Search Results

Search found 21454 results on 859 pages for 'via'.

Page 229/859 | < Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >

  • Overriding MSBuildExtensionsPath in the MSBuild task is flaky

    - by Stuart Lange
    This is already cross-posted at MS Connect: https://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/details/560451 I am attempting to override the property $(MSBuildExtensionsPath) when building a solution containing a C# web application project via msbuild. I am doing this because a web application csproj file imports the file "$(MSBuildExtensionsPath)\Microsoft\VisualStudio\v9.0\WebApplications\Microsoft.WebApplication.targets". This file is installed by Visual Studio to the standard $(MSBuildExtensionsPath) location (C:\Program Files\MSBuild). I would like to eliminate the dependency on this file being installed on the machine (I would like to keep my build servers as "clean" as possible). In order to do this, I would like to include the Microsoft.WebApplication.targets in source control with my project, and then override $(MSBuildExtensionsPath) so that the csproj will import this included version of Microsoft.WebApplication.targets. This approach allows me to remove the dependency without requiring me to manually modify the web application csproj file. This scheme works fine when I build my solution file from the command line, supplying the custom value of $(MSBuildExtensionsPath) at the command line to msbuild via the /p flag. However, if I attempt to build the solution using the MSBuild task in a custom msbuild project file (overriding MSBuildExtensionsPath using the "Properties" attribute), it fails because the web app csproj file is attempting to import the Microsoft.WebApplication.targets from the "standard" Microsoft.WebApplication.targets location (C:\Program Files\MSBuild). Notably, if I run msbuild using the "Exec" task in my custom project file, it works. Even more notably, the FIRST time I run the build using the "MSBuild" task AFTER I have run the build using the "EXEC" task (or directly from the command line), the build works. Has anyone seen behavior like this before? Am I crazy? Is anyone aware of the root cause of this problem, a possible workaround, or whether this is a legitimate bug in MSBuild?

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax form submit - multiple post/get requests caused when validation fails

    - by kenny99
    Hi, I have a problem where if a form submission (set up to submit via AJAX) fails validation, the next time the form is submitted, it doubles the number of post requests - which is definitely not what I want to happen. I'm using the jQuery ValidationEngine plugin to submit forms and bind validation messages to my fields. This is my code below. I think my problem may lie in the fact that I'm retrieving the form action attribute via $('.form_container form').attr('action') - I had to do it this way as using $(this).attr was picking up the very first loaded form's action attr - however, when i was loading new forms into the page it wouldn't pick up the new form's action correctly, until i removed the $(this) selector and referenced it using the class. Can anyone see what I might be doing wrong here? (Note I have 2 similar form handlers which are loaded on domready, that could also be an issue) $('input#eligibility').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $('.form_container form').attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { //unique stuff for this form } }); }); //generic form handler - all form submissions not flagged with the #eligibility id $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $('.form_container form').attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); });

    Read the article

  • RDP through TCP Proxy

    - by johng100
    Hi, First time in Stackoverflow and I'm hoping someone can help me. I'm looking at a proof of concept to pass RDP traffic through a TCP Proxy/tunnel which will pass through firewalls using HTTPS. The problem has to do with deploying images to machines and so it can't be assumed that the .NET framework will be present, so C++ is being used at the deployment end of a connection. The basic system I have at present is a program which listens for client connections on a port then passes any data to a WCF service which stores it as a byte array. A deployment machine (using GSoap and C++) polls the WCF service for messages and if it finds them then passes the data onto the target server process via sockets. I know this sounds horrible, but it works for simple test clients and server passing data to and from simple test client and server programs via this WCF/C++/C# proxy layer. But I have to support traffic from RDP, VNC and possibly others, so I need a transparent proxy to do this and am wondering whether the above approach is worth pursuing. I've read up on SSH tunneling and that seems a possibility. My basic question is is it possible to tunnel RDP traffic over HTTPS using custom code. Thanks John

    Read the article

  • JSF and CXF not working together

    - by Milan
    I want to make dynamic web service invoker in JSF with CXF. But when I load this simple code I get error. The code: JaxWsDynamicClientFactory dcf = JaxWsDynamicClientFactory.newInstance(); Client client = dcf.createClient("http://ws.strikeiron.com/IPLookup2?wsdl"); The error: No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException - No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Any Idea how to solve the problem? I'm using Tomcat 6.

