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  • Java assignment issues - Is this atomic?

    - by Bob
    Hi, I've got some questions about Java's assigment. Strings I've got a class: public class Test { private String s; public synchronized void setS(String str){ s = s + " - " + str; } public String getS(){ return s; } } I'm using "synchronized" in my setter, and avoiding it in my getter, because in my app, there are a tons of data gettings, and very few settings. Settings must be synchronized to avoid inconsistency. My question is: is getting and setting a variable atomic? I mean, in a multithreaded environment, Thread1 is about to set variable s, while Thread2 is about to get "s". Is there any way the getter method could get something different than the s's old value or the s's new value (suppose we've got only two threads)? In my app it is not a problem to get the new value, and it is not a problem to get the old one. But could I get something else? What about HashMap's getting and putting? considering this: public class Test { private Map<Integer, String> map = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<Integer, String>()); public synchronized void setMapElement(Integer key, String value){ map.put(key, value); } public String getValue(Integer key){ return map.get(key); } } Is putting and getting atomic? How does HashMap handle putting an element into it? Does it first remove the old value and put the now one? Could I get other than the old value or the new value? Thanks in advance!

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  • Newb Question: passing objects in java?

    - by Adam Outler
    Hello, I am new at java. I am doing the following: Read from file, then put data into a variable. checkToken = lineToken.nextToken(); processlinetoken() } But then when I try to process it... public static void readFile(String fromFile) throws IOException { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fromFile)); String line = null; while ((line=reader.readLine()) != null ) { if (line.length() >= 2) { StringTokenizer lineToken = new StringTokenizer (line); checkToken = lineToken.nextToken(); processlinetoken() ...... But here's where I come into a problem. public static void processlinetoken() checkToken=lineToken.nextToken(); } it fails out. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.Error: Unresolved compilation problem: The method nextToken() is undefined for the type String at testread.getEngineLoad(testread.java:243) at testread.readFile(testread.java:149) at testread.main(testread.java:119) so how do I get this to work? It seems to pass the variable, but nothing after the . works.

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  • Placing PHP array values into a javascript array?

    - by Michael Harringon
    Is these a way i can loop through a PHP array and have the data outputted into a JavaScript array? For example, the JS script below will not work var mon_Loop = <?php echo $rowCount_Mon ?>; var mon_Events = new Array(); for(i = 0; i < mon_Loop; i++) { mon_Events[i] = <?php $divMon[i] ?> } I Know its because the "i" is not a php variable so therefore invalid inside the php section, but its just an way to show what i would like to achieve. The $rowCount variable count the number of rows and is then used to for the loop. Lets say, for example that I want to place the contents of the PHP array "$divMon[0]" into the javascript array mon_Events[0]. I know that i can do it manually, like below mon_Events[0] = <?php echo $divMon[0] ?> But i have lots of these and therefore need the loop, Is there some JS or PHP that could do this? Cheers.

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  • With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

    - by brahn
    I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

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  • Prevent Rails link_to_remote multiple submits w Javascript

    - by Chris
    In a Rails project I need to keep a link_to_remote from getting double-clicked. It looks like :before and :after are my only choices - they get prepended/appended to the onclick Ajax call, respectively. But if I try something like: :before => "self.stopObserving()" t,he Ajax is never run. If I try it for :after the Ajax is run but the link never stops observing. The solutions I've seen rely on creating a variable and blocking the whole form, but there are multiple link_to_remote rows on this page and it is valid to click more than one of them at a time - just not the same one twice. One variable per row declared outside of link_to_remote seems very kludgey... Instead of using Prototype I originally tried plain Javascript first for this proof of concept - but it fails too: <a href="#" onclick="self.onclick = function(){alert('foo');};"click</a just puts up an alert when clicked - the lambda here does nothing? This next one is more like the desired goal and should only alert the first time. But instead it alerts every time: <a href="#" onclick="alert('bar'); self.onclick = function(){return false;};"click</a All ideas appreciated!

