using cookie plugin return render(contentType:'text/json') { 'pair'('myKey': "someValue") }; } // called by form post def withJsonSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-json"); // got null value, expecting: jsonCookieUser456 return render(view: "resultView"); } The data is returned to the server as a result of the user pressing the 'submit' button and not through a script. Prior to the submit of both 'withRegularSubmit' and 'withJsonSubmit', I see the cookies stored in the browser (Firefox) so I know they reached the client.

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  • maven and unit testing - combining maven surefire plugin AND testNG eclipse plugin

    - by lisak
    Hey, could you please share your way of unit testing in eclipse ? Are you using surefire plugin, m2eclipse & maven, or only testNG eclipse plugin ? Do you combine these alternatives ? I'm using testNG + maven surefire-plugin and I had been using the testNG eclipse plugin a year ago so that I could see the results in testNG view. Then I started using Maven, but when I do "maven test phase" using m2eclipse, there is only console output and surefire reports that I can check in browser and to choose what test suite, test, or test method can be set up only via testng.xml. On the other hand, if you use only surefire plugin and you have some specific settings regarding classpath etc., that you rely on, then running tests via testNG eclipse plugin doesn't have to be compatible with your code. Using surefire plugin, the classpath is different - target/test-classes and target/classes - than using testNG plugin, that is using the project classpath. How do you go about what I was just talking about? Is it possible to synchronize "maven test" using m2eclipse and surefire plugin WITH testNG eclipse plugin and view ? EDITED: I'm also wondering, why the Maven project ("Java build path") output folder is target/classes for src/main and src/test whereas surefire plugin makes two locations target/test-classes and target/classes Thank you very much for your your opinions.

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  • Is there a difference between starting an application from the OS or from adb

    - by aruwen
    I do have a curious error in my application. My app crashes (don't mind the crash, I roughly know why - classloader) when I start the application from the OS directly, then kill it from the background via any Task Killer (this is one of the few ways to reproduce the crash consistently - simulating the OS freeing memory and closing the application) and try to restart it again. The thing is, if I start the application via adb shell using the following command: adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n com.my.packagename/myLaunchActivity I cannot reproduce the crash. So is there any difference in how Android OS calls the application as opposed to the above call? EDIT: added the manifest (just changed names) <?xml version="1.0" ?> <manifest android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="1.05" package="com.my.sample" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> <application android:icon="@drawable/square_my_logo" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my.InfoActivity" android:screenOrientation="landscape"></activity> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.KickStart" android:screenOrientation="landscape"/> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.Launcher" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"/> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE"/></manifest> starting the com.my2.Launcher from the adb shell

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  • How do I debug into an ILMerged assembly?

    - by Rory Becker
    Summary I want to alter the build process of a 2-assembly solution, such that a call to ILMerge is invoked, and the build results in a single assembly. Further I would like to be able to debug into the resultant assembly. Preparation - A simple example New Solution - ClassLibrary1 Create a static function 'GetMessage' in Class1 which returns the string "Hello world" Create new console app which references the ClassLibrary. Output GetMessage from main() via the console. You now have a 2 assembly app which outputs "Hello World" to the console. So what next..? I would like to alter the Console app build process, to include a post build step which uses ILMerge, to merge the ClassLibrary assembly into the Console assembly After this step I should be able to: Run the Console app directly with no ClassLibrary1.dll present Run the Console app via F5 (or F11) in VS and be able to debug into each of the 2 projects. Limited Success I read this blogpost and managed to achieve the merge I was after with a post-build command of... "$(ProjectDir)ILMerge.bat" "$(TargetDir)" $(ProjectName) ...and an ILMerge.bat file which read... CD %1 Copy %2.exe temp.exe ILMerge.exe /out:%2.exe temp.exe ClassLibrary1.dll Del temp.exe Del ClassLibrary1.* This works fairly well, and does in fact produce an exe which runs outside the VS environment as required. However it does not appear to produce symbols (.pdb file) which VS is able to use in order to debug into the code. I think this is the last piece of the puzzle. Does anyone know how I can make this work? FWIW I am running VS2010 on an x64 Win7 x64 machine.

