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  • Preloading Winforms using a Stack and Hidden Form

    - by msarchet
    I am currently working on a project where we have a couple very control heavy user controls that are being used inside a MDI Controller. This is a Line of Business app and it is very data driven. The problem that we were facing was the aforementioned controls would load very very slowly, we dipped our toes into the waters of multi-threading for the control loading but that was not a solution for a plethora of reasons. Our solution to increasing the performance of the controls ended up being to 'pre-load' the forms onto a hidden window, create a stack of the existing forms, and pop off of the stack as the user requested a form. Now the current issue that I'm seeing that will arise as we push this 'fix' out to our testers, and the ultimately our users is this: Currently the 'hidden' window that contains the preloaded forms is visible in task manager, and can be shut down thus causing all of the controls to be lost. Then you have to create them on the fly losing the performance increase. Secondly, when the user uses up the stack we lose the performance increase (current solution to this is discussed below). For the first problem, is there a way to hide this window from task manager, perhaps by creating a parent form that encapsulates both the main form for the program and the hidden form? Our current solution to the second problem is to have an inactivity timer that when it fires checks the stacks for the forms, and loads a new form onto the stack if it isn't full. However this still has the potential of causing a hang in the UI while it creates the forms. A possible solutions for this would be to put 'used' forms back onto the stack, but I feel like there may be a better way. EDIT: For control design clarification From the comments I have realized there is a lack of clarity on what exactly the control is doing. Here is a detailed explanation of one of the controls. I have defined for this control loading time as the time it takes from when a user performs an action that would open a control, until the time a control is accessible to be edited. The control is for entering Prescriptions for a patient in the system, it has about 5 tabbed groups with a total of about 180 controls. The user selects to open a new Prescription control from inside the main program, this control is loaded into the MDI Child area of the Main Form (which is a DevExpress Ribbon Control). From the time the user clicks New (or loads an existing record) until the control is visible. The list of actions that happens in the program is this: The stack is checked for the existence of a control. If the control exists it is popped off of the stack. The control is rendered on screen. This is what takes 2 seconds The control then is populated with a blank object, or with existing data. The control is ready to use. The average percentage of loading time, across about 10 different machines, with different hardware the control rendering takes about 85 - 95 percent of the control loading time. Without using the stack the control takes about 2 seconds to load, with the stack it takes about .8 seconds, this second time is acceptable. I have looked at Henry's link and I had previously already implemented the applicable suggestions. Again I re-iterate my question as What is the best method to move controls to and from the stack with as little UI interruption as possible?

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  • "type" Command Not Working As Expected on Git Bash

    - by trysis
    The type command, in Linux, returns the location, on the filesystem, of the given file, if it is in the current folder or the $PATH. This functionality is also available through Windows with the Git Bash command line program. The command also returns a file's location given the file without its extension (.exe, .vbs, etc.) However, I have run into what seems like a strange corner case where the file exists on the $PATH but doesn't get returned using the command. I am thinking of buying a new computer soon, so I looked up the method of transferring the license key from one computer to another, in preparation for actually doing this. The method I found mentioned the files slmgr.vbs and slui.exe, both of which reside in the C:/Windows\System32 folder, which is in my $PATH, as usual for a Windows computer. However, these two files aren't showing up when I use the type command. Also, neither gets executed when I call the files as commands without their extensions in Git Bash, and only slmgr.vbs gets executed when I call them with the extensions. Finally, slmgr.vbs is shown when listing the folder's contents in Git Bash, as well, but slui.exe isn't. I thought this might have to do with permissions, and, indeed, both files have very restrictive permissions, as you can see in the pictures below, but they both have the same permissions, which wouldn't explain why one gets executed and the other doesn't when called directly, nor why one file is listed on command line but the other isn't. C:\Windows\System32 folder, proving the files exist: File permissions for the Users and Administrators groups for the two files (they are identical): And the folder: type command and its output in Git Bash for the 2 files, plus listing the files in the folder (using grep to filter as the folder is huge), as well as listing part of the $PATH (keep in mind, for all these, that Git Bash changes the paths as they are displayed): Sean@MYPC ~ $ type -a slmgr sh.exe": type: slmgr: not found Sean@MYPC ~ $ type -a slmgr.vbs sh.exe": type: slmgr.vbs: not found Sean@MYPC ~ $ type -a slui sh.exe": type: slui: not found Sean@MYPC ~ $ type -a slui.exe sh.exe": type: slui.exe: not found Sean@MYPC ~ $ slmgr sh.exe": slmgr: command not found Sean@MYPC ~ $ slmgr.vbs /c/WINDOWS/system32/slmgr.vbs: line 2: syntax error near unexpected token `(' /c/WINDOWS/system32/slmgr.vbs: line 2: `' Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation. A ll rights reserved.' Sean@MYPC ~ $ slui sh.exe": slui: command not found Sean@MYPC ~ $ slui.exe sh.exe": slui.exe: command not found Sean@MYPC ~ $ ls /c/Windows/System32/slui.exe /c/Windows/System32/slmgr.vbs ls: /c/Windows/System32/slui.exe: No such file or directory /c/Windows/System32/slmgr.vbs Sean@MYPC ~ $ echo $PATH /c/Users/Sean/bin:.:/usr/local/bin:/mingw/bin:/bin:/cmd:/c/Python33/:/c/Program Files (x86)/Intel/iCLS Client/:/c/Program Files/Intel/iCLS Client/:/c/WINDOWS/sy stem32:/c/WINDOWS:/c/WINDOWS/System32/Wbem:/c/WINDOWS/System32/WindowsPowerShell /v1.0/:/c/Program Files/Intel/Intel(R) Management Engine Components/DAL:/c/Progr am Files/Intel/Intel(R) Management Engine Components/IPT:/c/Program Files (x86)/ Intel/Intel(R) Management Engine Components/DAL:/c/Program Files (x86)/Intel/Int el(R) Management Engine Components/IPT:/c/Program Files/Intel/WiFi/bin/:/c/Progr am Files/Common Files/Intel/WirelessCommon/:/c/strawberry/c/bin:/c/strawberry/pe rl/site/bin:/c/strawberry/perl/bin:/c/Program Files (x86)/Microsoft ASP.NET/ASP. NET Web Pages/v1.0/:/c/Program Files/Microsoft SQL Server/110/Tools/Binn/:/c/Pro gram Files (x86)/Microsoft SQL Server/90/Tools/binn/:/c/Program Files (x86)/Open AFS/Common:/c/HashiCorp/Vagrant/bin:/c/Program Files (x86)/Windows Kits/8.1/Wind ows Performance Toolkit/:/c/Program Files/nodejs/:/c/Program Files (x86)/Git/cmd :/c/Program Files (x86)/Git/bin:/c/Program Files/Microsoft/Web Platform Installe r/:/c/Ruby200-x64/bin:/c/Users/Sean/AppData/Local/Box/Box Edit/:/c/Program Files (x86)/SSH Communications Security/SSH Secure Shell:/c/Users/Sean/Documents/Lisp :/c/Program Files/GCL-2.6.1/lib/gcl-2.6.1/unixport:/c/Chocolatey/bin:/c/Users/Se an/AppData/Roaming/npm:/c/wamp/bin/mysql/mysql5.6.12/bin:/c/Program Files/Oracle /VirtualBox:/c/Program Files/Java/jdk1.7.0_51/bin:/c/Program Files/Node-Growl:/c /chocolatey/bin:/c/Program Files/eclipse:/c/MongoDB/bin:/c/Program Files/7-Zip:/ c/Program Files (x86)/Google/Chrome/Application:/c/Program Files (x86)/LibreOffi ce 4/program:/c/Program Files (x86)/OpenOffice 4/program What's happening? Why aren't these files listed with the type command? Is this issue because of weird Windows permissions, or something even weirder? If permissions, why do they seem to have the same permissions, yet both are not handled in the same way?