    Read the article

  • Error 1053: the service did not respond to the start or control request in a timely fashion

    - by deejjaayy
    i know this is very much a "how long is a piece of string" type of question, however i have recently inherited a couple of applications that run as windows services, and i am having problems providing a gui (accessible from a context menu in system tray) with both of them. before you ask, the reason why we need a gui for a windows service is in order to be able to re-configure the behaviour of the windows service(s) without resorting to stopping/re-starting. my code works fine in debug mode, and i get the context menu come up, and everything behaves correctly etc. when i install the service via "installutil" using a named account (i.e., not Local System Account), the service runs fine, but doesn't display the icon in the system tray (i know this is normal behaviour because i don't have the "interact with desktop" option). here is the problem though - when i choose the "LocalSystemAccount" option, and check the "interact with desktop" option, the service takes AGES to start up for no obvious reason, and i just keep getting "Could not start the ... service on Local Computer. Error 1053: the service did not respond to the start or control request in a timely fashion". incidentally, i increased the windows service timeout from the default 30 seconds to 2 minutes via a registry hack (see http://support.microsoft.com/kb/824344, search for TimeoutPeriod in section 3), however the service start up still times out. my first question is - why might the "Local System Account" login takes SOOOOO MUCH LONGER than when the service logs in with the non-LocalSystemAccount, causing the windows service time-out? what's could the difference be between these two to cause such different behaviour at start up? secondly - taking a step back, all i'm trying to achieve, is simply a windows service that provides a gui for configuration - I'd be quite happy to run using the non-Local System Account (with named user/pwd), if I could get the service to interact with the desktop (that is, have a context menu available from the system tray). is this possible, and if so how? any pointers to the above questions would be very much appreciated! thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Using SVN with a MySQL database ran by xamp - yes or no? (and how?)

    - by Extrakun
    For my current PHP/MySQL project (over a group of 4 to 5 team members), we are using this setup: each developer codes and test on his localhost running xamp, and upload to a test server via SVN. One question that I have now is how to synchronize the MySQL database? I may have added a new table to project and the PHP code references to it, so my other team members would need to access that table for my code (once they got it through SVN) to work. We are not always working in the same office all the time, so having a LAN and a MySQL server in the office is not feasible. So I am toying with 2 solutions Setup a test DB online, and have all the coders will reference to that, even when coding from localhost. Downside: you can't test if you happen not have internet access. Somehow sync the localhost copy of MySQL DB. Is that kind of silly? And if I do consider this, how do I do it? (which folder do I add to SVN?) (I guess a related question is how to automatically update the live MySQL DB from the testing DB, regardless if it is on a remote server or hosted locally via xamp. Any advice regarding that would be welcomed!)

    Read the article

  • Perl: POST request how?

    - by Peterim
    Unfortunately, I'm not familiar with Perl, so asking here. Actually I'm using FCGI with Perl. I need to 1. accept a POST request - 2. send it via POST to another url - 3. get results - 4. return results to the first POST request (4 steps). To accept a POST request (step 1) I use the following peace of code (found it somewhere in the Internet): $ENV{'REQUEST_METHOD'} =~ tr/a-z/A-Z/; if ($ENV{'REQUEST_METHOD'} eq "POST") { read(STDIN, $buffer, $ENV{'CONTENT_LENGTH'}); } else { print ("some error"); } @pairs = split(/&/, $buffer); foreach $pair (@pairs) { ($name, $value) = split(/=/, $pair); $value =~ tr/+/ /; $value =~ s/%(..)/pack("C", hex($1))/eg; $FORM{$name} = $value; } The content of $name (it's a string) is the result of the first step. Now I need to send $name via POST request to some_url (step 2) which returns me another result (step 3), which I have to return as a result to the very first POST request (step 4). Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Pushing to bare Git repository (remote) causes it to stop being bare

    - by NSD
    I have a local repository called TestRepo. I clone it with the --bare option, zip this clone up, and throw it on my server. Unzip it, and it's still bare. I then clone the bare remote repository locally over ssh with something like git clone ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git TestRepoCloned The local TestRepoCloned is not bare and has a remote called "origin." It appears to be tracking correctly from the looks of its config file [core] repositoryformatversion = 0 filemode = true bare = false logallrefupdates = true ignorecase = true [remote "origin"] fetch = +refs/heads/*:refs/remotes/origin/* url = ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git [branch "master"] remote = origin merge = refs/heads/master I edit an existing file. I commit the change to the current branch (master) via git commit -a -m "Edited a file." The commit succeeds and all is well. I decide to push this change to the remote repository via SSH with a git push The remote repository is now no longer bare, but has a complete working directory, and I get continuous error messages on all further attempts to push to it. Everything I've read seems to suggest that what I'm doing is correct, but it simply is not working. How am I supposed to push changes to a bare remote repo and actually keep it bare?