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  • How do i select the preceding nodes of a text node starting from a specific node and not the root no

    - by Rachel
    How do i select the preceding nodes of a text node starting from a specific node whose id i know instead of getting the text nodes from the root node? When i invoke the below piece from a template match of text node, I get all the preceding text nodes from the root. I want to modify the above piece of code to select only the text nodes that appear after the node having a specific id say 123. i.e something like //*[@id='123'] <xsl:template match="text()[. is $text-to-split]"> <xsl:variable name="split-index" as="xsd:integer" select="$index - sum(preceding::text()/string-length(.))"/> <xsl:value-of select="substring(., 1, $split-index - 1)"/> <xsl:copy-of select="$new"/> <xsl:value-of select="substring(., $split-index)"/> </xsl:template> <xsl:variable name="text-to-split" as="text()?" select="descendant::text()[sum((preceding::text(), .)/string-length(.)) ge $index][1]"/> How do i include the condition in places where i use preceding::text inorder to select preceding text nodes relative to the specific node's id which i know?

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  • I can't figure out why this fps counter is inaccurate.

    - by rmetzger
    I'm trying to track frames per second in my game. I don't want the fps to show as an average. I want to see how the frame rate is affected when I push keys and add models etc. So I am using a variable to store the current time and previous time, and when they differ by 1 second, then I update the fps. My problem is that it is showing around 33fps but when I move the mouse around really fast, the fps jumps up to 49fps. Other times, if I change a simple line of code elsewhere not related to the frame counter, or close the project and open it later, the fps will be around 60. Vsync is on so I can't tell if the mouse is still effecting the fps. Here is my code which is in an update function that happens every frame: FrameCount++; currentTime = timeGetTime (); static unsigned long prevTime = currentTime; TimeDelta = (currentTime - prevTime) / 1000; if (TimeDelta > 1.0f) { fps = FrameCount / TimeDelta; prevTime = currentTime; FrameCount = 0; TimeDelta = 0; } Here are the variable declarations: int FrameCount; double fps, currentTime, prevTime, TimeDelta, TimeElapsed; Please let me know what is wrong here and how to fix it, or if you have a better way to count fps. Thanks!!!!!! I am using DirectX 9 btw but I doubt that is relevant, and I am using PeekMessage. Should I be using an if else statement instead? Here is my message processing loop: MSG msg; ZeroMemory (&msg, sizeof (MSG)); while (msg.message != WM_QUIT) { if (PeekMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0, PM_REMOVE)) { TranslateMessage (&msg); DispatchMessage (&msg); } Update (); RenderFrame (); }

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  • How does real world login process happen in web application in Java?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I am very much confused regarding login process that happen in Java web application. I read many tutorials regarding jdbcRealm and JAAS. But, one thing that i don't understand is that why should i use them ? Can't i simply check directly against my database of users? and once they successfully login to the site, i store some variable in session as a flag. And probably check that session variable on all restricted pages (I mean keep a filter for restricted resources url pattern).If the flag doesn't exist simply redirect the user to login page. Is this approach correct?Does this approch sound correct? If yes, then why did all this JAAS and jdbcRealm came into existence? Secondly, I am trying to completely implement SAS(Software as service) in my web application, meaning everything is done through web services.If i use webservices, is it possible to use jdbcRealm? If not, then is it possible to use JAAS? If yes, then please show me some example which uses mySql as a database and then authenticates and authorizes. I even heard about Spring Security. But, i am confused about that too in the sense that how do i use webservice with Spring Security. Please help me. I am really very confused. I read sun's tutorials but they only keep talking about theories. For programmers to understand a simple concept, they show a 100 page theory first before they finally come to one example.