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  • Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

    - by Nader
    Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos; }

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  • Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

    - by Nader
    Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos;

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  • Does my fat-client application belong in the MVC pattern?

    - by boatingcow
    The web-based application I’m currently working on is growing arms and legs! It’s basically an administration system which helps users to keep track of bookings, user accounts, invoicing etc. It can also be accessed via a couple of different websites using a fairly crude API. The fat-client design loosely follows the MVC pattern (or perhaps MVP) with a php/MySQL backend, Front Controller, several dissimilar Page Controllers, a liberal smattering of object-oriented and procedural Models, a confusing bunch of Views and templates, some JavaScripts, CSS files and Flash objects. The programmer in me is a big fan of the principle of “Separation of Concerns” and on that note, I’m currently trying to figure out the best way to separate and combine the various concerns as the project grows and more people contribute to it. The problem we’re facing is that although JavaScript (or Flash with ActionScript) is normally written with the template, hence part of the View and decoupled from the Controller and Model, we find that it actually encompasses the entire MVC pattern... Swap an image with an onmouseover event - that’s Behaviour. Render a datagrid - we’re manipulating the View. Send the result of reordering a list via AJAX - now we’re in Control. Check a form field to see if an email address is in a valid format - we’re consulting the Model. Is it wise to let the database people write up the validation Model with jQuery? Can the php programmers write the necessary Control structures in JavaScript? Can the web designers really write a functional AJAX form for their View? Should there be a JavaScript overlord for every project? If the MVC pattern could be applied to the people instead of the code, we would end up with this: Model - the database boffins - “SELECT * FROM mind WHERE interested IS NULL” Control - pesky programmers - “class Something extends NothingAbstractClass{…}” View - traditionally the domain of the graphic/web designer - “” …and a new layer: Behaviour - interaction and feedback designer - “CSS3 is the new black…” So, we’re refactoring and I’d like to stick to best practice design, but I’m not sure how to proceed. I don’t want to reinvent the wheel, so would anyone have any hints or tips as to what pattern I should be looking at or any code samples from someone who’s already done the dirty work? As the programmer guy, how can I rewrite the app for backend and front end whilst keeping the two separate? And before you ask, yes I’ve looked at Zend, CodeIgnitor, Symfony, etc., and no, they don’t seem to cross the boundary between server logic and client logic!

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  • How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

    - by FreshCode
    I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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  • Can't access a map member from a pointer

    - by fjfnaranjo
    Hi. That's my first question :) I'm storing the configuration of my program in a Group->Key->Value form, like the old INIs. I'm storing the information in a pair of structures. First one, I'm using a std::map with string+ptr for the groups info (the group name in the string key). The second std::map value is a pointer to the sencond structure, a std::list of std::maps, with the finish Key->Value pairs. The Key-Value pairs structure is created dynamically, so the config structure is: std::map< std::string , std::list< std::map<std::string,std::string> >* > lv1; Well, I'm trying to implement two methods to check the existence of data in the internal config. The first one, check the existence of a group in the structure: bool isConfigLv1(std::string); bool ConfigManager::isConfigLv1(std::string s) { return !(lv1.find(s)==lv1.end()); } The second method, is making me crazy... It check the existence for a key inside a group. bool isConfigLv2(std::string,std::string); bool ConfigManager::isConfigLv2(std::string s,std::string d) { if(!isConfigLv1(s)) return false; std::map< std::string , std::list< std::map<std::string,std::string> >* >::iterator it; std::list< std::map<std::string,std::string> >* keyValue; std::list< std::map<std::string,std::string> >::iterator keyValueIt; it = lv1.find(s); keyValue = (*it).second; for ( keyValueIt = keyValue->begin() ; keyValueIt != keyValue->end() ; keyValueIt++ ) if(!((*keyValueIt).second.find(d)==(*keyValueIt).second.end())) return true; return false; } I don't understand what is wrong. The compiler says: ConfigManager.cpp||In member function ‘bool ConfigManager::isConfigLv2(std::string, std::string)’:| ConfigManager.cpp|(line over return true)|error: ‘class std::map<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::less<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > >, std::allocator<std::pair<const std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > > > >’ has no member named ‘second’| But it has to have the second member, because it's a map iterator... Any suggestion about what's happening? Sorry for my English :P, and consider I'm doing it as a exercise, I know there are a lot of cool configuration managers.