    Read the article

  • Most efficient way to send images across processes

    - by Heinrich Ulbricht
    Goal Pass images generated by one process efficiently and at very high speed to another process. The two processes run on the same machine and on the same desktop. The operating system may be WinXP, Vista and Win7. Detailled description The first process is solely for controlling the communication with a device which produces the images. These images are about 500x300px in size and may be updated up to several hundred times per second. The second process needs these images to display them. The first process uses a third party API to paint the images from the device to a HDC. This HDC has to be provided by me. Note: There is already a connection open between the two processes. They are communicating via anonymous pipes and share memory mapped file views. Thoughts How would I achieve this goal with as little work as possible? And I mean both work for me and the computer. I am using Delphi, so maybe there is some component available for doing this? I think I could always paint to any image component's HDC, save the content to memory stream, copy the contents via the memory mapped file, unpack it on the other side and paint it there to the destination HDC. I also read about a IPicture interface which can be used to marshall images. What are your ideas? I appreciate every thought on this!

    Read the article

  • MS Access form_current() firing multiple times

    - by Eric G
    I have a form with two subforms (on separate tab pages). It's an MDB project in Access 2003. When it initially opens, Form_Current on the active subform fires once, as it should. But when you move to another record (ie. from the main form), it fires Form_Current on the active subform 4 times. Then subsequent record-moves result in Form_Current firing 2 times. This is a pain, because the subforms have a lot of fields that get moved and/or hidden and so it jumps around for every Form_Current, not to mention being slow. I am opening the form with a filter via DoCmd.OpenForm (actually it sends the filter in via OpenArgs). FilterOn is only set once, in Form_Open on the main form, never in the subforms. Form_Current is not called explicitly anywhere else in the code. When I look at the call stack when Form_Current fires moving the first time, it looks like: my_subform.Form_Current [<Debug Window>] my_subform.Form_Current So it seems like something in Form_Current is triggering another Form_Current event. But only on the first record move. The code in Form_Current is somewhat complex, involving custom classes and event callbacks, but generally does not touch the table data. The only thing I can think might be triggering a Form_Current is that it checks OldValue on form controls - could this be causing it? Or anything else come to mind? Thanks. Eric

    Read the article

  • Dynamically load Jquery into .js page

    - by RussP
    Please excuse me if I'm simple here, I want to create a simple widget that people can access from their websites - e.g by copy/past something like <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> <div id="test"></div> anywhere in their web pages. where is dynamically filled via Jquery and the functions in/on test2.js. I can do it if JQuery is actually "printed" on the page of test2.js, but I cannot get any JQuery functions to work if I try to include/call JQuery dynamically. How do you call JQuery via javascript and then get it to work with the functions on the page? And/Or is there an easy way to add the <div id="test"></div> dynamically aswell? Sure I can body.append etc. but that only adds at the bottom of the page. Is there a way to .append in the position where the script include <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> is actually placed? Hope I make sence.

    Read the article

  • SharePoint 2010 / ASP.Net Integration - Looking for advice

    - by jpennal
    I have been Googling a problem that I have with trying to integrate the web application that I am working on with SharePoint 2010. The web application is a wiki style tool that allows users to log in via forms authentication or WIA against Active Directory and create content for themselves and others. What we would like to do is to allow a user have a page with the content they have created in our web application mixed in with content that they have living on the SharePoint server. For example, they may want to see a list of documents that they have on the SharePoint server mixed in with some of their content. To accomplish this, we would like to take the credentials the user has logged into our web application with (for example MYDOMAIN\jsmith) and be able to query SharePoint for the documents of that same user (MYDOMAIN\jsmith) WITHOUT the user being prompted to re-enter their credentials to access the SharePoint server (we are trying to avoid the double-hop problem) We have come up with some options for how we want to do this, but we are unsure of what the best approach is. For example, we could - Have a global user, shared by all users to get information we need from SharePoint. The downside is that we cannot filter SharePoint content to a particular user - We could store the users credentials when they log in, but that would only work for users authenticating via forms auth and would be a security issue that some users/clients would not like - Writing a SharePoint extension using WCF to allow us to access the information we need, however we'd still have the issue of figuring out how to impersonate the user we want. Neither of these options are ideal and in our investigation we came across the Claims Authentication/STS option which seems like it is trying to solve the problem we are having. So my question is, based on what I have written, is Claims/STS the best approach for us? We have not been able to find much direction on how to use this method to call into SharePoint from a Web Application and pass along the existing credentials. Does anyone have any experience with any of these issues?

