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  • Tell me SQL Server Full-Text searcher is crazy, not me.

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have some customers with a particular address that the user is searching for: 123 generic way There are 5 rows in the database that match: ResidentialAddress1 ============================= 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY i run a FT query to look for these rows. i'll show you each step as i add more criteria to the search: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') ResidentialAddress1 ========================= 123 MAPLE STREET 12345 TEST 123 MINE STREET 123 GENERIC WAY 123 FAKE STREET ... (30 row(s) affected) Okay, so far so good, now adding the word "generic": SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"generic*"') ResidentialAddress1 ============================= 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY 123 GENERIC WAY (5 row(s) affected) Excellent. And now i'l add the final keyword that the user wants to make sure exists: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"generic*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way*"') ResidentialAddress1 ------------------------------ (0 row(s) affected) Huh? No rows? What if i query for just "way*": SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way*"') ResidentialAddress1 ------------------------------ (0 row(s) affected) At first i thought that perhaps it's because of the *, and it's requiring that the root way have more characters after it. But that's not true: Searching for "123*" matches "123" Searching for "generic*" matches "generic" Books online says, The asterisk matches zero, one, or more characters What if i remove the * just for s&g: SELECT ResidentialAddress1 FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.ResidentialAddress1, '"way"') Server: Msg 7619, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 A clause of the query contained only ignored words. So one might think that you are just not allowed to even search for way, either alone, or as a root. But this isn't true either: SELECT * FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"way*"') AccountNumber FirstName Lastname ------------- --------- -------- 33589 JOHN WAYNE So sum up, the user is searching for rows that contain all the words: 123 generic way Which i, correctly, translate into the WHERE clauses: SELECT * FROM Patrons WHERE CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"123*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"generic*"') AND CONTAINS(Patrons.*, '"way*"') which returns no rows. Tell me this just isn't going to work, that it's not my fault, and SQL Server is crazy. Note: i've emptied the FT index and rebuilt it.

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  • small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

    - by wallacoloo
    So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

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  • How do I change the base class at runtime in C#?

    - by MatthewMartin
    I may be working on mission impossible here, but I seem to be getting close. I want to extend a ASP.NET control, and I want my code to be unit testable. Also, I'd like to be able to fake behaviors of a real Label (namely things like ID generation, etc), which a real Label can't do in an nUnit host. Here a working example that makes assertions on something that depends on a real base class and something that doesn't-- in a more realistic unit test, the test would depend on both --i.e. an ID existing and some custom behavior. Anyhow the code says it better than I can: public class LabelWrapper : Label //Runtime //public class LabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } //Ugh, now I have to test FakeLabelWrapper public class FakeLabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } [TestFixture] public class UnitTest { [Test] public void Test() { //Wish this was LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(new FakeBase()) LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(); //FakeLabelWrapper label = new FakeLabelWrapper(); label.Text = "ToUpper"; Assert.AreEqual("TOUPPER",label.Text); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); label.RenderControl(writer); Assert.AreEqual(1,label.ID); Assert.AreEqual("<span>TOUPPER</span>", stringWriter.ToString()); } } public class FakeLabel { virtual public string Text { get; set; } public void RenderControl(TextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<span>" + Text + "</span>"); } } //System Under Test internal class LabelLogic { internal string ProcessGetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } internal string ProcessSetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } }

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  • What is wrong with accessing DBI directly?

    - by canavanin
    Hi everyone! I'm currently reading Effective Perl Programming (2nd edition). I have come across a piece of code which was described as being poorly written, but I don't yet understand what's so bad about it, or how it should be improved. It would be great if someone could explain the matter to me. Here's the code in question: sub sum_values_per_key { my ( $class, $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ) = @_; my %results; my $dbh = DBI->connect( $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ); my $sth = $dbh->prepare( 'select key, calculate(value) from my_table'); $sth->execute(); # ... fill %results ... $sth->finish(); $dbh->disconnect(); return \%results; } The example comes from the chapter on testing your code (p. 324/325). The sentence that has left me wondering about how to improve the code is the following: Since the code was poorly written and accesses DBI directly, you'll have to create a fake DBI object to stand in for the real thing. I have probably not understood a lot of what the book has so far been trying to teach me, or I have skipped the section relevant for understanding what's bad practice about the above code... Well, thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Easiest way to programmatically create email accounts for use by web app?

    - by cadwag
    I have a web app that create groups. Each group gets their own discussion board. I would like to add the feature of allowing users to send emails to their "group" within the web app to start a new discussion or reply to an email from the "group" to make a new post in an already ongoing discussion. For example, to start a new discussion a user would send: From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Subject: Hey guys! Meet up on Tuesday? Body: Yes? No? All members of the group would receive an email: From: [email protected] Subject: Hey guys! Meet up on Tuesday? Body: Yes? No? Reply-To: group1@ example.com And, the app would start a new discussion with: Author: Bill Fake Subject: Hey guys! Meet up on Tuesday? Body: Yes? No? This is a pretty standard feature for Google Groups and other big sites. So how do us mere mortals go about implementing this? Is there an easy way? Or do I: 1. Install postfix 2. Write scripts to create new accounts for each new group 3. Access the server periodically via pop3 (or imap?) to retrieve the email messages sent to each account? 4. Parse the message for content If it's the latter, did I miss a step?