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  • Oracle data warehouse design - fact table acting as a dimension?

    - by Elizabeth
    THANKS: Both answers here are very helpful, but I could only pick one. I really appreciate the advice! our datawarehouse will be used more for workflow reports than traditional analytical reports. Our users care about "current picture" far more than history. (though history matters, too.) We are a government entity that does not have costs or related calculations. Mostly just counts of people within given locations and with related history. We are using Oracle, and I have found distinct advantage in using the star join whenever possible and would like to rearchitect everything to as closely resemble the star schema as is reasonable for our business uses. Speed in this DW is vital, and a number of tests have already proven the star schema approach to me. Our "person" table is key - it contains over 4 million records and will be the most frequently used source in queries. It can be seen at the center of a star with multiple dimensions (like age, gender, affiliation, location, etc.). It is a very LONG table, particularly when I join it to the address and contact information. However, it is more like a dimension table when we start looking at history. For example, there are two different history tables that have a person key pointing to the person table. One has over 20 million records and the other has almost 50 million and grows daily. Is this table a fact table or a dimension table? Can one work as both? If so, is that going to be a big performance problem? Is it common to query more off of a dimension than a fact? What happens if a DIFFERENT fact table that uses the person table as a dimension is actually only 60,000 records (much smaller.). I think my problem is that our data and use of it does not fit with the commonly use examples of star schemas. CLARIFICATION: Some good thoughts have been added below, but perhaps I left too much out to really explain well. Here's some more info: We handle a voter database. We don't have any measures except voter counts by various groups: voter counts by party, by age, by location; voter counts by ballot type and election, by ballot status and election, etc. We do have a "voting history" log as well as an activity audit log (change of address, party, etc.). We have information on which voters are election workers and all that related information. I figure I'll get to the peripheral stuff later. For now I'm focusing on our two major "business processes": voter registration(which IS a voter.) and election turnout. In the first, voter is a fact. In the second, voter is a dimension, along with party, election, and type of ballot. (and in case anyone is worried - no we don't know HOW people vote. Just that they do. LOL ) I hope that clarifies things a bit.

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  • Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

    - by JD Courtoy
    I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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  • When is it worth using a BindingSource?

    - by Justin
    I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

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  • LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

    - by bradhe
    So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

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  • What is the coolest thing you can do in <10 lines of simple code? Help me inspire beginners!

    - by Tom Ritter
    I'm looking for the coolest thing you can do in a few lines of simple code. I'm sure you can write a Mandelbrot set in Haskell in 15 lines but it's difficult to follow. My goal is to inspire students that programming is cool. We know that programming is cool because you can create anything you imagine - it's the ultimate creative outlet. I want to inspire these beginners and get them over as many early-learning humps as I can. Now, my reasons are selfish. I'm teaching an Intro to Computing course to a group of 60 half-engineering, half business majors; all freshmen. They are the students who came from underprivileged High schools. From my past experience, the group is generally split as follows: a few rock-stars, some who try very hard and kind of get it, the few who try very hard and barely get it, and the few who don't care. I want to reach as many of these groups as effectively as I can. Here's an example of how I'd use a computer program to teach: Here's an example of what I'm looking for: a 1-line VBS script to get your computer to talk to you: CreateObject("sapi.spvoice").Speak InputBox("Enter your text","Talk it") I could use this to demonstrate order of operations. I'd show the code, let them play with it, then explain that There's a lot going on in that line, but the computer can make sense of it, because it knows the rules. Then I'd show them something like this: 4(5*5) / 10 + 9(.25 + .75) And you can see that first I need to do is (5*5). Then I can multiply for 4. And now I've created the Object. Dividing by 10 is the same as calling Speak - I can't Speak before I have an object, and I can't divide before I have 100. Then on the other side I first create an InputBox with some instructions for how to display it. When I hit enter on the input box it evaluates or "returns" whatever I entered. (Hint: 'oooooo' makes a funny sound) So when I say Speak, the right side is what to Speak. And I get that from the InputBox. So when you do several things on a line, like: x = 14 + y; You need to be aware of the order of things. First we add 14 and y. Then we put the result (what it evaluates to, or returns) into x. That's my goal, to have a bunch of these cool examples to demonstrate and teach the class while they have fun. I tried this example on my roommate and while I may not use this as the first lesson, she liked it and learned something. Some cool mathematica programs that make beautiful graphs or shapes that are easy to understand would be good ideas and I'm going to look into those. Here are some complicated actionscript examples but that's a bit too advanced and I can't teach flash. What other ideas do you have?

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  • I can't get SetSystemTime to work in Windows Vista using C# with Interop (P/Invoke).

