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• Adding more drives to a drive array

  - by Mystere Man

  I have a friend who has two servers, a Dell 1800 and an HP 350 ML G5, both have SAS drive arrays. The Dell is a 3.5" and the HP is a 2.5". They currently only have 3 drives in each array. We want to add additional drives, but they do not appear to have caddies, just "fake" covers. I haven't been able to take a good look at them, so I'm not sure what I need to do here. Are the "sockets" just there, and I can buy additional caddies and just stick them in? Or do I have to buy some kind of caddy adapter? Also, i'm thinking of just going 2.5" in the new server, so is there a 2.5" adapter caddy that will fit in the 3.5" chassis for the Dell, so I can use 2.5" drives in the 3.5" chassis? Can I buy 6GB/s drives and add them to the 3GB/s controller? The reason is that we're going to replace both computers in a year or so, and we want to bring the drives with. So rather than buy 3GB/s drives, we just want to buy 6GB/s drives so they can be used in the new server.

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• Are email addresses mandatory for Windows 8 login names?

  - by Cedric Martin

  I've got a computer running Windows 8 and in the user accounts I can see four accounts (they're in french, here's a rough translation): [email protected] / administrator Veronique YYY / [email protected] ASP.NET Machine Account / local account guest account / the guest account is desactivated I've got several questions but they're all related to email addresses and login names / accounts. Are email addresses mandatory for Windows 8 login names? Can you mix live and non-live user accounts on a Windows 8 system? Is it possible to have a live Windows 8 user account which is not using a @live.xx email address? Is it possible to have a non-live Windows 8 user account which is using a @live.xx email address? If the gmail.com email address of the admin is not a live Windows 8 account, does this mean I can create a "fake" email and use that as the email of a new Windows 8 account? Basically I don't understand very well why there are email addresses displayed on the login screen and why there are both @live.xx and @gmail.com email addresses on the same system and answer to the questions I asked above may help me understand a bit better what is going on (I'm coming from a Linux / OS X background. I literally haven't used Windows in more than a decade).

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• Lost user account for Windows Vista

  - by annelie

  Hello, I'm trying to help a friend who's lost her user account in Vista. I know there's supposed to be a way you can boot the computer from the vista installation disc and create an admin account you can later login with, but her installation disc is in Australia and her laptop in London. Is there any other way to get in? Or would it be better to try and access just the harddrive? She's mainly concerned with getting all her data off it. As for how she lost the account, I'll let her explain in her words. :) My computer basically got some virus and now is up sh*t creek. it told me i had this cryptic thingy majiggy was missing and then this fake virus told me i needed to scan my computer. SO i tried to do malware thing but it kept shutting my computer down. ANYWAY...now its it will only open up with 'launch startup repair' and has got rid of my settings for logging in and wants me to be 'other user' which i have no password or username for'...so basically im stuffed. This is Windows Vista by the way. Thanks, Annelie

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• Exchange 2010: Send emails via STMP with custom From address to outside the domain

  - by marsze

  The requirement(s): (1) Connect to Exchange via STMP and (2) basic authentication and send emails with a (3) custom From address to (4) recipients outside the domain. I was able to get (1) - (3) working. I created a dedicated receive connector for this task and configured it like this: Permissions: ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Any-Recipient (for authenticated users) ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Authoritative-Domain-Sender (for authenticated users) ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Any-Sender (for authenticated users) Authentication: TLS Basic Authentication (without TLS) Exchange Server Authentication However, I'm still struggeling with (4): I can send with "fake" From addresses to recipients inside the domain. Also, I can send with the original From address to recipients outside the domain. Can you tell me what I'm missing, to configure Exchange to send emails with changed From addresses to recipients outside the domain? (Or is this even possible at all?) Thanks. UPDATE I have to correct myself: it seems to be working after all. There must be some issue with the mailbox I used for testing. It turned out it's working with other external mailboxes. However, I still have no idea what was different there... Anyways, you can take this as a documentation on how to configure Exchange in such a way ;)

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• Strange Domain name under the same IP Address

  - by Mike Chip

  There's something really weird happening in my server. But first things first: I wanted to have my website and chose the domain name "myowndomain.com", Now on my domain registrar I point "myowndomain.com" to the address of my recently setup VPS, let's say 50.50.50.50 So I installed everything I needed to run my website, and I started to notice strange queries coming from different IP Addresses. Like these [client 123.123.123.123] File does not exist: /var/www/html/api, referer: http://www.strangedomain.com/api/manyou/my.php [client 456.456.456.456] File does not exist: /var/www/html/api, referer: http://www.strangedomain.com/api/manyou/my.php or like this (Really a long line, I cut some things) GET /?s=vod-show-id-22-area-%E5%85%B6%E4%BB%96-language-%E9%9F%A9%E8%AF%AD.html HTTP/1.1" 301 295 "http://v.strangedomain.com/?s=vod-s ...[cut]... spider" That above is happening the most. The 'strangedomain.com' returns the same IP address of my VPS which my website is hosted on. The whois of such domain shows it's registered to a chinese. But the street name didn't look so right (like a huge single word), so I think all of that info might be fake, but still might be a chinese. I also noticed that all 'clients' trying to access the 'strangedomain.com' is coming from china. If I type in the browser 'strangedomain.com', I see my website. I'm worried, because my website is actually an e-commerce. I don't know if 'strangedomain.com' WAS a website on 50.50.50.50 in the not so far past, or if it's something else.

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• iptables, forward traffic for ip not active on the host itself

  - by gucki

  I have kvm guest which's netword card is conntected to the host using a tap device. The tap device is part of a bridge on the host together with eth0 so it can access the public network. So far everything works, the guest can access the public network and it can be accessed from the public network. Now the kvm process on the host provides a vnc server for the guest which listens on 127.0.0.1:5901 on the host. Is there any way to make this vnc server accessible by the ip address which the guest is using (ex. 192.168.0.249), without interrupting the guest from using the same ip (port 5901 is not used by the guest)? It should also work when the guest is not using any ip address at all. So basically I just want to fake IP xx is on the host and only answer/ forward traffic to port 5901 to the host itself. I tried using this NAT rule on the host, but it doesn't work. Ip forwarding is enabled at the host. iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dst 192.168.0.249 --dport 5901 -j DNAT --to-destination 127.0.0.1:5901 I assume this is because the IP 192.168.0.249 is not not bound to any interfaces and so no ARP requests for it get answered and so no packets for this IP arrive at the host. How can make it work? :)

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• Issues with returned mail sent to web-based email domains

  - by Beeder

  My company is having issues with returned mail that we send out to external domains. A few weeks ago we replaced a firewall and changed ISP providers and began subsequently having issues RECEIVING emails from external sources because we hadn't updated our new IPs in the DNS records. After making the necessary configuration changes and setting up SMTP forwarding over port 25 to our mail server, everything was working fine up until a few days ago when we started having mail sent out returned to us. We aren't having any trouble communicating internally (to recipients on our domain) but it seems we're having trouble with outbound messages to web-based email recipients. (@hotmail, @live, @yahoo, @gmail...etc) Currently we are running Server 2003 SP2 and exchange 2003. I'm very unfamiliar with configuring Exchange and could really use some help in narrowing down the possibilities. I did some research and am becoming suspicious of Sender ID being the culprit due to our recent IP address change and the likelihood that Sender ID is identifying us as a fake domain. Am I going in entirely the wrong direction? Any input or guidance would be infinitely appreciated. This is the message that is returned when an outbound message fails...this particular one was sent to my @live.com account for testing purposes... Your message did not reach some or all of the intended recipients. The following recipient(s) could not be reached: [email protected] on 5/17/2012 3:02 PM There was a SMTP communication problem with the recipient's email server. Please contact your system administrator. Unfortunately, messages from xx.x.xx.x weren't sent. Please contact your Internet service provider since part of their network is on our block list. I tried a reverse DNS lookup and found that we are set up as a Forward-confirmed reverse DNS. So do I just need to contact my ISP and have them correct their DNS records or is this something I can solve on our end??

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• What is a good replacement for StumbleUpon's Share feature?

  - by Mofoo

  I've been using Firefox + StumbleUpon's Share feature with my friends for years now. It is a perfect way of sharing links directly with your friends. You first need to be Following each other and then on the SU toolbar, you can "Share" with your list of friends. You can even include a personal message. The friend will receive a notification with # of pending shares in their toolbar (bold & red). They click the stumble button and it will navigate to the site plus show a yellow bar with your message. I literally use it daily. But then Chrome came along and beat the tar out of Firefox (and other browsers) in terms of usability and performance. But it doesn't (and never will according to Google) allow toolbars. StumbleUpon's solution in Chrome is a fake toolbar (html) that gets injected into the page you're viewing. It's buggy and performance is low. Overall it's not an acceptable solution. I'm looking for a replacement with something that is just as easy to send/receive links. I was thinking of Twitter DM's and using a bookmarklet, but I wanted to survey the collective for other options Thanks in advance for your input!

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• Do SEO-friendly URLs really affect a page's ranking?

  - by Lee Harold

  SEO-friendly URLs are all the rage these days. But do they actually have a meaningful impact on a page's ranking in Google and other search engines? If so, why? If not, why not? (Note that I would absolutely agree that SEO-friendly URLs are nicer to use for human beings. My question is whether they actually make a difference to the ranking algorithms.) Update: As it turns out, the Google post that endorphine points to here has caused tremendous confusion in the SEO community. For a sampling of the discussion, see here, here, and here. Part of the problem is that the Google post is addressing the worst case where URL rewriting is done poorly and so you'd be better off sticking with a dynamic URL rather than a mangled static "SEO-friendly" URL. There's no question dynamic URLs can be crawled by Google and can achieve high rankings. Maybe it would be easier to reframe the question more concretely: given 2 otherwise equivalent pages, which will rank higher for the search "do seo friendly urls really affect page ranking"? A) http://stackoverflow.com/questions/505793/do-seo-friendly-urls-really-affect-a-pages-ranking or B) http://stackoverflow.com?question=505793 (a fake URL for comparison only)

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• Applying Test Driven Development to a tightly coupled architecture

  - by Chris D

  Hi all, I've recently been studying TDD, attended a conference and have dabbled in few tests and already I'm 100% sold, I absolutely love it TDD. As a result I've raised this with my seniors and they are prepared to give it a chance, so they have tasked me with coming up with a way to implement TDD in the development of our enterprise product. The problem is our system has evolved since the days of VB6 to .NET and implements alot of legacy technology and some far from best practice development techniques i.e. alot of business logic in the ASP.NET code behind and client script. The largest problem however is how our classes are tightly coupled with database access; properties, methods, constructors - usually has some database access in some form or another. We use an in-house data access code generator tool that creates sqlDataAdapters that gives us all the database access we could ever want, which helps us develop extremely quickly, however, classes in our business layer are very tightly coupled to this data layer - we aren't even close to implementing some form of repository design. This and the issues above have created me all sorts of problems. I have tried to develop some unit tests for some existing classes I've already written but the tests take ALOT longer to run since db access is required, not to mention since we use the MS Enterprise Caching framework I am forced to fake a httpcontext for my tests to run successfully which isn't practical. Also, I can't see how to use TDD to drive the design of any new classes I write since they have to be soo tightly coupled to the database ... help! Because of the architecture of the system it appears I can't implement TDD without some real hack which in my eyes just defeats the aim of TDD and the huge benefits that come with. Does anyone have any suggestions how I could implement TDD with the constraints I'm bound too? or do I need to push the repository design pattern down my seniors throats and tell them we either change our architecture/development methodology or forget about TDD altogether? :) Thanks

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• Using M2Crypto to save and load X509 certs in pem files