    Read the article

  • Socket Read In Multi-Threaded Application Returns Zero Bytes or EINTR (104)

    - by user309670
    Hi. Am a c-coder for a while now - neither a newbie nor an expert. Now, I have a certain daemoned application in C on a PPC Linux. I use PHP's socket_connect as a client to connect to this service locally. The server uses epoll for multiplexing connections via a Unix socket. A user submitted string is parsed for certain characters/words using strstr() and if found, spawns 4 joinable threads to different websites simultaneously. I use socket, connect, write and read, to interact with the said webservers via TCP on their port 80 in each thread. All connections and writes seems successful. Reads to the webserver sockets fail however, with either (A) all 3 threads seem to hang, and only one thread returns -1 and errno is set to 104. The responding thread takes like 10 minutes - an eternity long:-(. *I read somewhere that the 104 (is EINTR?), which in the network context suggests that ...'the connection was reset by peer'; or (B) 0 bytes from 3 threads, and only 1 of the 4 threads actually returns some data. Isn't the socket read/write thread-safe? I use thread-safe (and reentrant) libc functions such as strtok_r, gethostbyname_r, etc. *I doubt that the said webhosts are actually resetting the connection, because when I run a single-threaded standalone (everything else equal) all things works perfectly right, but of course in series not parallel. There's a second problem too (oops), I can't write back to the client who connect to my epoll-ed Unix socket. My daemon application will hang and hog CPU 100% for ever. Yet nothing is written to the clients end. Am sure the client (a very typical PHP socket application) hasn't closed the connection whenever this is happening - no error(s) detected either. Any ideas? I cannot figure-out whatever is wrong even with Valgrind, GDB or much logging. Kindly help where you can.

    Read the article

  • Detecting death of spawned process using Window CRT

    - by Michael Tiller
    Executive summary: I need a way to determine whether a Windows process I've spawned via _spawnl and am communicating with using FDs from _pipe has died. Details: I'm using the low-level CRT function in Windows (_eof, _read) to communicate with a process that was spawned via a call to _spawnl (with the P_NOWAIT) flag. I'm using _pipe to create file descriptors to communicate with this spawned process and passing those descriptors (the FD #) to it on the command line. It is worth mentioning that I don't control the spawned process. It's a black box to me. It turns out that the process we are spawning occasionally crashes. I'm trying to make my code robust to this by detecting the crash. Unfortunately, I can't see a way to do this. It seems reasonable to me to expect that a call to _eof or _read on one of those descriptors would return an error status (-1) if the process had died. Unfortunately, that isn't the case. It appears that the descriptors have a life of their own independent of the spawned process. So even though the process on the other end is dead, I get no error status on the file descriptor I'm using to communicate with it. I've got the PID for the nested process (returned from the _spanwnl call) but I don't see anything I can do with that. My code works really well except for one thing. I can't detect whether the spawned process is simply busy computing me an answer or has died. If I can use the information from _pipe and _spawnl to determine if the spawned process is dead, I'll be golden. Suggestions very welcome. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: I found a fairly simple solution and added it as the selected answer.

    Read the article

  • Where are the real risks in network security?

    - by Barry Brown
    Anytime a username/password authentication is used, the common wisdom is to protect the transport of that data using encryption (SSL, HTTPS, etc). But that leaves the end points potentially vulnerable. Realistically, which is at greater risk of intrusion? Transport layer: Compromised via wireless packet sniffing, malicious wiretapping, etc. Transport devices: Risks include ISPs and Internet backbone operators sniffing data. End-user device: Vulnerable to spyware, key loggers, shoulder surfing, and so forth. Remote server: Many uncontrollable vulnerabilities including malicious operators, break-ins resulting in stolen data, physically heisting servers, backups kept in insecure places, and much more. My gut reaction is that although the transport layer is relatively easy to protect via SSL, the risks in the other areas are much, much greater, especially at the end points. For example, at home my computer connects directly to my router; from there it goes straight to my ISPs routers and onto the Internet. I would estimate the risks at the transport level (both software and hardware) at low to non-existant. But what security does the server I'm connected to have? Have they been hacked into? Is the operator collecting usernames and passwords, knowing that most people use the same information at other websites? Likewise, has my computer been compromised by malware? Those seem like much greater risks. What do you think?