    - by Andrew
    Hi, I'm having a hard time getting SetSystemTime working in my C# code. SetSystemtime is a kernel32.dll function. I'm using P/invoke (interop) to call it. SetSystemtime returns false and the error is "Invalid Parameter". I've posted the code below. I stress that GetSystemTime works just fine. I've tested this on Vista and Windows 7. Based on some newsgroup postings I've seen I have turned off UAC. No difference. I have done some searching for this problem. I found this link: http://groups.google.com.tw/group/microsoft.public.dotnet.framework.interop/browse_thread/thread/805fa8603b00c267 where the problem is reported but no resolution seems to be found. Notice that UAC is also mentioned but I'm not sure this is the problem. Also notice that this gentleman gets no actual Win32Error. Can someone try my code on XP? Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong and how to fix it. If the answer is to somehow change permission settings programatically, I'd need an example. I would have thought turning off UAC should cover that though. I'm not required to use this particular way (SetSystemTime). I'm just trying to introduce some "clock drift" to stress test something. If there's another way to do it, please tell me. Frankly, I'm surprised I need to use Interop to change the system time. I would have thought there is a .NET method. Thank you very much for any help or ideas. Andrew Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace SystemTimeInteropTest { class Program { #region ClockDriftSetup [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct SystemTime { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Year; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Month; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short DayOfWeek; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Day; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Hour; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Minute; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Second; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Milliseconds; } [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern void GetLocalTime( out SystemTime systemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern void GetSystemTime( out SystemTime systemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool SetSystemTime( ref SystemTime systemTime); //[DllImport("kernel32.dll", SetLastError = true)] //public static extern bool SetLocalTime( //ref SystemTime systemTime); [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImportAttribute("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "SetLocalTime")] [return: System.Runtime.InteropServices.MarshalAsAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.UnmanagedType.Bool)] public static extern bool SetLocalTime([InAttribute()] ref SystemTime lpSystemTime); #endregion ClockDriftSetup static void Main(string[] args) { try { SystemTime sysTime; GetSystemTime(out sysTime); sysTime.Milliseconds += (short)80; sysTime.Second += (short)3000; bool bResult = SetSystemTime(ref sysTime); if (bResult == false) throw new System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("Drift Error: " + ex.Message); } } } }

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  • Custom validator not invoked when using Validation Application Block through configuration

    - by Chris
    I have set up a ruleset in my configuration file which has two validators, one of which is a built-in NotNullValidator, the other of which is a custom validator. The problem is that I see the NotNullValidator hit, but not my custom validator. The custom validator is being used to validate an Entity Framework entity object. I have used the debugger to confirm the NotNull is hit (I forced a failure condition so I saw it set an invalid result), but it never steps into the custom one. I am using MVC as the web app, so I defined the ruleset in a config file at that layer, but my custom validator is defined in another project. However, I wouldn't have thought that to be a problem because when I use the Enterprise Library Configuration tool inside Visual Studio 2008 it is able to set the type properly for the custom validator. As well, I believe the custom validator is fine as it builds ok, and the config tool can reference it properly. Does anybody have any ideas what the problem could be, or even what to do/try to debug further? Here is a stripped down version of my custom validator: [ConfigurationElementType(typeof(CustomValidatorData))] public sealed class UserAccountValidator : Validator { public UserAccountValidator(NameValueCollection attributes) : base(string.Empty, "User Account") { } protected override string DefaultMessageTemplate { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } protected override void DoValidate(object objectToValidate, object currentTarget, string key, ValidationResults results) { if (!currentTarget.GetType().Equals(typeof(UserAccount))) { throw new Exception(); } UserAccount userAccountToValidate = (UserAccount)currentTarget; // snipped code ... this.LogValidationResult(results, "The User Account is invalid", currentTarget, key); } } Here is the XML of my ruleset in Validation.config (the NotNull rule is only there to force a failure so I could see it getting hit, and it does): <validation> <type defaultRuleset="default" assemblyName="MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="MyProj.Entities.UserAccount"> <ruleset name="default"> <properties> <property name="HashedPassword"> <validator negated="true" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.NotNullValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" name="Not Null Validator" /> </property> <property name="Property"> <validator messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="MyProj.Entities.UserAccountValidator, MyProj.Entities, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="Custom Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> </type> </validation> And here is the stripped down version of the way I invoke the validation: var type = entity.GetType() var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator(type, "default", new FileConfigurationSource("Validation.config")) var results = validator.Validate(entity) Any advice would be much appreciated! Thanks, Chris

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  • Is it worth moving from stored procedures to linq ?

    - by Josef
    I'm looking at standardizing programming in an organisaiton. Half uses stored procedures and the other half Linq. From what i've read there is still some debate going on on this topic. My concern is that MS is trying to slip in it's own proprietry query language 'linq' to make SQL redundant. If a few years back microsoft had tried to win customers from oracle and sybase with their MSSQL database and stated that it didn't use SQL by their own proprietry query langues ie linq. I doubt many would have switched. I believe that is exactly what is happening now by introducting it into the applicaiton business layer. I have used MS for many years but there is one gripe that I have with them and that is that they change their direction a lot. By a lot I mean new releases of .net, silverlight etc are more than 30% different from previous version. So by the time you become productive a new release is on the way. As things stand now a web developer using .net would need to know either vb.net or c#, xml, xaml,javascript,html, sql and now linq. That doesn't make for good productivity in my books. My concern is that once we all start using linq MS will start changing it between releases. and it will become an ever changing landscape. I believe that 'linq to sql' has already been deprecated. At leas with SQL we are dealing with a more stable and standardized language. Are we looking at a programming revolution or a marketing campaign? As far as I know other languages like Cobol have stayed the same for years. A cobol program from 20 years ago could pick up todays code and start working on it. Could a Vb3 person work on a modern .net web app ? Would these large changes need to be made if the underlying original foundation had been sound ? I worry about following MS shaking roadmap with it's deadends and double backs. are there any architects out there who feel the same ? regards Josef

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  • How can I read the verbose output from a Cmdlet in C# using Exchange Powershell

    - by mrkeith
    Environment: Exchange 2007 sp3 (2003 sp2 mixed mode) Visual Studio 2008, .Net 3.5 Hello, I'm working with an Exchange powershell move-mailbox cmdlet and have noted when I do so from the Exchange Management shell (using the Verbose switch) there is a ton of real-time information provided. To provide a little context, I'm attempting to create a UI application that moves mailboxes similarly to the Exchange Management Console but desire to support an input file and specific server/database destinations for each entry (and threading). Here's roughly what I have at present but I'm not sure if there is an event I need to register for or what... And to be clear, I desire to get this information in real-time so I may update my UI to reflect what's occurring in the move sequence for the appropriate user (pretty much like the native functionality offered in the Management Console). And in case you are wondering, the reason why I'm not content with the Management Console functionality is, I have an algorithm which I'm using to balance users depending on storage limit, Blackberry use, journaling, exception mailbox size etc which demands user be mapped to specific locations... and I do not desire to create many/several move groups for each common destination or to hunt for lists of users individually through the management console UI. I can not seem to find any good documentation or examples of how to tie into reading the verbose messages that are provided within the console using C# (I see value in being able to read this kind of information in many different scenarios). I've explored the Invoke and InvokeAsync methods and the StateChanged & DataReady events but none of these seem to provide the information (verbose comments) that I'm after. Any direction or examples that can be provided will be very appreciated! A code sample which is little more than how I would ordinarily call any other powershell command follows: // config to use ExMgmt shell, create runspace and open it RunspaceConfiguration rsConfig = RunspaceConfiguration.Create(); PSSnapInException snapInException = null; PSSnapInInfo info = rsConfig.AddPSSnapIn("Microsoft.Exchange.Management.PowerShell.Admin", out snapInException); if (snapInException != null) throw snapInException; Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(rsConfig); try { runspace.Open(); // create a pipeline and feed script text Pipeline pipeline = runspace.CreatePipeline(); string targetDatabase = @"myServer\myStorageGroup\myDB"; string mbxOwner = "[email protected]"; Command myMoveMailbox = new Command("Move-Mailbox", false, false); myMoveMailbox.Parameters.Add("Identity", mbxOwner); myMoveMailbox.Parameters.Add("TargetDatabase", targetDatabase); myMoveMailbox.Parameters.Add("Verbose"); myMoveMailbox.Parameters.Add("ValidateOnly"); myMoveMailbox.Parameters.Add("Confirm", false); pipeline.Commands.Add(myMoveMailbox); System.Collections.ObjectModel.Collection output = null; // these next few lines that are commented out are where I've tried // registering for events and calling asynchronously but this doesn't // seem to get me anywhere closer // //pipeline.StateChanged += new EventHandler(pipeline_StateChanged); //pipeline.Output.DataReady += new EventHandler(Output_DataReady); //pipeline.InvokeAsync(); //pipeline.Input.Close(); //return; tried these variations that are commented out but none seem to be useful output = pipeline.Invoke(); // Check for errors in the pipeline and throw an exception if necessary if (pipeline.Error != null && pipeline.Error.Count 0) { StringBuilder pipelineError = new StringBuilder(); pipelineError.AppendFormat("Error calling Test() Cmdlet. "); foreach (object item in pipeline.Error.ReadToEnd()) pipelineError.AppendFormat("{0}\n", item.ToString()); throw new Exception(pipelineError.ToString()); } foreach (PSObject psObject in output) { // blah, blah, blah // this is normally where I would read details about a particular PS command // but really pertains to a command once it finishes and has nothing to do with // the verbose messages that I'm after... since this part of the methods pertains // to the after-effects of a command having run, I'm suspecting I need to look to // the asynch invoke method but am not certain or knowing how. } } finally { runspace.Close(); } Thanks! Keith

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  • How to get jQuery draggable elements scroll with mb.imageNavigator

    - by bulltorious
    I am using jQuery mb.imageNavigator (1.8) from http://pupunzi.open-lab.com/mb-jquery-components/mb-imagenavigator/ to implements a Risk type game adjucation system. Using the imageNavigator plugin I am able to scroll around a large game map of the world. My issue is when I declare some elements as draggable and drag them onto the map image, their location does not stay relative to where in the picture I put them. They just stay fixed on the screen no matter where I scroll. Does anyone know how to make the the draggable elements scroll with the image? Matteo posts about "you can add an additional content layer that overlay image and moves with it" and posts an example, but I can't make it work. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> ` <head> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/jquery/jquery-1.3.2.js"> </script> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/jquery/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"> </script> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/utilities/mbImgNav.min.js_0.js"> </script> <script type="text/jscript" src="lib/utilities/start.js"> </script> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>New Web Project</title> </head> <body> <div id="AdamsAshTray" style="float:right; background-color:red; z-index:999"> test test test </div> <div id="navArea"> <div imageUrl="someimage" navPosition="BR" navWidth="100" style="display:none;" class="imagesContainer"> <span class="title">zuccheriera</span> <div class="description"> <STRONG>description1</STRONG> </div> </div> </div> </body> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#navArea").imageNavigator({ areaWidth:1820, areaHeight:1000, draggerStyle: "1px dotted red", navOpacity: .8 }) $("#AdamsAshTray").draggable({ grid: [20,20] }); })`

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  • ItemsControl ItemTemplate Binding

    - by Wonko the Sane
    Hi All, In WPF4.0, I have a class that contains other class types as properties (combining multiple data types for display). Something like: public partial class Owner { public string OwnerName { get; set; } public int OwnerId { get; set; } } partial class ForDisplay { public Owner OwnerData { get; set; } public int Credit { get; set; } } In my window, I have an ItemsControl with the following (clipped for clarity): <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I then get a collection of display information from the data layer, and set the DataContext of the ItemsControl to this collection. The "Credit" property gets displayed correctly, but the OwnerName property does not. Instead, I get a binding error: Error 40: BindingExpression path error: 'OwnerName' property not found on 'object' ''ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874)'. BindingExpression:Path=OwnerName; DataItem='ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874); target element is 'TextBlock' (Name=txtOwnerName'); target property is 'Text' (type 'String') I don't understand why this is attempting to look for the OwnerName property in the ForDisplay class, rather than in the Owner class from the ForDisplay OwnerData property. Edit It appears that it has something to do with using the custom control. If I bind the same properties to a TextBlock, they work correctly. <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding OwnerData.OwnerName}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Credit}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> Thanks, wTs

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  • ASP.NET FormView: "Object of type 'System.Int32' cannot be converted to type 'System.String"

    - by Vinzcent
    Hey I have a problem with my FromView. I would like to show some data from a Database Table in my FormView. But some data is from the tupe Int32, while this data should be in a TextBox, a string. How do you convert these Int32's. FormView and my ObjectDataSource <asp:FormView ID="fvDetailOrder" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> Aantal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label15" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("COUNT") %>' /><br /> Prijs:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label16" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PRICE") %>' /><br /> Korting:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label17" runat="server" Text='' /><br /> Totaal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label18" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("AMOUNT") %>' /><br /> Betaald:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label19" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PAID") %>' /><br /> Datum betaling:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label20" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PDATE") %>' /><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="objdsOrderID" runat="server" OnSelecting="objdsOrderID_Selecting" SelectMethod="getOrdersByID" TypeName="DAL.OrdersDAL"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="id" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> My Code behind protected void gvOrdersAdmin_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { fvDetailOrder.DataSource = objdsOrderID; fvDetailOrder.DataBind(); // <-- HERE I GET THE ERROR } protected void objdsOrderID_Selecting(object sender, ObjectDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.InputParameters["id"] = gvOrdersAdmin.DataKeys[gvOrdersAdmin.SelectedRow.RowIndex].Values[0]; ; } My Data Acces Layer public static DataTable getOrdersByID(string id) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.*, tblLanguages.*, tblOrders.* FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID INNER JOIN tblLanguages ON tblBooks.LANG_ID = tblLanguages.LANG_ID INNER JOIN tblOrders ON tblBooks.BOOK_ID = tblOrders.BOOK_ID" + " WHERE tblOrders.ID = @id;"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["id"].Value = id; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Orders"); return ds.Tables["Orders"]; } Thanks a lot, Vincent

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  • str is not callable error in python .

    - by mekasperasky
    import sys import md5 from TOSSIM import * from RadioCountMsg import * t = Tossim([]) #The Tossim object is defined here m = t.mac()#The mac layer is defined here , in which the communication takes place r = t.radio()#The radio communication link object is defined here , as the communication needs Rf frequency to transfer t.addChannel("RadioCountToLedsC", sys.stdout)# The various channels through which communication will take place t.addChannel("LedsC", sys.stdout) #The no of nodes that would be required in the simulation has to be entered here print("enter the no of nodes you want ") n=input() for i in range(0, n): m = t.getNode(i) m.bootAtTime((31 + t.ticksPerSecond() / 10) * i + 1) #The booting time is defined so that the time at which the node would be booted is given f = open("topo.txt", "r") #The topography is defined in topo.txt so that the RF frequencies of the transmission between nodes are are set lines = f.readlines() for line in lines: s = line.split() if (len(s) > 0): if (s[0] == "gain"): r.add(int(s[1]), int(s[2]), float(s[3])) #The topogrography is added to the radio object noise = open("meyer-heavy.txt", "r") #The noise model is defined for the nodes lines = noise.readlines() for line in lines: str = line.strip() if (str != ""): val = int(str) for i in range(0, 4): t.getNode(i).addNoiseTraceReading(val) for i in range (0, n): t.getNode(i).createNoiseModel() #The noise model is created for each node for i in range(0,n): t.runNextEvent() fk=open("key.txt","w") for i in range(0,n): if i ==0 : key=raw_input() fk.write(key) ak=key key=md5.new() key.update(str(ak)) ak=key.digest() fk.write(ak) fk.close() fk=open("key.txt","w") plaint=open("pt.txt") for i in range(0,n): msg = RadioCountMsg() msg.set_counter(7) pkt = t.newPacket()#A packet is defined according to a certain format print("enter message to be transported") ms=raw_input()#The message to be transported is taken as input #The RC5 encryption has to be done here plaint.write(ms) pkt.setData(msg.data) pkt.setType(msg.get_amType()) pkt.setDestination(i+1)#The destination to which the packet will be sent is set print "Delivering " + " to" ,i+1 pkt.deliver(i+1, t.time() + 3) fk.close() print "the key to be displayed" ki=raw_input() fk=open("key.txt") for i in range(0,n): if i==ki: ms=fk.readline() for i in range(0,n): msg=RadioCountMsg() msg.set_counter(7) pkt=t.newPacket() msg.data=ms pkt.setData(msg.data) pkt.setType(msg.get_amType()) pkt.setDestination(i+1) pkt.deliver(i+1,t.time()+3) #The key has to be broadcasted here so that the decryption can take place for i in range(0, n): t.runNextEvent(); this code gives me error here key.update(str(ak)) . when i run a similar code on the python terminal there is no such error but this code pops up an error . why so?