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  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

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  • Android: Capturing the return of an activity.

    - by Chrispix
    I have a question regarding launching new activities. It boils down to this. I have 3 tabs on a view A) contains gMap activity B) camera activity C) some random text fields. Requirement is that the application runs in Portrait mode. All 3 tabs work as expected w/ the exception of the Camera Preview Surface (B). It is rotated 90 degrees. They only way to make it correct is to set the app to landscape which throws all my tabs around, and is pretty much unworkable. My solution is this : replace my camera activity with a regular activity that is empty w/ the exception of Intent i = new Intent(this,CameraActivity.class); startActivity(i); This launches my CameraActivity. And that works fine. I had to do a linear layout and include 3 images that look like real tabs, so I can try and mimic the operation of the tabs while rotating the screen to landscape and keep the visuals as portrait. The user can click one of the images(buttons) to display the next tab. This is my issue. It should exit my 'camera activity' returning to the 'blank activity' in a tab, where it should be interpreted to click the desiered tab from my image. The main thing is, when it returns, it returns to a blank (black) page under a tab (because it is 'empty'). How can I capture the return event back to the page that called the activity, and then see what action they performed? I can set an onclicklistener where I can respond to the fake tabs (images) being clicked to exit out of the camera activity. On exit, the tab should update so that is where you return. any Suggestions? Thanks,

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  • odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

    - by giddy
    This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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  • How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

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  • Some questions about dotnetopenauth

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have a couple outstanding questions mainly reguarding twitter and facebook In the FacebookGraph class there are properties such as Id,name,etc. I am wondering how do I add to this list? Like what happens if I want a users hometown? I tried to add a property called hometown but it always is null. What should I store their id(1418) or the whole url(http://www.facebook.com/profile.php?id=1418) for lookup later in my db to grab their data and to see if they have an account with my site? Is it actually good to use this id as it seems like it is common knowledge. Can't someone just find the profile id or whatever and do a fake request on my site? how do you setup dotnetopenauth to deal with the case when a user goes to facebook and deletes access to my website. I know you can send a deauthorization code to your site and then delete their account but I don't know how to do that through dotnetopenauth Twitter Is it possible to do number 4 with twitter? Ajax Is it possible to make the openid stuff ajax? I don't see a sample anywhere in the dotnetopenauth samples.

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  • Dynamic loading a class in java with a different package name

    - by C. Ross
    Is it possible to load a class in Java and 'fake' the package name/canonical name of a class? I tried doing this, the obvious way, but I get a "class name doesn't match" message in a ClassDefNotFoundException. The reason I'm doing this is I'm trying to load an API that was written in the default package so that I can use it directly without using reflection. The code will compile against the class in a folder structure representing the package and a package name import. ie: ./com/DefaultPackageClass.class // ... import com.DefaultPackageClass; import java.util.Vector; // ... My current code is as follows: public Class loadClass(String name) throws ClassNotFoundException { if(!CLASS_NAME.equals(name)) return super.loadClass(name); try { URL myUrl = new URL(fileUrl); URLConnection connection = myUrl.openConnection(); InputStream input = connection.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int data = input.read(); while(data != -1){ buffer.write(data); data = input.read(); } input.close(); byte[] classData = buffer.toByteArray(); return defineClass(CLASS_NAME, classData, 0, classData.length); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } catch (IOException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } }

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  • How to use RewriteBase in .htaccess to rewrite img tags?

    - by Eileen
    I guess I don't understand RewriteBase. I have a (drupal) site built on my dev server and everything works perfectly. I created a fake URL for it in my own apache and hosts file, so I get to my local version with "local-examplesite.com". Eventually it will live at www.examplesite.com, but I want to put up a draft with a temp URL at my hosting company like so: 123.45.67.89/~examplesite . I set the RewriteBase in .htaccess to /~examplesite . All the pages work fine, and all the navigation links go to the right places. But none of my images work! They are of the format src="/sites/default/images/blah.png", and so the tags are getting rendered as src="http://123.45.67.89/sites/default/images/blah.png", instead of src="http://123.45.67.89/~examplesite/sites/default/images/blah.png". Is there any way I can get the site to point to right images? I thought that's what rewritebase was for, but after reading up a bit I guess it is for URLs only (the ones that get rewritten, natch).

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  • how to handle empty selection in a jface bound combobox?