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  • Submit form with POST data in Android app

    - by datguywhowanders
    I've been searching the web for a way to do this for about a week now, and I just can't seem to figure it out. I'm trying to implement an app that my college can use to allow users to log in to various services on the campus with ease. The way it works currently is they go to an online portal, select which service they want, fill in their user name and pwd, and click login. The form data is sent via post (it includes several hidden values as well as just the user name and pwd) to the corresponding login script which then signs them in and loads the service. I've been trying to come at the problem in two ways. I first tried a WebView, but it doesn't seem to want to support all of the html that normally makes this form work. I get all of the elements I need, fields for user and pwd as well as a login button, but clicking the button doesn't do anything. I wondered if I needed to add an onclick handler for it, but I can't see how as the button is implemented in the html of the webview not using a separate android element. The other possibility was using the xml widgets to create the form in a nice relative layout, which seems to load faster and looks better on the android screen. I used EditText fields for the input, a spinner widget for the service select, and the button widget for the login. I know how to make the onclick and item select handlers for the button and spinner, respectively, but I can't figure out how to send that data via POST in an intent that would then launch a browser. I can do an intent with the action url, but can't get the POST data to feed into it. Anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

    - by David Griffiths
    I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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  • nServiceBus - Not all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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  • Accessing a share point site using the object model.

    - by Prashanth
    Hi I am trying to access a share point site using the SP object model from a console application. I am trying to do something like this.. SPSite site = new SPSite(sitePath) //Operations go here This works fine when the share point site and the console app are on the same machine. However when the console app and the site are on different machines, I get an error "The Web application at "http://server/url" could not be found. Verify that you have typed the URL correctly. If the URL should be serving existing content, the system administrator may need to add a new request URL mapping to the intended application" Here are the things that I have already done: 1) I have tried accessing the site via both IP address as well as machine name, assuming that it could be a DNS resolution issue. 2) Initially I impersonated using a farm admin account, still i could not access. Then I added myself as the farm admin, still no joy. 4) The site is accessible via IE. So it is not a permission issue I guess. 5) I have tried almost all the solutions suggested by various links obtained by googling the error message. I am trying this on share point 2010. A similar issue occurs on 2007 also. Sometimes its kind of frustrating to do SharePoint development , since I get the feeling of stumbling from one error to the next, with no clue as to what could be wrong and the error messages not being helpful in the least :(

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  • Pre-populate iPhone Safari SQLite DB

    - by Matt Rogish
    I'm working with a PhoneGap app that uses Safari local storage (SQlite DB) via Javascript: http://developer.apple.com/safari/library/documentation/iPhone/Conceptual/SafariJSDatabaseGuide/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase.html On first load, the app creates the database, tables, and populates the data via a series of INSERT statements. If the user closes the app while this processing is happening, then my app database is left in an inconsistent state. What I prefer to do is deploy the SQLite DB as part of my iTunes App packaging so nothing must be populated at app cold start. However, I'm not sure if that is possible -- all of the google hits for this topic that I can find are referring to the core-data provided SQLite which is not what we're using... If it's not possible, could I wrap the entire thing in a transaction and keep re-trying it when the app is restarted? Failing that, I guess I can create a simple table with one boolean column "is_app_db_loaded?" and set it to true after I've processed all my inserts. But that's really gross... Ideas? Thanks!!

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  • Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible?

    - by fyasar
    I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

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  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

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  • Using ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider, how do I store my own per-user data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I'm using the ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider. So, there's an aspnet_Users table that has details of each of my users. (Actually, the aspnet_Membership table seems to contain most of the actual data). I now want to store some per-user information in my database, so I thought I'd just create a new table with a UserId (GUID) column and an FK relationship to aspnet_Users. However, I then discovered that I can't easily get access to the UserId since it's not exposed via the membership API. (I know I can access it via the ProviderUserKey, but it seems like the API is abstracting away the internal UserID in favor of the UserName, and I don't want to go too far against the grain). So, I thought I should instead put a LoweredUserName column in my table, and create an FK relationship to aspnet_Users using that. Bzzzt. Wrong again, because while there is a unique index in aspnet_Users that includes the LoweredUserName, it also includes the ApplicationId - so in order to create my FK relationship, I'd need to have an ApplicationId column in my table too. At first I thought: fine, I'm only dealing with a single application, so I'll just add such a column and give it a default value. Then I realised that the ApplicationId is a GUID, so it'd be a pain to do this. Not hard exactly, but until I roll out my DB I can't predict what the GUID is going to be. I feel like I'm missing something, or going about things the wrong way. What am I supposed to do?