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  • Drawing a texture with an alpha channel doesn't work -- draws black

    - by DevDevDev
    I am modifying GLPaint to use a different background, so in this case it is white. Anyway the existing stamp they are using assumes the background is black, so I made a new background with an alpha channel. When I draw on the canvas it is still black, what gives? When I actually draw, I just bind the texture and it works. Something is wrong in this initialization. Here is the photo - (id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { CGImageRef brushImage; CGContextRef brushContext; GLubyte *brushData; size_t width, height; if (self = [super initWithCoder:coder]) { CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = YES; // In this application, we want to retain the EAGLDrawable contents after a call to presentRenderbuffer. eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; context = [[EAGLContext alloc] initWithAPI:kEAGLRenderingAPIOpenGLES1]; if (!context || ![EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]) { [self release]; return nil; } // Create a texture from an image // First create a UIImage object from the data in a image file, and then extract the Core Graphics image brushImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"test.png"].CGImage; // Get the width and height of the image width = CGImageGetWidth(brushImage); height = CGImageGetHeight(brushImage); // Texture dimensions must be a power of 2. If you write an application that allows users to supply an image, // you'll want to add code that checks the dimensions and takes appropriate action if they are not a power of 2. // Make sure the image exists if(brushImage) { brushData = (GLubyte *) calloc(width * height * 4, sizeof(GLubyte)); brushContext = CGBitmapContextCreate(brushData, width, width, 8, width * 4, CGImageGetColorSpace(brushImage), kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGContextDrawImage(brushContext, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, (CGFloat)width, (CGFloat)height), brushImage); CGContextRelease(brushContext); glGenTextures(1, &brushTexture); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, brushTexture); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, brushData); free(brushData); } //Set up OpenGL states glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); CGRect frame = self.bounds; glOrthof(0, frame.size.width, 0, frame.size.height, -1, 1); glViewport(0, 0, frame.size.width, frame.size.height); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glDisable(GL_DITHER); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_DST_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_POINT_SPRITE_OES); glTexEnvf(GL_POINT_SPRITE_OES, GL_COORD_REPLACE_OES, GL_TRUE); glPointSize(width / kBrushScale); } return self; }

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  • How should I clean up hung grandchild processes when an alarm trips in Perl?

    - by brian d foy
    I have a parallelized automation script which needs to call many other scripts, some of which hang because they (incorrectly) wait for standard input. That's not a big deal because I catch those with alarm. The trick is to shut down those hung grandchild processes when the child shuts down. I thought various incantations of SIGCHLD, waiting, and process groups could do the trick, but they all block and the grandchildren aren't reaped. My solution, which works, just doesn't seem like it is the right solution. I'm not especially interested in the Windows solution just yet, but I'll eventually need that too. Mine only works for Unix, which is fine for now. I wrote a small script that takes the number of simultaneous parallel children to run and the total number of forks: $ fork_bomb <parallel jobs> <number of forks> $ fork_bomb 8 500 This will probably hit the per-user process limit within a couple of minutes. Many solutions I've found just tell you to increase the per-user process limit, but I need this to run about 300,000 times, so that isn't going to work. Similarly, suggestions to re-exec and so on to clear the process table aren't what I need. I'd like to actually fix the problem instead of slapping duct tape over it. I crawl the process table looking for the child processes and shut down the hung processes individually in the SIGALRM handler, which needs to die because the rest of real code has no hope of success after that. The kludgey crawl through the process table doesn't bother me from a performance perspective, but I wouldn't mind not doing it: use Parallel::ForkManager; use Proc::ProcessTable; my $pm = Parallel::ForkManager->new( $ARGV[0] ); my $alarm_sub = sub { kill 9, map { $_->{pid} } grep { $_->{ppid} == $$ } @{ Proc::ProcessTable->new->table }; die "Alarm rang for $$!\n"; }; foreach ( 0 .. $ARGV[1] ) { print "."; print "\n" unless $count++ % 50; my $pid = $pm->start and next; local $SIG{ALRM} = $alarm_sub; eval { alarm( 2 ); system "$^X -le '<STDIN>'"; # this will hang alarm( 0 ); }; $pm->finish; } If you want to run out of processes, take out the kill. I thought that setting a process group would work so I could kill everything together, but that blocks: my $alarm_sub = sub { kill 9, -$$; # blocks here die "Alarm rang for $$!\n"; }; foreach ( 0 .. $ARGV[1] ) { print "."; print "\n" unless $count++ % 50; my $pid = $pm->start and next; setpgrp(0, 0); local $SIG{ALRM} = $alarm_sub; eval { alarm( 2 ); system "$^X -le '<STDIN>'"; # this will hang alarm( 0 ); }; $pm->finish; } The same thing with POSIX's setsid didn't work either, and I think that actually broke things in a different way since I'm not really daemonizing this. Curiously, Parallel::ForkManager's run_on_finish happens too late for the same clean-up code: the grandchildren are apparently already disassociated from the child processes at that point.