    Read the article

  • How to access CSS generated content with JavaScript

    - by Boldewyn
    I generate the numbering of my headers and figures with CSS's counter and content properties: img.figure:after { counter-increment: figure; content: "Fig. " counter(section) "." counter(figure); } This (appropriate browser assumed) gives a nice labelling "Fig. 1.1", "Fig. 1.2" and so on following any image. Question: How can I access this from Javascript? The question is twofold in that I'd like to access either the current value of a certain counter (at a certain DOM node) or the value of the CSS generated content (at a certain DOM node) or, obviously, both information. Background: I'd like to append to links back-referencing to figures the appropriate number, like this: <a href="#fig1">see here</h> ------------------------^ " (Fig 1.1)" inserted via JS As far as I can see, it boils down to this problem: I could access content or counter via getComputedStyle: var fig_content = window.getComputedStyle( document.getElementById('fig-a'), ':after').content; However, this is not the live value, but the one declared in the stylesheet. I cannot find any interface to access the real live value.

    Read the article

  • DDD: Persisting aggregates

    - by Mosh
    Hello, Let's consider the typical Order and OrderItem example. Assuming that OrderItem is part of the Order Aggregate, it an only be added via Order. So, to add a new OrderItem to an Order, we have to load the entire Aggregate via Repository, add a new item to the Order object and persist the entire Aggregate again. This seems to have a lot of overhead. What if our Order has 10 OrderItems? This way, just to add a new OrderItem, not only do we have to read 10 OrderItems, but we should also re-insert all these 10 OrderItems again. (This is the approach that Jimmy Nillson has taken in his DDD book. Everytime he wants to persists an Aggregate, he clears all the child objects, and then re-inserts them again. This can cause other issues as the ID of the children are changed everytime because of the IDENTITY column in database.) I know some people may suggest to apply Unit of Work pattern at the Aggregate Root so it keeps track of what has been changed and only commit those changes. But this violates Persistence Ignorance (PI) principle because persistence logic is leaking into the Domain Model. Has anyone thought about this before? Mosh

    Read the article

  • Are AJAX sites crawlable by search engines?

    - by frankadelic
    I had always assumed that AJAX-driven content was invisible to search engines. (i.e. content inserted into the DOM via XMLHTTPRequest) For example, in this site, the main content is loaded via AJAX request by the browser: http://www.trustedsource.org/query/terra.cl ...if you view this page with Javascript disabled, the main content area is blank. However, Google cache shows the full content after the AJAX load: http://74.125.155.132/search?q=cache:JqcT6EVDHBoJ:www.trustedsource.org/query/terra.cl+http://www.trustedsource.org/query/terra.cl&cd=1&hl=en&ct=clnk&gl=us So, apparently search engines do index content loaded by AJAX. Questions: Is this a new feature in search engines? Most postings on the web indicate that you have to publish duplicate static HTML content for search engines to find them. Are there any tricks to get an AJAX-driven content to be crawled by search engines (besides creating duplicate static HTML content). Will the AJAX-driven content be indexed if it is loaded from a separate subdomain? How about a separate domain?

    Read the article

  • mod_cgi , mod_fastcgi, mod_scgi , mod_wsgi, mod_python, FLUP. I don't know how many more. what is mo