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  • Help a Beginner with a PHP based Login System

    - by Brian Lang
    I'm a bit embarrassed to say, but I've run into issue with creating a PHP based login system. I'm using a site template to handle the looks of the the login process, so I will spare you the code. Here is my thought process on how to handle the login: Create a simple login.php file. On there will be a form whose action is set to itself. It will check to see if the submit has been clicked, and if so validate to make sure the user entered a valid password / username. If they do, set a session variable save some login info (username, NOT password), and redirect them to a restricted area. If the login info isn't valid, save an error message in a session variable, display error message giving further instruction, and wait for the user to resubmit. Here is a chunk of what I have - hopefully one of you experts can see where I've gone wrong, and give me some insight: if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { if(!empty($_POST['username']) AND !empty(!$_POST['password'])) { header("Location: http://www.google.com"); } else { $err = 'All the fields must be filled in!'; } } if($err) { $_SESSION['msg']['login-err'] = $err; } ? Now the above is just an example - the intent of the above code is to process user input, with the script validating simply that the user has given input for username and password. If they have, I would like them, in this case, to be redirected to google.com (for the sake of this example). If not, save an error message. Given my current code, the error message will display perfectly, however if the user submits and has something entered for the username and password, the page simply doesn't redirect. I'm sure this is a silly question, but I am a beginner, and well, to be honest, a bit buzzed right now. Thanks so much!

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  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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  • How do I return a nested table from an oracle function using Java?

    - by Benny
    I have the following type declaration and Oracle function: CREATE OR REPLACE TYPE var_outcomes_results IS TABLE OF VARCHAR2(80); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION getValuesAbove(in_nodeID IN table1.KEY_SL%TYPE, in_variable IN VARCHAR2) RETURN var_outcomes_results IS currentID table1.KEY_SL%TYPE; results var_outcomes_results; currentIndex integer := 0; BEGIN currentID := in_nodeID; WHILE currentID != null LOOP FOR outcomeRecord IN (select distinct a.PARENT, b.NAME, c.OUTCOME from table1 a left outer join table2 b on a.KEY_SL = b.KEY_SL left outer join table3 c on b.VAR_ID = c.VAR_ID where a.KEY_SL = currentID) LOOP currentID := outcomeRecord.PARENT; IF lower(outcomeRecord.NAME) = lower(in_variable) AND outcomeRecord.OUTCOME != null THEN currentIndex := currentIndex + 1; results(currentIndex) := outcomeRecord.OUTCOME; END IF; END LOOP; END LOOP; RETURN results; END; I have the following Java function: public List<Object> getAboveValues(String variable, Integer nodeID) { Connection connection = null; CallableStatement callableStatement = null; try { connection = dataSource.getConnection(); callableStatement = connection.prepareCall("begin ? := getValuesAbove(?,?); end;"); callableStatement.registerOutParameter(1, OracleTypes.ARRAY); callableStatement.setInt(2, nodeID); callableStatement.setString(3, variable); callableStatement.execute(); System.out.println(callableStatement.getObject(1)); } catch( SQLException e ) { logger.error("An Exception was thrown in getAboveValues: " + e); } finally { closeDataResources(callableStatement, connection); } } However, when I execute the function, I get the following error message: "ORA-03115: unsupported network datatype or representation" What am I doing wrong? Any ideas/suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks, B.J.

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  • using volatile keyword

    - by sap
    As i understand, if we declare a variable as volatile, then it will not be stored in the local cache. Whenever thread are updating the values, it is updated to the main memory. So, other threads can access the updated value. But in the following program both volatile and non-volatile variables are displaying same value. The volatile variable is not updated for the second thread. Can anybody plz explain this why testValue is not changed. class ExampleThread extends Thread { private int testValue1; private volatile int testValue; public ExampleThread(String str){ super(str); } public void run() { if (getName().equals("Thread 1 ")) { testValue = 10; testValue1= 10; System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue : " + testValue); } if (getName().equals("Thread 2 ")) { System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue : " + testValue); } } } public class VolatileExample { public static void main(String args[]) { new ExampleThread("Thread 1 ").start(); new ExampleThread("Thread 2 ").start(); } } output: Thread 1 testValue1 : 10 Thread 1 testValue : 10 Thread 2 testValue1 : 0 Thread 2 testValue : 0