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  • New project created with Flex Mojo's archetype throws Cannot Find Parent Project-Maven Exception

    - by ignorant
    This is probably a silly question but I just cant seem to figure out. I'm completely new to flex and maven. Maven 2.2.1: Maven 2.2.1 unzipped,M2_HOME set and repository altered to point to different drive location in settings.xml Flex 4.0: Installed Created a multi-modular webapp project using flexmojo: mvn archetype:generate -DarchetypeRepository=http://repository.sonatype.org/content/groups/flexgroup -DarchetypeGroupId=org.sonatype.flexmojos -DarchetypeArtifactId=flexmojos-archetypes-modular-webapp -DarchetypeVersion=RELEASE with following options groupId=com.test artifactId=test version=1.0-snapshot package=com.tests * Creates * test |-- pom.xml |--swc -pom.xml |--swf -pom.xml `--war -pom.xml Parent pom has swc, swf, war as modules. Dependency is war-swf-swc. With parent artifactId of swf, swc, war set to swf, swc, test respectively. On executing mvn on test folder(for that matter clean or anything) I get this following error. G:\Projects\testmvn -e + Error stacktraces are turned on. [INFO] Scanning for projects... Downloading: http://repo1.maven.org/maven2/com/test/swc/1.0-snapshot/swc-1.0-snapshot.pom [INFO] Unable to find resource 'com.test:swc:pom:1.0-snapshot' in repository central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2) [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] FATAL ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Failed to resolve artifact. GroupId: com.test ArtifactId: swc Version: 1.0-snapshot Reason: Unable to download the artifact from any repository com.test:swc:pom:1.0-snapshot from the specified remote repositories: central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2) [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Trace org.apache.maven.reactor.MavenExecutionException: Cannot find parent: com.test:swc for project: com.test:swc-swc:swc:1.0-snapshot for project com.test:swc-swc:swc:1.0-snapshot at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.getProjects(DefaultMaven.java:404) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.doExecute(DefaultMaven.java:272) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.execute(DefaultMaven.java:138) at org.apache.maven.cli.MavenCli.main(MavenCli.java:362) at org.apache.maven.cli.compat.CompatibleMain.main(CompatibleMain.java:60) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:585) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.launchEnhanced(Launcher.java:315) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.launch(Launcher.java:255) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.mainWithExitCode(Launcher.java:430) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.main(Launcher.java:375) Caused by: org.apache.maven.project.ProjectBuildingException: Cannot find parent: com.test:swc for project: com.test:swc-swc:swc:1.0-snapshot for project com.test:swc-swc:swc:1.0-snapshot at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.assembleLineage(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:1396) at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.buildInternal(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:823) at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.buildFromSourceFileInternal(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:508) at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.build(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:200) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.getProject(DefaultMaven.java:604) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.collectProjects(DefaultMaven.java:487) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.collectProjects(DefaultMaven.java:560) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.getProjects(DefaultMaven.java:391) ... 12 more Caused by: org.apache.maven.project.ProjectBuildingException: POM 'com.test:swc' not found in repository: Unable to download the artifact from any repository com.test:swc:pom:1.0-snapshot from the specified remote repositories: central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2) for project com.test:swc at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.findModelFromRepository(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:605) at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.assembleLineage(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:1392) ... 19 more Caused by: org.apache.maven.artifact.resolver.ArtifactNotFoundException: Unable to download the artifact from any repository com.test:swc:pom:1.0-snapshot from the specified remote repositories: central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2) at org.apache.maven.artifact.resolver.DefaultArtifactResolver.resolve(DefaultArtifactResolver.java:228) at org.apache.maven.artifact.resolver.DefaultArtifactResolver.resolve(DefaultArtifactResolver.java:90) at org.apache.maven.project.DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.findModelFromRepository(DefaultMavenProjectBuilder.java:558) ... 20 more Caused by: org.apache.maven.wagon.ResourceDoesNotExistException: Unable to download the artifact from any repository at org.apache.maven.artifact.manager.DefaultWagonManager.getArtifact(DefaultWagonManager.java:404) at org.apache.maven.artifact.resolver.DefaultArtifactResolver.resolve(DefaultArtifactResolver.java:216) ... 22 more [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Total time: 1 second [INFO] Finished at: Tue Jun 15 19:22:15 GMT+02:00 2010 [INFO] Final Memory: 1M/2M [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Looks like its trying to download the project from maven's central repository instead of building it. What am I missing?

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  • "Local transaction already has 1 non-XA Resource: cannot add more resources" error

    - by jthg
    After reading previous questions about this error, it seems like all of them conclude that you need to enable XA on all of the data sources. But: What if I don't want a distributed transaction? What would I do if I want to start transactions on two different databases at the same time, but commit the transaction on one database and roll back the transaction on the other? I'm wondering how my code actually initiated a distributed transaction. It looks to me like I'm starting completely separate transactions on each of the databases. Info about the application: The application is an EJB running on a Sun Java Application Server 9.1 I use something like the following spring context to set up the hibernate session factories: <bean id="dbADatasource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/dbA"/> </bean> <bean id="dbASessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dbADatasource" /> <property name="hibernateProperties"> [hibernate properties...] </property> <property name="mappingResources"> [mapping resources...] </property> </bean> <bean id="dbBDatasource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/dbB"/> </bean> <bean id="dbBSessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dbBDatasource" /> <property name="hibernateProperties"> [hibernate properties...] </property> <property name="mappingResources"> [mapping resources...] </property> </bean> Both of the JNDI resources are javax.sql.ConnectionPoolDatasoure's. They actually both point to the same connection pool, but we have two different JNDI resources because there's the possibility that the two groups of tables will move to different databases in the future. Then in code, I do: sessionA = dbASessionFactory.openSession(); sessionB = dbBSessionFactory.openSession(); sessionA.beginTransaction(); sessionB.beginTransaction(); The sessionB.beginTransaction() line produces the error in the title of this post - sometimes. I ran the app on two different sun application servers. On one runs it fine, the other throws the error. I don't see any difference in how the two servers are configured although they do connect to different, but equivalent databases. So the question is Why doesn't the above code start completely independent transactions? How can I force it to start independent transactions rather than a distributed transaction? What configuration could cause the difference in behavior between the two application servers? Thanks.

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  • Am I using EJBs properly?

    - by kgrad
    I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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