    - by claws
    I recently learnt Python. I liked it. I just wanted to use it for web development. This thought caused all the troubles. But I like these troubles :) Coming from PHP world where there is only one way standardized. I expected the same and searched for python & apache. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/449055/setting-up-python-on-windows-apache says Stay away from mod_python. One common misleading idea is that mod_python is like mod_php, but for python. That is not true. So what is equivalent of mod_php in python? I need little clarification on this one http://stackoverflow.com/questions/219110/how-python-web-frameworks-wsgi-and-cgi-fit-together CGI, FastCGI and SCGI are language agnostic. You can write CGI scripts in Perl, Python, C, bash, or even Assembly :). So, I guess mod_cgi , mod_fastcgi, mod_scgi are their corresponding apache modules. Right? WSGI is some kind of optimized/improved inshort an efficient version specifically designed for python language only. In order to use this mod_wsgi is a way to go. right? This leaves out mod_python. What is it then? Apache - mod_fastcgi - FLUP (via CGI protocol) - Django (via WSGI protocol) Flup is another way to run with wsgi for any webserver that can speak FCGI, SCGI or AJP What is FLUP? What is AJP? How did Django come in the picture? These questions raise quetions about PHP. How is it actually running? What technology is it using? mod_php & mod_python what are the differences? In future if I want to use Perl or Java then again will I have to get confused? Kindly can someone explain things clearly and give a Complete Picture.

    Read the article

  • NSUndoManager with Core Data - Redo not working

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data document-based app which support undo/redo via the built-in NSUndoManager associated with the NSManagedObjectContext. I have a few actions set up which perform numerous tasks within Core Data, wrap all these tasks into an undo group via beginUndoGrouping/endUndoGrouping, and are processed by the NSUndoManager. Undo works fine. I can perform several successive actions, and each then undo each one of them successively and my app's state is maintained correctly. However, the "Redo" menu item is never enabled. This means that the NSUndoManager is telling the menu that there are no items to redo. I am wondering why the NSUndoManager is seemingly forgetting about items once they are undone, and not allowing redos to occur? One thing I should mention is that I'm disabling undo registration after a document is opened/created. When I perform an action, I call enableUndoRegistration, beginUndoGrouping, perform the action, then call processPendingChanges, setActionName:, endUndoGrouping, and finally disableUndoRegistration. This makes sure that only specific actions are undoable, and any other data changes I make outside of these go unnoticed to the NSUndoManager. This may be a part of the issue, but if so I'm wondering why it's affecting redo? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • using the window object for accessing global user defined objects and using text within html for cre

    - by timpone
    I don't do very much jquery / javascript but wanted to ask for some advice on the following piece. I have tried to cut out as much as possible. Most of this was semi-inherited code with catching a bunch of events just hardcoded in. I'd like to generalized them more by putting the object name in the html and accessing via jquery on processing (by_date, by_popularity). I retriev as string and access the object via window[current_obj]. Is this a good way to do this or am I missing something? Are there preferable ways to introduce specificity. thanks for any advice. <script> var by_date={}; by_date.current_page=1; by_date.per_page=4; var by_popularity={}; by_popularity.current_page=1; by_popularity.per_page=4; $(function(){ $('.previous.active').live('click',function(){ window[current_obj].current_page--; process(window[current_obj]); }); }); function process(game_obj){ //will process and output new items here } </script> <div class="otherContainer"> <a class='previous active'>Prev</a><div style="display:none;">by_date</div> | <a class='next'>Next</a><div style="display:none;">by_date</div> </div> <div class="topPrevNextContainer"> <a class='previous active'>Prev</a><div style="display:none;">by_popularity</div> | <a class='next'>Next</a><div style="display:none;">by_popularity</div> </div>

    Read the article

  • nServiceBus - No all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

    Read the article

  • QueryString malformed after URLDecode

    - by pdavis
    I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

    Read the article

  • Strange Ruby String Selection

    - by Daniel
    The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

    Read the article

  • Website --> Add Reference also creates files with pdb extensions

    - by SourceC
    Hello, Q1 Any assemblies stored in Bin directory will automatically be referenced by web application. We can add assembly reference via Website -- Add Reference or simply by copying dll into Bin folder. But I noticed that when we add reference via Website -- Add Reference, that additional files with .pdb extension are placed inside Bin. If these files are also needed, then why does reference still work even if we only place referenced dll into Bin, but not pdb files Q2 It appears that if you add a new item to web project, this class will automatically be added to project list and we can reference it from all pages in this project. So are all files added to project list automatically being referenced ? thanx EDIT: On your second question, you are adding a public class to a namespace so will be visible to other classes in that project and in that namespace. I don’t know much about assemblies, but I’d assume the reason why item( class ) added to the project is visible to other classes in that project is for the simple fact that in web project all classes get compiled into single assembly and for the fact that public classes contained in the same assembly are always visible to each other? much appreciated

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >