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• Application design in Spring MVC

  - by Ravi

  Hello All, I'm new to Spring MVC and trying out a simple project.It will contain a simple adding, viewing, updating and deleting user work flows. It will have login page and once authenticated the user will be taken to a welcome screen which will have links to add, view, update and delete users. Clicking on any of the links will take to individual pages where the user can do the specific tasks. What I'm doing here is, I'm using a MultiActionController to group together all requests related to User work flow. So the request from "Add User" link will handled by the addUser method in the UserController which will redirect the user to the "Add User" page, and the user can then fill in the details and save the new user. Now here is where I'm getting confused. Where should I put the save process of the new user, should I put that in new mehtod inside UserController, or use the same "addUser" method. What is the best way to handle this kind of scenario. I hope I was able to clear my question.

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• Best Way to automatically compress and minimize JavaScript files in an ASP.NET MVC app

  - by wgpubs

  So I have an ASP.NET MVC app that references a number of javascript files in various places (in the site master and additional references in several views as well). I'd like to know if there is an automated way, and if so what is the recommended approach, for compressing and minimizing such references into a single .js file where possible. Such that this ... <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/Ext.ux.grid.GridSummary/Ext.ux.grid.GridSummary.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.rating/ext.ux.ratingplugin.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext-starslider/ext-starslider.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.dollarfield.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.combobox.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.datepickerplus/ext.ux.datepickerplus-min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/SessionProvider.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/TabCloseMenu.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/ActivityForm.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/UserForm.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/SwappedGrid.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/Tree.js" type="text/javascript"></script> ... could be reduced to something like this ... <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/MyViewPage-min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Thanks

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• How do I send an XML document to an ASP.NET MVC page for manipuation

  - by Decker

  I have some hierarchical data stored as an multiple XML files on the server according to a vendor's schema. In my ASP.NET MVC (2!) application, I'd like the user to choose one of these hierarchies (i.e. file -- I provide a list in my controller's Index action). When the user selects one to "edit" my edit action should return a page that presents the XML hierarchy (it's a representation of a folder tree). So my thoughts are that the view would return HTML that contained a JQuery on load ajax call back to the server for the XML data -- at which point I would present the tree using one of the many JQuery tree controls. On the client side I'd like the user to manipulate the tree and when done, I'd like to post back the new hierarchy where I would replace the original XML file that represents that hierarchy. So my questions are: What form should I use to send the data down? XML or JSON?. If I send down XML then I would have to not only read the XML -- which JQuery can do -- but I would also have to be able to modify that XML and then send it back. Can I use JQuery to modify this XML DOM? And will all the namespace declarations be preserved? What form should I send the data back? If I originally sent the client the hierarchy as JSON (using JsonResult), then presumably I would have a hierarchy of javascript objects. What options would I have to post that back? Would I have to recreate the XML reprentation on the client and post that back? Or should I serialize back to JSON, post that to the server, and then have the server do the work of recreating the XML according to the schema. Thanks for any advice.

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• Upload image from Silverlight to ASP .net MVC 2.0 Action

  - by Raha

  Hello ... I have been trying really hard to Upload a photo from a Silverlight app to ASP .net MVC app. I simply use WebClient like this in Silverlight : private bool UploadFile(string fileName, Stream data) { try { UriBuilder ub = new UriBuilder("http://localhost:59933/Admin/Upload"); ub.Query = string.Format("filename={0}", fileName); WebClient wc = new WebClient(); wc.OpenReadCompleted += (sender, e) => { PushData(data, e.Result); e.Result.Close(); data.Close(); }; wc.OpenWriteAsync(ub.Uri); } catch (Exception) { throw; } return true; } private void PushData(Stream input, Stream output) { byte[] buffer = new byte[4096]; int byteRead; while ((byteRead = input.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) != 0) { output.Write(buffer, 0, byteRead); } } On the other hand I have created a simple action called Upload like this: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { //Some code here } The problem is that it doesn't hit the break point in Upload method. Is this even possible ? The reason why I am using Silverlight is that I want to preview the image before uploading it to server and it is very simple in Silverlight. I failed to do that in JavaScript and that is why Silverlight might be more useful here.

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• Can ASP.net MVC 2 Project and CMS can be Combined together

  - by coolguy97

  Hi, I have developed project using Asp.net MVC 2.Now the content part of My site i don't want to build a Cms for that So my question is can i used any existing CMS developed in MVC2 so that The content part will be taken care of by the CMS and Application part by developed project by me. I have used CMS like Silverstripe which is quite easy which also provides ORM to develop application on their Sapphire engine which but developed in PHP. If it is Combined then when writing Code i will write like this [This just Sample Imaginary Code.I just want CMS to be easy] <logo><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=logo></logo> <menu><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=menu></menu> <header><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=header></header> <body> <Pick_up_from_CMS ID=body> <MY_Application_Logic ID=Logic1><!--This May be my Registration or Search form> --> </body> <footer><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=footer></footer>

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• Asp.net MVC error with custom HttpModule

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I have a custom authentication HttpModule that is pretty strait forward. But I want it to run only for managed requests (and not for static ones). Asp.net MVC automatically adds configuration section for IIS7 web server: <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule,..." /> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule,..." /> </modules> <handlers> ... </handlers> </system.webServer> When I add my own module I also set its preCondition="managedHandler", but since there's runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" on parent <module> element my preCondition is ignored by design (as I read on MSDN). When I try to set though: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false"> I get this error: [image no longer valid] What else (which other module) do I have to set in web.config to make it work with this setting: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false">

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• understanding the models in MVC

  - by fayer

  i cant fully understand the models in MVC. so i am using symfony with doctrine. the doctrine models are created. does this mean that i don't have to create any models? are the doctrine models the only models i need? where should i put the code that uses the doctrine models: eg. $phoneIds = array(); $phone1 = new Phonenumber(); $phone1['phonenumber'] = '555 202 7890'; $phone1->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone1['id']; $phone2 = new Phonenumber(); $phone2['phonenumber'] = '555 100 7890'; $phone2->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone2['id']; $user = new User(); $user['username'] = 'jwage'; $user['password'] = 'changeme'; $user->save(); $user->link('Phonenumbers', $phoneIds); should this code be in the controller or in another model? and where should i validate these fields (check if it exists in database, that email is email etc)? could someone please shed a light on this. thanks.

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• What's the best way to transition to MVC coding?

  - by ggfan

  It's been around 5 months since I picked up a PHP book and started coding in PHP. At first, I created all my sites without any organizational plan or MVC. I soon found out that was a pain.. Then I started to read on stackoverflow on how to separate php and html and that's what I have been doing ever since. Ex: profile.php <--this file is HTML,css. I just echo the functions here. profile_functions.php <--this file is mostly PHP. has the functions. This is how I have been separating all my coding so far and now I feel I should move on and start MVC. But the problem is, I never used classes before and suck with them. And since MVC (such as cakephp and codeigniter) is all classes, that can't be good. My question: Is there any good books/sites/articles that teaches you how to code in MVC? I am looking for beginner beginner books :) I just started reading the codeigniter manuel and I think I am going to use that. When I looked at the example MVC, they use different PHP coding. When I start coding in MVC, would I have to learn a "new" way to code? Because right now I am coding in pure basic PHP.

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• Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

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• ASP.NET MVC - Binding a Child Entity to the Model

  - by Nathan Taylor

  This one seems painfully obvious to me, but for some reason I can't get it working the way I want it to. Perhaps it isn't possible the way I am doing it, but that seems unlikely. This question may be somewhat related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1274855/asp-net-mvc-model-binding-related-entities-on-same-page. I have an EditorTemplate to edit an entity with multiple related entity references. When the editor is rendered the user is given a drop down list to select related entities from, with the drop down list returning an ID as its value. <%=Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.Entity.ID)%> When the request is sent the form value is named as expected: "Entity.ID", however my strongly typed Model defined as an action parameter doesn't have Entity.ID populated with the value passed in the request. public ActionResult AddEntity(EntityWithChildEntities entityWithChildEntities) { } I tried fiddling around with the Bind() attribute and specified Bind(Include = "Entity.ID") on the entityWithChildEntities, but that doesn't seem to work. I also tried Bind(Include = "Entity"), but that resulted in the ModelBinder attempting to bind a full "Entity" definition (not surprisingly). Is there any way to get the default model binder to fill the child entity ID or will I need to add action parameters for each child entity's ID and then manually copy the values into the model definition?

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• ASP.NET MVC Creating a impersonated user.

  - by Malcolm

  Hi, I have a MVC app where I have a User class and the user can also impersonate another user(Admin users only). So I have this code below that authenticates the request and instantiates my version of a User class. It then tries to get the impersonated user from the Session object but Session is not available in this method in the global.asax. Hope this makes sense. How else could I do this? protected void Application_OnAuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { IMylesterService service = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(); if (Context.User != null) { if (Context.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { User user = service.GetUser(Context.User.Identity.Name); if (user == null) throw new ApplicationException("Context.user.Identity.name is not a recognized user"); User impersonatedUser = (User)this.Session["ImpersonatedUser"]; if (impersonatedUser == null) user.ImpersonatedUser = user; else user.ImpersonatedUser = impersonatedUser; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = user; return; } } User guest = service.GetGuestUser(); guest.ImpersonatedUser = guest; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = guest; }

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• ASP.net MVC 2 EditorFor Dictionary Bind

  - by user307540

  Hi! I try this, but don't work. bemutatkozas@Modify = null all the time. public class Iroda { public Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas { get; set; } } public ActionResult Index() { var dct = new Dictionary<int, string>(); dct.Add(1, "magyar"); dct.Add(2, "angol"); dct.Add(3, "olasz"); return View(new Iroda { bemutatkozas = dct }); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Modify(Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas) { return View(); } <% using (Html.BeginForm("Modify","Iroda")) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <%= Html.EditorFor(o=>o.bemutatkozas,"MultiLanguageEditor") %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<Dictionary<int, string>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach (var s in Model) { %> <%= Html.Hidden(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].key", s.Key) %> <%= Html.TextBox(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].value",s.Value) %> <% i++; %> <% }%> Whats the solution? Thx!

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• ASP.NET MVC Paging for a search form

  - by James Alexander

  I've read several different posts on paging w/ in MVC but none describe a scenario where I have something like a search form and then want to display the results of the search criteria (with paging) beneath the form once the user clicks submit. My problem is that, the paging solution I'm using will create <a href="..."> links that will pass the desired page like so: http://mysite.com/search/2/ and while that's all fine and dandy, I don't have the results of the query being sent to the db in memory or anything so I need to query the DB again. If the results are handled by the POST controller action for /Search and the first page of the data is rendered as such, how do I get the same results (based on the form criteria specified by the user) when the user clicks to move to page 2? Some javascript voodoo? Leverage Session State? Make my GET controller action have the same variables expected by the search criteria (but optional), when the GET action is called, instantiate a FormCollection instance, populate it and pass it to the POST action method (there-by satisfying DRY)? Can someone point me in the right direction for this scenario or provide examples that have been implemented in the past? Thanks!

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• Spring-MVC Problem using @Controller on controller implementing an interface

  - by layne

  I'm using spring 2.5 and annotations to configure my spring-mvc web context. Unfortunately, I am unable to get the following to work. I'm not sure if this is a bug (seems like it) or if there is a basic misunderstanding on how the annotations and interface implementation subclassing works. For example, @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } works fine. When the context starts up, the urls this handler deals with are discovered, and everything works great. This however does not: @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo implements Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } When I try to pull up the url, I get the following nasty stack trace: javax.servlet.ServletException: No adapter for handler [com.shaneleopard.web.controller.RegistrationController@e973e3]: Does your handler implement a supported interface like Controller? org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.getHandlerAdapter(DispatcherServlet.java:1091) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:874) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:809) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:571) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doGet(FrameworkServlet.java:501) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:627) However, if I change Bar to be an abstract superclass and have Foo extend it, then it works again. @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo extends Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } This seems like a bug. The @Controller annotation should be sufficient to mark this as a controller, and I should be able to implement one or more interfaces in my controller without having to do anything else. Any ideas?

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• Create serial number column in telerik mvc grid

  - by Jayaraj

  I could create a grid with telerik mvc <% Html.Telerik().Grid(Model) .Name("ProductGrid") .Columns(columns => { columns.Bound(h => h.ProductName).Width("34%"); columns.Bound(h => h.Description).Width("60%"); columns.Bound(h => h.ProductID).Format(Html.ImageLink("Edit", "Products", new { Id = "{0}" }, "/Content/images/icon_edit.gif", "", new { Id = "edit{0}" }, null).ToString()).Encoded(false).Title("").Sortable(false).Width("3%"); columns.Bound(h => h.ProductID).Format(Html.ImageLink("Delete", "Products", new { Id = "{0}" }, "/Content/images/icon_delete.gif", "", new { onclick = string.Format("return confirm('Are you sure to delete this add on?');") },null).ToString()).Encoded(false).Title("").Sortable(false).Width("3%"); }) .EnableCustomBinding(true) .DataBinding(databinding => databinding.Ajax().Select("_Index", "ProductGrid")) .Pageable(settings => settings.Total((int)ViewData["TotalPages"]) .PageSize(10)) .Sortable() .Render(); %> but I need to add a serial number column in telerik grid.How can i do this?

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• Readonly SiteMapNodes in ASP.Net MVC?

  - by BenN

  I'm using MVCSiteMap as a SiteMapProvider for my MVC site. I have a node set up like so.... <mvcSiteMapNode key="1" title="Product" controller="Product" action="Display" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id"> <mvcSiteMapNode key="11" title="More Details" controller="Product" action="MoreDetails" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id" /> </mvcSiteMapNode> ...Which means I can go to ~/Product/Display/12 and get a correct sitemap node for product id 12 (in this case just Product. And I can go to ~/Product/MoreDetails/12 and get the sitemap path for the MoreDetails (Product - More Details). The problem is that the link back to Product in this sitemap doesn't work - it skips the id off the end, instead linking to ~/Product/Display/. Which sucks. I've discovered I can edit the Title of a node using SiteMap.CurrentNode.Title = "My New Title"; But... SiteMap.CurrentNode.ParentNode.Url = "http://www.google.com"; Doesn't set the Url for the parent node; it gets the default link described before. Any ideas how I can set the URL of a SiteMapNode?

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• .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

  - by user135498

  Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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• ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

  - by mwgriffiths

  I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

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• ASP.Net MVC ActionLink's and Shared Hosting Aliased Domains

  - by Peter Meyer

  So, I've read this and I've got a similar issue: I have a shared hosting account (with GoDaddy, though that's not exactly relevant, I believe) and I've got an MVC (RC1) site deployed to a sub-folder which where I have another domain name mapped (or aliased). The sub-folder is also setup as an application root as well. The site works without issue, the problem is that I don't like the links that are being generated using Html.ActionLink and Ajax.ActionLink. It's inserting the sub folder name as part of the URL as described in this other question. Thing is, the site works fine, but I'd like to make the links generated relative to the domain name. To use an example: http://my.abc.com "primary" domain; maps to \ on file system http://my.xyz.com setup to map to \_xyz.com folder on file system My generated links on xyz.com look like this: Intended Generated -------- --------- http://my.xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 http://my.xyz.com/_xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 and, FWIW, the site works. So, the question: Is there something I can do to get rid of that folder name in the links being generated? I have a couple of brute force ideas, but they aren't too elegant.

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• PHP: MVC and Model

  - by Pirkka

  Hello I`ve been wondering this one thing about creating models. If I make for example Page model. Is it the both: It can retrieve one row from the table or all the rows. Somehow Im mixing the objects and the database. I have thought it like this: I would have to make a Page-class that would represent one row in the table. It also would have all the basic CRUD-methods. Then I would have to do a Pages-class (somekind of collection) that would retrieve rows from the table and instantiate a Page object from each row. Is this kind of weird? If someone could explain to me the idea of model throughout.. Im again confused. Maybe Im thinking the whole OOP too difficult.. And by the way this forum is great. Hopefully people will just understand my problems. Heh. I was a long time procedural style programmer and now in 3 months I have dived into OOP and MVC and PHP frameworks and I just get more excited day by day when I explore this stuff!

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• MVC.NET custom validator is not working

  - by IvanMushketyk

  I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

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• Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

  - by Bar

  I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

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• MVC : Checkboxes generated using JavaScript not appearing in FormCollection on postback

  - by Andy Evans

  I took over another project (written by one contractor, modified by another and now it's not working) written using MVC/C# where a view that has a table (see below) is dynamically populated using JSON/Javascript - the first column of which is a checkbox. View (spark view engine) <table id='component_list' name='component_list' cellpadding='0' border='0' cellspacing='0'> <thead> <tr> <th>&nbsp;</th> <th>Component</th> <th>Component Type</th> <th>Evenflo Part #</th> <th>Supplier Part #</th> <th>Supplier</th> <th>Requirement</th> <th>Location</th> <th>Region</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> </tbody> </table> When the page is rendered, I look at the source for the page and do not see the table data (I wouldn't expect to see this). However, when the form is posted back, controller, the FormCollection is empty. Supposedly this had been working before the last contractor got their hands on it - which is another post all together. My goal right now is having the checkboxes in the FormCollection. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks,

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• Injecting Dependencies into Domain Model classes with Nhibernate (ASP.NET MVC + IOC)

  - by Sunday Ironfoot

  I'm building an ASP.NET MVC application that uses a DDD (Domain Driven Design) approach with database access handled by NHibernate. I have domain model class (Administrator) that I want to inject a dependency into via an IOC Container such as Castle Windsor, something like this: public class Administrator { public virtual int Id { get; set; } //.. snip ..// public virtual string HashedPassword { get; protected set; } public void SetPassword(string plainTextPassword) { IHashingService hasher = IocContainer.Resolve<IHashingService>(); this.HashedPassword = hasher.Hash(plainTextPassword); } } I basically want to inject IHashingService for the SetPassword method without calling the IOC Container directly (because this is suppose to be an IOC Anti-pattern). But I'm not sure how to go about doing it. My Administrator object either gets instantiated via new Administrator(); or it gets loaded via NHibernate, so how would I inject the IHashingService into the Administrator class? On second thoughts, am I going about this the right way? I was hoping to avoid having my codebase littered with... currentAdmin.Password = HashUtils.Hash(password, Algorithm.Sha512); ...and instead get the domain model itself to take care of hashing and neatly encapsulate it away. I can envisage another developer accidently choosing the wrong algorithm and having some passwords as Sha512, and some as MD5, some with one salt, and some with a different salt etc. etc. Instead if developers are writing... currentAdmin.SetPassword(password); ...then that would hide those details away and take care of those problems listed above would it not?

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• ASP.Net MVC, JS injection and System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path

  - by Mose

  Hi, In my ASP.Net MVC application, I use custom error handling. I want to perform custom actions for each error case I meet in my application. So I override Application_Error, get the Server.GetLastError(); and do my business depending on the exception, the current user, the current URL (the application runs on many domains), the user IP, and many others. Obviousely, the application is often the target of hackers. In almost all the case it's not a problem to detect and manage it, but for some JS URL attacks, my error handling does not perform what I want it to do. Ex (from logs) : http://localhost:1809/Scripts/]||!o.support.htmlSerialize&&[1 When I got such an URL, an exception is raised when accessing the ConnectionStrings section in the web.config, and I can't even redirect to another URL. It leads to a "System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path, etc." The screenshot below shows the problem : http://screencast.com/t/Y2I1YWU4 An obvious solution is to write a HTTP module to filter the urls before they reach my application, but I'd like to avoid it because : I like having the whole security being managed in one place (in the Application_Error() method) In the module I cannot access the whole data I have in the application itself (application specific data I don't want to debate here) Questions : Did you meet this problem ? How did you manage it ? Thanks for you suggestions, Mose

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