  - by Brock Pytlik

  I would expect that if I have a X509 cert as an object in memory, saved it as a pem file, then loaded it back in, I would end up with the same cert I started with. This seems not to be the case however. Let's call the original cert A, and the cert loaded from the pem file B. A.as_text() is identical to B.as_text(), but A.as_pem() differs from B.as_pem(). To say the least, I'm confused by this. As a side note, if A has been signed by another entity C, then A will verify against C's cert, but B will not. I've put together a tiny sample program to demonstrate what I'm seeing. When I run this, the second RuntimeError is raised. Thanks, Brock #!/usr/bin/python2.6 import M2Crypto as m2 import time cur_time = m2.ASN1.ASN1_UTCTIME() cur_time.set_time(int(time.time()) - 60*60*24) expire_time = m2.ASN1.ASN1_UTCTIME() # Expire certs in 1 hour. expire_time.set_time(int(time.time()) + 60 * 60 * 24) cs_rsa = m2.RSA.gen_key(1024, 65537, lambda: None) cs_pk = m2.EVP.PKey() cs_pk.assign_rsa(cs_rsa) cs_cert = m2.X509.X509() # These two seem the minimum necessary to make the as_text function call work # at all cs_cert.set_not_before(cur_time) cs_cert.set_not_after(expire_time) # This seems necessary to fill out the complete cert without errors. cs_cert.set_pubkey(cs_pk) # I've tried with the following set lines commented out and not commented. cs_name = m2.X509.X509_Name() cs_name.C = "US" cs_name.ST = "CA" cs_name.OU = "Fake Org CA 1" cs_name.CN = "www.fakeorg.dex" cs_name.Email = "[email protected]" cs_cert.set_subject(cs_name) cs_cert.set_issuer_name(cs_name) cs_cert.sign(cs_pk, md="sha256") orig_text = cs_cert.as_text() orig_pem = cs_cert.as_pem() print "orig_text:\n%s" % orig_text cs_cert.save_pem("/tmp/foo") tcs = m2.X509.load_cert("/tmp/foo") tcs_text = tcs.as_text() tcs_pem = tcs.as_pem() if orig_text != tcs_text: raise RuntimeError( "Texts were different.\nOrig:\n%s\nAfter load:\n%s" % (orig_text, tcs_text)) if orig_pem != tcs_pem: raise RuntimeError( "Pems were different.\nOrig:\n%s\nAfter load:\n%s" % (orig_pem, tcs_pem))

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• Unit Test For NpgsqlCommand With Rhino Mocks

  - by J Pollack

  My unit test keeps getting the following error: "System.InvalidOperationException: The Connection is not open." The Test [TestFixture] public class Test { [Test] public void Test1() { NpgsqlConnection connection = MockRepository.GenerateStub<NpgsqlConnection>(); // Tried to fake the open connection connection.Stub(x => x.State).Return(ConnectionState.Open); connection.Stub(x => x.FullState).Return(ConnectionState.Open); DbQueries queries = new DbQueries(connection); bool procedure = queries.ExecutePreProcedure("201003"); Assert.IsTrue(procedure); } } Code Under Test using System.Data; using Npgsql; public class DbQueries { private readonly NpgsqlConnection _connection; public DbQueries(NpgsqlConnection connection) { _connection = connection; } public bool ExecutePreProcedure(string date) { var command = new NpgsqlCommand("name_of_procedure", _connection); command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; NpgsqlParameter parameter = new NpgsqlParameter {DbType = DbType.String, Value = date}; command.Parameters.Add(parameter); command.ExecuteScalar(); return true; } } How would you test the code using Rhino Mocks 3.6? PS. NpgsqlConnection is a connection to a PostgreSQL server.

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• how to embed pure as3 bitmap assets with flex4 (worked with flex3)

  - by jedierikb

  In Flex3, I could compile pure as3 code and use "embed" tags to load in images. This was done by Flex making a BitmapAsset class. I can still do this in Flex4. However, there was a trick to fakeout flex3 and use my own mx.core.BitmapAsset class to remove some of the extraneous stuff Flex's BitmapAsset brings in with it. This is described here: http://www.ultrashock.com/forums/flex/embed-flex-assets-without-using-flex-123405.html Unfortunately, I cannot get these tricks to work with Flex4 and get smaller file sizes. I end up with the error "VerifyError: Error #1014: Class mx.core::BitmapAsset could not be found." This error leads me to this forum, and a solution as described there: http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/flexcoders/message/148762 Following this advice, I add -static-link-runtime-shared-libraries=true, and my swf loads without an error... but this means I am loading in the pieces of the flex framework I wanted to omit (and the file size says so too). Is there a better way to fake out flex4 when it comes to using Embed?