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  • questions about name mangling in C++

    - by Tim
    I am trying to learn and understand name mangling in C++. Here are some questions: (1) From devx When a global function is overloaded, the generated mangled name for each overloaded version is unique. Name mangling is also applied to variables. Thus, a local variable and a global variable with the same user-given name still get distinct mangled names. Are there other examples that are using name mangling, besides overloading functions and same-name global and local variables ? (2) From Wiki The need arises where the language allows different entities to be named with the same identifier as long as they occupy a different namespace (where a namespace is typically defined by a module, class, or explicit namespace directive). I don't quite understand why name mangling is only applied to the cases when the identifiers belong to different namespaces, since overloading functions can be in the same namespace and same-name global and local variables can also be in the same space. How to understand this? Do variables with same name but in different scopes also use name mangling? (3) Does C have name mangling? If it does not, how can it deal with the case when some global and local variables have the same name? C does not have overloading functions, right? Thanks and regards!

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  • How to modify exiting XML file with XmlDocument and XmlNode in C#

    - by Nano HE
    I already implemented to create the XML file below with XmlTextWriter when application initialization. And know I don't know how to update the childNode id value with XmlDocument & XmlNode. Is there some property to update the id value? I tried InnerText but failed. thank you. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Equipment xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <License licenseId="" licensePath=""/> <DataCollections> <GroupAIDs> <AID id="100"> <Variable id="200"/> <Variable id="201"/> </RPTID> <AID id=""> <ReportVariable id="205"/> </AID> <AID id="102"/> </GroupAIDs> <GroupBIDs> <BID id="2000"> <AID id="100"/> </BID> <BID id="2001"> <AID id="101"/> <AID id="102"/> </BID> </GroupBIDs> <GroupCIDs> <BID id="8"/> <BID id="9"/> <BID id="10"/> </GroupCIDs> </DataCollections> </Equipment>

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  • NullPointerException with static variables

    - by tomekK
    I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

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  • Android ADB has moved and Eclipse is looking in the old place

    - by Peter Nelson
    I did an SDK update last night and it moved adb.exe. In its place it left a file called "adb_has_moved.txt" saying The adb tool has moved to platform-tools/ If you don't see this directory in your SDK, launch the SDK and AVD Manager (execute the android tool) and install "Android SDK Platform-tools" Please also update your PATH environment variable to include the platform-tools/ directory, so you can execute adb from any location. So I did all that, including the PATH and now I can start adb.exe from any DOS prompt. But I still can't start it from Eclipse (Galileo 3.52). When I try it says Location of the Android SDK has not been set up in the preferences ... which is not true. The SDK IS set up in Preferences. The real problem is at the top of the Preferences window where it says "Could not find C:\SDK\android-sdk-windows\ tools \adb.exe!" ...No kidding - the update moved it to C:\SDK\android-sdk-windows\ platform-tools. Because it's specifying a specific (wrong) path Eclipse is bypassing the PATH variable. So how do I get Eclipse to look in the right place?