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  • Some languages don't work when using Word 2007 Spellcheck from Interop

    - by Tridus
    I'm using the Word 2007 spellchecker via Interop in a VB.net desktop app. When using the default language (English), it works fine. If I set the language to French via LanguageId, it also works. But if I set it to French (Canadian) (Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian), it doesn't work. There's no error message, it simply runs and says the document contains no errors. I know it does, if I paste the exact same text into Word itself and run it with the French (Canadian) dictionary, it finds errors. Just why that dictionary doesn't work is kind of a mystery to me. Full code below: Public Shared Function SpellCheck(ByVal text As String, ByVal checkGrammar As Boolean) As String ' If there is no data to spell check, then exit sub here. If text.Length = 0 Then Return text End If Dim objWord As Word.Application Dim objTempDoc As Word.Document ' Declare an IDataObject to hold the data returned from the ' clipboard. Dim iData As IDataObject objWord = New Word.Application() objTempDoc = objWord.Documents.Add objWord.Visible = False ' Position Word off the screen...this keeps Word invisible ' throughout. objWord.WindowState = 0 objWord.Top = -3000 ' Copy the contents of the textbox to the clipboard Clipboard.SetDataObject(text) ' With the temporary document, perform either a spell check or a ' complete ' grammar check, based on user selection. With objTempDoc .Content.Paste() .Activate() .Content.LanguageID = Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian If checkGrammar Then .CheckGrammar() Else .CheckSpelling() End If ' After user has made changes, use the clipboard to ' transfer the contents back to the text box .Content.Copy() iData = Clipboard.GetDataObject If iData.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text) Then text = CType(iData.GetData(DataFormats.Text), _ String) End If .Saved = True .Close() End With objWord.Quit() Return text End Function

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  • Creating a global variable on the fly. [PHP ENCRYPTION]

    - by stormdrain
    Is there a way to dynamically create constant variables on the fly? The idea is that upon logging into the system, a user would be asked to upload a small text file that would be fread, and assigned to a var that would be accessible throughout the system. If this is possible, just to be clear, would this variable then only be accessible to that user and only while the session is alive? Security being the main concern here, would it be more practical to store the var in a session variable? The plan: Data in the db will be encrypted via mcrypt, and the key will be stored on USB thumbdrives. The user will insert the thumbdrive when going to access the system. Upon logging in, the app will prompt the user to upload the key. They will navigate to the thumbdrive and key. Via fopen and fread, the key will be assigned to a global var which will then allow access to encrypted data, and will be used to encrypt new info being entered to the db. When the user logs out, or session times out, the global var will become empty. Thanks!

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Error creating Google Calendar

    - by Don
    Hi, I'm trying to use the Google Calendar Java API to create a secondary calendar for a Google apps user. The relevant code is: // Initialise the API client CalendarService googleCalendar = new GCalendarService("canimo.ca"); googleCalendar.setUserCredentials("[email protected]", "secret"); // Create the calendar CalendarEntry cal = new CalendarEntry(); cal.title = new PlainTextConstruct(user.email); cal.summary = new PlainTextConstruct("Collection calendar"); cal.timeZone = new TimeZoneProperty("America/Montreal"); cal.hidden = HiddenProperty.FALSE; googleCalendar.insert(CALENDAR_URL, calendar); The call to insert() above results in com.google.gdata.util.ServiceException: Internal Server Error and no calendar is created. If I try and perform the same operation through the Google calendar website, it also fails with the error message: We could not save changes. Please try again in a few minutes. An obvious conclusion is that there's some problem on Google's side, but this has been going on for several days now. Strangely, if I create a new user, everything works fine for a while. I can create calendars via the website, and download them via the API. But as soon as I try and create a new calendar using the API, I get the exception above, and thereafter can't create new calendars using either the website or the API. Thanks, Don

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  • Socket Read In Multi-Threaded Application Returns Zero Bytes or EINTR (-1)