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• How can one detect if a server/script is accessing their site through cURL/file_get_contents()? (excluding user-agents and IP addresses)

  - by navnav

  I've come across a question where a user is having difficulties accessing an image through a script (using cURL/file_get_contents()): How to save an image from url using PHP? The image link seems to return a 403 error when using file_get_contents() to request it. But in cURL, a more detailed error is returned: You were denied access to the system. Turn off the engine or Surf Proxy, Fake IP if you really want to access. Proxy or not accepted from any Web tools Intrusion Prevention System. Binh Minh Online Data Services @ 2008 - 2012 I also failed to access the same image after fiddling around with a cURL request myself. I tried changing the user-agent to my exact browsers user-agent which can successfully access the image. I've also tried the script on my personal local server, which (obviously) uses the same IP address as my browser... So as far as I know, user-agents and IP addresses are out of the situation. How else can someone detect a script performing a request? BTW, this is not for anything crazy. I'm just curious xD

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• iCal file that will update the attendee list?

  - by Peyton Manning

  So I want to add an iCal file to a web page, so that people can add an event to their calendars. But when I view the event in my calendar (Outlook 2007) I want to see everyone who will be attending. How can I do that? I just started experimenting with this, I used Outlook's Save As to create an iCal file for a single event. That works, I can link to that file and other people can add the event to their calendars. But it doesn't tell me who has added it. Here is the (Outlook-generated) code: BEGIN:VCALENDAR PRODID:-//Microsoft Corporation//Outlook 12.0 MIMEDIR//EN VERSION:2.0 METHOD:PUBLISH X-MS-OLK-FORCEINSPECTOROPEN:TRUE BEGIN:VEVENT CLASS:PUBLIC CREATED:20100413T175736Z DESCRIPTION:I want to see if the attendee list is updated when someone adds this event.\n DTEND:20100421T153000Z DTSTAMP:20100413T175736Z DTSTART:20100421T150000Z LAST-MODIFIED:20100413T175736Z LOCATION:Wherever PRIORITY:5 SEQUENCE:0 SUMMARY;LANGUAGE=en-us:Totally fake event TRANSP:OPAQUE UID:040000008200E00074C5B7101A82E00800000000604A0119F8DACA01000000000000000 0100000004D19467F69BF6041A0B0FAFFECA1864B X-ALT-DESC;FMTTYPE=text/html:\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\nI want to see if the attendee list is updated when someone adds this e vent.\n\n\n X-MICROSOFT-CDO-BUSYSTATUS:BUSY X-MICROSOFT-CDO-IMPORTANCE:1 X-MICROSOFT-DISALLOW-COUNTER:FALSE X-MS-OLK-ALLOWEXTERNCHECK:TRUE X-MS-OLK-AUTOFILLLOCATION:FALSE X-MS-OLK-CONFTYPE:0 BEGIN:VALARM TRIGGER:-PT15M ACTION:DISPLAY DESCRIPTION:Reminder END:VALARM END:VEVENT END:VCALENDAR

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• How can I test blades in MVC Turbine with Rhino Mocks?

  - by Brandon Linton

  I'm trying to set up blade unit tests in an MVC Turbine-derived site. The problem is that I can't seem to mock the IServiceLocator interface without hitting the following exception: System.BadImageFormatException: An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007000B) at System.Reflection.Emit.TypeBuilder._TermCreateClass(Int32 handle, Module module) at System.Reflection.Emit.TypeBuilder.CreateTypeNoLock() at System.Reflection.Emit.TypeBuilder.CreateType() at Castle.DynamicProxy.Generators.Emitters.AbstractTypeEmitter.BuildType() at Castle.DynamicProxy.Generators.Emitters.AbstractTypeEmitter.BuildType() at Castle.DynamicProxy.Generators.InterfaceProxyWithTargetGenerator.GenerateCode(Type proxyTargetType, Type[] interfaces, ProxyGenerationOptions options) at Castle.DynamicProxy.DefaultProxyBuilder.CreateInterfaceProxyTypeWithoutTarget(Type interfaceToProxy, Type[] additionalInterfacesToProxy, ProxyGenerationOptions options) at Castle.DynamicProxy.ProxyGenerator.CreateInterfaceProxyTypeWithoutTarget(Type interfaceToProxy, Type[] additionalInterfacesToProxy, ProxyGenerationOptions options) at Castle.DynamicProxy.ProxyGenerator.CreateInterfaceProxyWithoutTarget(Type interfaceToProxy, Type[] additionalInterfacesToProxy, ProxyGenerationOptions options, IInterceptor[] interceptors) at Rhino.Mocks.MockRepository.MockInterface(CreateMockState mockStateFactory, Type type, Type[] extras) at Rhino.Mocks.MockRepository.CreateMockObject(Type type, CreateMockState factory, Type[] extras, Object[] argumentsForConstructor) at Rhino.Mocks.MockRepository.Stub(Type type, Object[] argumentsForConstructor) at Rhino.Mocks.MockRepository.<>c__DisplayClass1`1.<GenerateStub>b__0(MockRepository repo) at Rhino.Mocks.MockRepository.CreateMockInReplay<T>(Func`2 createMock) at Rhino.Mocks.MockRepository.GenerateStub<T>(Object[] argumentsForConstructor) at XXX.BladeTest.SetUp() Everything I search for regarding this error leads me to 32-bit vs. 64-bit DLL compilation issues, but MVC Turbine uses the service locator facade everywhere and we haven't had any other issues, just with using Rhino Mocks to attempt mocking it. It blows up on the second line of this NUnit set up method: IRotorContext _context; IServiceLocator _locator; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { _context = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IRotorContext>(); _locator = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IServiceLocator>(); _context.Expect(x => x.ServiceLocator).Return(_locator); } Just a quick aside; I've tried implementing a fake implementing IServiceLocator, thinking that I could just keep track of calls to the type registration methods. This won't work in our setup, because we extend the service locator's interface in such a way that if the type isn't Unity-based, the registration logic is not invoked.

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• spring 3 AOP anotated advises

  - by Art79

  Trying to figure out how to Proxy my beans with AOP advices in annotated way. I have a simple class @Service public class RestSampleDao { @MonitorTimer public Collection<User> getUsers(){ .... return users; } } i have created custom annotation for monitoring execution time @Target({ ElementType.METHOD, ElementType.TYPE }) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MonitorTimer { } and advise to do some fake monitoring public class MonitorTimerAdvice implements MethodInterceptor { public Object invoke(MethodInvocation invocation) throws Throwable{ try { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); Object retVal = invocation.proceed(); long end = System.currentTimeMillis(); long differenceMs = end - start; System.out.println("\ncall took " + differenceMs + " ms "); return retVal; } catch(Throwable t){ System.out.println("\nerror occured"); throw t; } } } now i can use it if i manually proxy the instance of dao like this AnnotationMatchingPointcut pc = new AnnotationMatchingPointcut(null, MonitorTimer.class); Advisor advisor = new DefaultPointcutAdvisor(pc, new MonitorTimerAdvice()); ProxyFactory pf = new ProxyFactory(); pf.setTarget( sampleDao ); pf.addAdvisor(advisor); RestSampleDao proxy = (RestSampleDao) pf.getProxy(); mv.addObject( proxy.getUsers() ); but how do i set it up in Spring so that my custom annotated methods would get proxied by this interceptor automatically? i would like to inject proxied samepleDao instead of real one. Can that be done without xml configurations? i think should be possible to just annotate methods i want to intercept and spring DI would proxy what is necessary. or do i have to use aspectj for that? would prefere simplest solution :- ) thanks a lot for help!

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• CKEditor createFakeParserElement: writeHtml is not a function

  - by Phil Sturgeon

  I am trying to write a plugin for CKEditor that is basically just a iframe with PHP content. The user browses around, selects the video they want and then they click insert. The problem is that I need to create a "fake element" for this video, as inserting a video directly seems to show up as a Flash object, and we need to make it look a little different. I have copied together some code from the Flash plugin.js (remember this is all undocumented and uncommented) and so far come up with this: function insertFakeElement( html ) { editor = window.parent.instance; var realElement = CKEDITOR.dom.element.createFromHtml( html ); var fakeElement = editor.createFakeParserElement( realElement, 'cke_video', 'object', true ), fakeStyle = fakeElement.attributes.style || ''; var width = realElement.attributes.width, height = realElement.attributes.height; if ( typeof width != 'undefined' ) fakeStyle = fakeElement.attributes.style = fakeStyle + 'width:' + cssifyLength( width ) + ';'; if ( typeof height != 'undefined' ) fakeStyle = fakeElement.attributes.style = fakeStyle + 'height:' + cssifyLength( height ) + ';'; editor.insertHTML(fakeElement.getHtml()); } The line "giving me jip" is: var fakeElement = editor.createFakeParserElement( realElement, 'cke_video', 'object', true ), It errors here saying: l.writeHtml is not a function [Break on this error] if(o)o.addRules(l);}});})();a.editor.p..."',o,'_text" The .js file is minified and I have no idea how the source files all fit together so I can't track down the cause of this error. Does anybody know what I am doing wrong?

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• Will IOC solve our problems?

  - by user127954

  Just trying to implement unit testing into a brownfield type system. Be aware i'm relatively new into the unit testing world. Its going to be a gradual migration of course because there are just so many areas of pain. The current problem i'm trying to solve is we followed a lot of bad practices from our VB6 days and in the conversion of our app to .Net. We have LOT AN LOTS of shared/static functions which call other shared functions and those call others and so on. Sometimes depedencies are passed in as parameters and sometimes they are just newed up within the calling function. I've already instructed our developers to stop creating shared functions and instead create instance members and only use those instance members off of interfaces but that doesn't alleviate the current situation. So you must recursively pass in each and every dependency at the top layer for each function in your code path and method signatures are turning into a mess. I'm hoping this is something that IOC will fix. Currently we are using NUnit/Moq and i'm starting to investigate StructureMap. So far i understand that you pretty much tell StructureMap for x interface i want to default to the concrete class y: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=>{x.ForRequestType<IInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyClass>()}); Then to runtime: var mytype = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IInterface>(); the IOC container will initialize the correct type for you. Not sure yet how to swap a fake in for the concrete type but hopefully thats simple. Again will IOC solve the problems i was talking about above? Is there a specific IOC framework that will do it better than StructureMap or can they all handle this situation. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• Create System.Data.Linq.Table in Code for Testing

  - by S. DePouw

  I have an adapter class for Linq-to-Sql: public interface IAdapter : IDisposable { Table<Data.User> Activities { get; } } Data.User is an object defined by Linq-to-Sql pointing to the User table in persistence. The implementation for this is as follows: public class Adapter : IAdapter { private readonly SecretDataContext _context = new SecretDataContext(); public void Dispose() { _context.Dispose(); } public Table<Data.User> Users { get { return _context.Users; } } } This makes mocking the persistence layer easy in unit testing, as I can just return whatever collection of data I want for Users (Rhino.Mocks): Expect.Call(_adapter.Users).Return(users); The problem is that I cannot create the object 'users' since the constructors are not accessible and the class Table is sealed. One option I tried is to just make IAdapter return IEnumerable or IQueryable, but the problem there is that I then do not have access to the methods ITable provides (e.g. InsertOnSubmit()). Is there a way I can create the fake Table in the unit test scenario so that I may be a happy TDD developer?

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• PyQt and unittest - how to handle signals and slots

  - by Einar

  Hello, some small application I'm developing uses a module I have written to check certain web services via a REST API. I've been trying to add unit tests to it so I don't break stuff, and I stumbled upon a problem. I use a lot of signal-slot connections to perform operations asynchronously. For example a typical test would be (pseudo-Python), with postDataDownloaded as a signal: def testConnection(self): "Test connection and posts retrieved" def length_test(): self.assertEqual(len(self.client.post_data), 5) self.client.postDataReady.connect(length_test) self.client.get_post_list(limit=5) Now, unittest will report this test to be "ok" when running, regardless of the result (as another slot is being called), even if asserts fail (I will get an unhandled AssertionError). Example when deliberatiely making the test fail: Test connection and posts retrieved ... ok [... more tests...] OK Traceback (most recent call last): [...] AssertionError: 4 != 5 The slot inside the test is merely an experiment: I get the same results if it's outside (instance method). I also have to add that the various methods I'm calling all make HTTP requests, which means they take a bit of time (I need to mock the request - in the mean time I'm using SimpleHTTPServer to fake the connections and give them proper data). Is there a way around this problem?

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• Programatically send SMS to email using Verizon Motorola Droid on Android

  - by Dave

  Hi, I was wondering if anyone knew the proper way to send an SMS message to an e-mail address using Verizon's CDMA Motorola Droid phone. The internal messaging application appears to automagically do this. While 3rd party applications like SMSPopup don't seem to be able to properly reply to e-mail addresses unless you compose the message inside the messaging application. When the internal messaging application sends a SMS message there's a corresponding 'RIL_REQUEST_CDMA_SEND_SMS' entry in the logcat (adb logcat -b radio). When you send a SMS to an e-mail address it prints the same thing, so behind the scenes it looks as though it is sending an sms. The interesting thing is that if you look at the content provider sent box the messages are addressed to various 1270XX-XXX-XXXX numbers. On other services you can send e-mail addresses by sending a SMS to a predefined short sms number. And then formatting your SMS as emailaddress subject message i.e. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SMS_gateway#Carrier-Provided_SMS_to_E-Mail_Gateways For example, using T-mobile's number (500) you can send a SMS to an e-mail using the following: SmsManager smsMgr = SmsManager.getDefault(); smsMgr.sendTextMessage("500", null, "[email protected] message sent to an e-mail address from a SMS", null, null); Does anyone know if It is possible to programatically send SMS to email messages from a CDMA Android phone? Does Verizon actually send your replies as SMS messages or are they actually sent as MMS or normal http email messages? Any ideas about how to intercept what the raw message being sent to see what's going on? It might be possible that Verizon somehow generates a fake number temporarily tied to an e-mail address (since repeated messages are not sent to the same number). But, that seems pretty heavy handed. Thanks!

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• Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

  - by dean nolan

  I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

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• NullReferenceException when testing DefaultModelBinder.

  - by Byron Sommardahl

  I'm developing a project using BDD/TDD techniques and I'm trying my best to stay the course. A problem I just ran into is unit testing the DefaultModelBinder. I'm using mspec to write my tests. I have a class like this that I want to bind to: public class EmailMessageInput : IMessageInput { public object Recipient { get; set; } public string Body { get; set; } } Here's how I'm building my spec context. I'm building a fake form collection and stuffing it into a bindingContext object. public abstract class given_a_controller_with_valid_email_input : given_a_controller_context { Establish additional_context = () => { var form = new FormCollection { new NameValueCollection { { "EmailMessageInput.Recipient", "[email protected]"}, { "EmailMessageInput.Body", "Test body." } } }; _bindingContext = new ModelBindingContext { ModelName = "EmailMessageInput", ValueProvider = form }; _modelBinder = new DefaultModelBinder(); }; protected static ModelBindingContext _bindingContext; protected static DefaultModelBinder _modelBinder; } public abstract class given_a_controller_context { protected static MessageController _controller; Establish context = () => { _controller = new MessageController(); }; } Finally, my spec throws an null reference exception when I execute .BindModel() from inside one of my specs: Because of = () => { _model = _modelBinder.BindModel(_controller.ControllerContext, _bindingContext); }; Any clue what it could be? Feel free to ask me for more info, if needed. I might have taken something for granted.

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• Before data is entered, is there a way to make a grouped table graphic placeholder?

  - by Matt Winters

  I have a grouped table with 3 sections, each section with a title. The 1st and 3rd sections always have only 1 row of information so before any user data is entered, I just put some words like "Enter Data Here..." as placeholder text. This text is edited (replaced) by the user with their own actual data. No problem. The 2nd section however will contain several rows of information entered by user and I'd prefer not to enter placeholder data in row 0, having the user Edit the first row of data then Add subsequent rows. If the numberOfRowsInSection is set to 0, the title for the 3rd section comes close to the title for the 2nd section and it looks ugly. The best that I could come with, and I don't know to do it, is to have a fake graphic placeholder on the striped background (between the 2nd and third titles) that looks like a single row in the 2nd section, put "Enter Data Here..." text in the graphic, and then the first row of actual data entered and all subsequent rows will cover it up. Can anyone tell me how to do this or offer a better suggestion. Thanks.

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