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  • Using Reflection.Emit to emit a "using (x) { ... }" block?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I'm trying to use Reflection.Emit in C# to emit a using (x) { ... } block. At the point I am in code, I need to take the current top of the stack, which is an object that implements IDisposable, store this away in a local variable, implement a using block on that variable, and then inside it add some more code (I can deal with that last part.) Here's a sample C# piece of code I tried to compile and look at in Reflector: public void Test() { TestDisposable disposable = new TestDisposable(); using (disposable) { throw new Exception("Test"); } } This looks like this in Reflector: .method public hidebysig instance void Test() cil managed { .maxstack 2 .locals init ( [0] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable disposable, [1] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable CS$3$0000, [2] bool CS$4$0001) L_0000: nop L_0001: newobj instance void LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable::.ctor() L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: nop L_000a: ldstr "Test" L_000f: newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor(string) L_0014: throw L_0015: ldloc.1 L_0016: ldnull L_0017: ceq L_0019: stloc.2 L_001a: ldloc.2 L_001b: brtrue.s L_0024 L_001d: ldloc.1 L_001e: callvirt instance void [mscorlib]System.IDisposable::Dispose() L_0023: nop L_0024: endfinally .try L_0009 to L_0015 finally handler L_0015 to L_0025 } I have no idea how to deal with that ".try ..." part at the end there when using Reflection.Emit. Can someone point me in the right direction?

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  • Using CSS max-height on an outer div to force scroll on an inner-div.

    - by Jay Neely
    I have an outer div with a variable height (and max-height) that's set with a specific pixel amount by JavaScript, containing two divs within. The 1st div is intended to hold a variable amount of content, e.g. a list of links. It has no height set. The 2nd div is intended to hold a fixed amount of content, and has a specific height set. Right now, the max-height isn't working. The 1st div keeps growing, even with overflow: auto; set, and pushes the 2nd div below it outside the bounds of the outer div. How can I make it so that when the 1st div gets too large for the outer div to contain both it and the fixed-height 2nd div, the 1st div will start to scroll? Example page: http://thevastdesign.com/scrollTest.html Thanks for any help. I'd appreciate a CSS solution the most, even if it requires some hacks. It only has to work in Firefox 3+, IE8, and IE7. Ideas?

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  • pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

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  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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  • Interface vs Abstract Class (general OO)

    - by Kave
    Hi, I have had recently two telephone interviews where I've been asked about the differences between an Interface and an Abstract class. I have explained every aspect of them I could think of, but it seems they are waiting for me to mention something specific, and I dont know what it is. From my experience I think the following is true, if i am missing a major point please let me know: Interface: Every single Method declared in an Interface will have to be implemented in the subclass. Only Events, Delegates, Properties (C#) and Methods can exist in a Interface. A class can implement multiple Interfaces. Abstract Class Only Abstract methods have to be implemented by the subclass. An Abstract class can have normal methods with implementations. Abstract class can also have class variables beside Events, Delegates, Properties and Methods. A class can only implement one abstract class only due non-existence of Multi-inheritance in C#. 1) After all that the interviewer came up with the question What if you had an Abstract class with only abstract methods, how would that be different from an interface? I didnt know the answer but I think its the inheritance as mentioned above right? 2) An another interviewer asked me what if you had a Public variable inside the interface, how would that be different than in Abstract Class? I insisted you can't have a public variable inside an interface. I didn't know what he wanted to hear but he wasn't satisfied either. Many Thanks for clarification, Kave See Also: When to use an interface instead of an abstract class and vice versa Interfaces vs. Abstract Classes How do you decide between using an Abstract Class and an Interface?

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • php funciton problem

    - by Holian
    Hello, i have this little script, which should ping the IPs in the host_to_ping array. This php is called with JS in the index.html. But somethin' wrong, 'coz the $rval is always 1 (which mean the host is unreachable). But i know that the first two host is alive. So i print the $res variable, and i see the message: Need to give the IP. I dont understand why dont replace the $host variable to the actual IP address in the function. <?php function ping($host) { exec(sprintf('ping -n 4', escapeshellarg($host)), $res, $rval); print_r($res); return $rval === 0; } $hosts_to_ping = array('10.54.23.254', '10.22.23.254', '10.23.66.134'); ?> <ul> <?php foreach ($hosts_to_ping as $host): ?> <li> <?php echo $host; ?> <?php $up = ping($host); ?> (<img src="<?php echo $up ? 'on' : 'off'; ?>" alt="<?php echo $up ? 'up' : 'down'; ?>">) </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul>

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  • Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

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