    - by user309670
    Hi. Am a c-coder for a while now - neither a newbie nor an expert. Now, I have a certain daemoned application in C on a PPC Linux. I use PHP's socket_connect as a client to connect to this service locally. The server uses epoll for concurrent connections via a Unix socket. A user submitted string is parsed for certain characters/words using strstr() and if found, spawns 4 joinable threads to different websites simultaneously. I use socket, connect, write and read, to interact with the said webservers via TCP on port 80 in each thread. All connections and writes seems successful. Reads to the webserver sockets fail however, with either (A) all 3 threads seem to hang, and only one thread returns -1 and errno is set to 104. The responding thread takes like 10 minutes - an eternity long:-(. *I read somewhere that the 104 (is EINTR) suggests that ...'the connection was reset by peer', or (B) 0 bytes from 3 threads, and only 1 of the 4 threads actually returns some data. Isn't the socket read/write thread-safe? Otherwise, use thread-safe (and reentrant) libc functions such as strtok_r, gethostbyname_r, etc. *I doubt that the said webhosts are actually resetting the connection, because when I run a single-threaded standalone (everything else equal) all things works perfectly right. There's a second problem too (oops), I can't write back to the client who connect to my epoll-ed Unix socket. My daemon application will hang and hog CPU 100% for ever. Yet nothing is written to the clients end. Am sure the client (a very typical PHP socket application) hasn't closed the connection whenever this is happening - no error(s) detected either. I cannot figure-out whatever is wrong even with Valgrind or GDB

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  • Two radically different queries against 4 mil records execute in the same time - one uses brute force.

    - by IanC
    I'm using SQL Server 2008. I have a table with over 3 million records, which is related to another table with a million records. I have spent a few days experimenting with different ways of querying these tables. I have it down to two radically different queries, both of which take 6s to execute on my laptop. The first query uses a brute force method of evaluating possibly likely matches, and removes incorrect matches via aggregate summation calculations. The second gets all possibly likely matches, then removes incorrect matches via an EXCEPT query that uses two dedicated indexes to find the low and high mismatches. Logically, one would expect the brute force to be slow and the indexes one to be fast. Not so. And I have experimented heavily with indexes until I got the best speed. Further, the brute force query doesn't require as many indexes, which means that technically it would yield better overall system performance. Below are the two execution plans. If you can't see them, please let me know and I'll re-post then in landscape orientation / mail them to you. Brute-force query: Index-based exception query: My question is, based on the execution plans, which one look more efficient? I realize that thing may change as my data grows.

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  • Implementation of MVC with SQLite and NSURLConnection, use cases?

    - by user324723
    I'm interested in knowing how others have implemented/designed database & web services in their iphone app and how they simplified it for the entire application. My application is dependent on these services and I can't figure out a efficient way to use them together due to the (semi)complexity of my requirements. My past attempts on combining them haven't been completely successful or at least optimal in my mind. I'm building a database driven iphone app that uses a relational database in sqlite and consumes web services based on missing content or user interaction. Like this hasn't been done before...right? Since I am using a relational database - any web services consumed requires normalization, parsing the result and persisting it to the database before it can be displayed in a table view controller. The applications UI consists of nested(nav controller) table views where a user can select a cell and be taken to the next table view where it attempts to populate the table views data source from the database. If nothing exists in the database then it will send a request via web services to download its content, thus download - parse - persist - query - display. Since the user has the ability to request a refresh of this data it still requires the same process. Quickly describing what I've implemented and tried to run with - 1st attempt - Used a singleton web service class that handled sending web service requests, parsing the result and returning it to the table view controller via delegate protocols. Once the controller received that data it would then be responsible for persisting it to the database and re-returning the result. I didn't like the idea of only preventing the case where the app delegate selector doesn't exists(released) causing the app to crash. 2nd attempt - Used NSNotificationCenter for easy access to both database and web services but later realized it was more complex due to adding and removing observers per view(which isn't advised anyways).

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  • Apache + Passenger not passing on custom status codes

    - by harm
    I'm currently building an API. This API communicates with the client via status codes. I created several custom status codes (as per http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec6.html#sec6) in order to inform the client on certain things. For example I introduced the 481 status code to signify a specific client error. The Rails app I wrote works like a charm. But when Apache and Passenger are serving it things run aground. When I provoke a 481 error the response header looks like this: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Wed, 19 May 2010 06:37:05 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.9 (Debian) Phusion_Passenger/2.2.5 mod_ssl/2.2.9 OpenSSL/0.9.8g X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.5 Cache-Control: no-cache X-Runtime: 1938 Set-Cookie: _session_id=32bc259dc763193ad57ae7dc19d5f57e; path=/; HttpOnly Content-Length: 62 Status: 481 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 As you can see the original Status header is still there almost a the end. But the 'true' status header (the very first line) is quiet different. It seems that Apache doesn't like Status headers it has no knowledge of and thus assumes an error. Is there anyway to fix this? Maybe via the mod_headers ( http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html) module? I don't know enough of Apache to figure this out on my own. Thanks,

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