    - by guido
    I am developing a search dialog in my eclipse-rcp application. In the search dialog I have a combobox as follows: comboImp = new CCombo(grpColSpet, SWT.BORDER | SWT.READ_ONLY); comboImp.setBounds(556, 46, 184, 27); comboImpViewer = new ComboViewer(comboImp); comboImpViewer.setContentProvider(new ArrayContentProvider()); comboImpViewer.setInput(ImpContentProvider.getInstance().getImps()); comboImpViewer.setLabelProvider(new LabelProvider() { @Override public String getText(Object element) { return ((Imp)element).getImpName(); } }); Imp is a database entity, ManyToOne to the main entity which is searched, and ImpContentProvider is the model class which speaks to embedded sqlite database via jpa/hibernate. This combobox is supposed to contain all instances of Imp, but to also let empty selection; it's value is bound to a service bean as follows: IObservableValue comboImpSelectionObserveWidget = ViewersObservables.observeSingleSelection(comboImpViewer); IObservableValue filterByImpObserveValue = BeansObservables.observeValue(searchPrep, "imp"); bindingContext.bindValue(comboImpSelectionObserveWidget, filterByImpObserveValue , null, null); As soon as the user clicks on the combo, a selection (first element) is made: I can see the call to a selectionlistener i added on the viewer. My question is: after a selection has been made, how do I let the user change his mind and have an empty selection in the combobox? should I add a "fake" empty instance of Imp to the List returned by the ImpContentProvider? or should I implement an alternative to ArrayContentProvider? and one additional related question is: why calling deselectAll() and clearSelection() on the combo does NOT set a null value to the bound bean?

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  • How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

    - by Milan Babuškov
    I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

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  • J2EE and alternatives

    - by Ilya K
    Hello, I am J2SE developer but I have rich web-background (php, perl/cgi and so on) and now I am starting new project. It will have web interface, spaghetti business logic, relational database as storage and connections to other services. I do it from the scratch. My colleagues told me to use spring, spring security and struts. I look briefly at J2EE spec and found that it covers almost all aspects of enterprise application. I asked my colleagues why do they need spring and struts, but looks like they use technologies simply because they are familiar with them and not familiar with classic J2EE stack. So, my question is: what is bad about J2EE? Why do I need spring if there are JNDI lookups? It will take a day or two to create fake InitialContext for unit-tests. And that is all: I stand with out of external tools like spring. Why do I need spring-security if there is a security built in Servlets spec? I can map any request to any servlet using web.xml, no struts.xml is needed. I can use servlet-filters instead of struts interceptors. There is RMI, so I do not need spring-remote. And so on.. Why should I bother my self with all that fancy stuff if there is J2EE? I really want to find situation when J2EE is not enough. Do you have any? Thanks!

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  • C++ and Dependency Injection in unit testing

    - by lhumongous
    Suppose I have a C++ class like so: class A { public: A() { } void SetNewB( const B& _b ) { m_B = _b; } private: B m_B; } In order to unit test something like this, I would have to break A's dependency on B. Since class A holds onto an actual object and not a pointer, I would have to refactor this code to take a pointer. Additionally, I would need to create a parent interface class for B so I can pass in my own fake of B when I test SetNewB. In this case, doesn't unit testing with dependency injection further complicate the existing code? If I make B a pointer, I'm now introducing heap allocation, and some piece of code is now responsible for cleaning it up (unless I use ref counted pointers). Additionally, if B is a rather trivial class with only a couple of member variables and functions, why introduce a whole new interface for it instead of just testing with an instance of B? I suppose you could make the argument that it would be easier to refactor A by using an interface. But are there some cases where two classes might need to be tightly coupled?

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  • Need help mocking a ASP.NET Controller in RhinoMocks

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to mock up a fake ASP.NET Controller. I don't have any concrete controllers, so I was hoping to just mock a Controller and it will work. This is what I have, currently. _fakeRequestBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpRequestBase>(); _fakeRequestBase.Stub(x => x.HttpMethod).Return("GET"); _fakeContextBase = MockRepository.GenerateMock<HttpContextBase>(); _fakeContextBase.Stub(x => x.Request).Return(_fakeRequestBase); var controllerContext = new ControllerContext(_fakeContextBase, new RouteData(), MockRepository.GenerateMock<ControllerBase>()); _fakeController = MockRepository.GenerateMock<Controller>(); _fakeController.Stub(x => x.ControllerContext).Return(controllerContext); Everything works except the last line, which throws a runtime error and is asking me for some Rhino.Mocks source code or something (which I don't have). See how I'm trying to mock up an abstract Controller - is that allowed? Can someone help me?

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  • User submitted content filtering

    - by Jim
    Hey all, Does anyone have any ideas on what could be used as a way to filter untrustworthy user submitted content? Take Yelp for instance, they would need to prevent competitors writing business reviews on their competitors. They would need to prevent business owners favourably reviewing their own business, or forcing friends/family to do so. They would need to prevent poor quality reviews from affecting a businesses rating and so on. I can't think what they might use to do this: Prevent multiple users from the same IP reviewing certain things Prevent business owners reviewing their own business (maybe even other businesses in the same categories as their own?) Somehow determine what a review is about and what the actual intentions behind it are Other than the first and second points, I can't think of any clever/easy way to filter potentially harmful reviews from being made available, other than a human doing it. Obviously for a site the size of Yelp this wouldn't be feasible, so what parameters could they take into consideration? Even with human intervention, how would anyone know it was the owners best buddy writing a fake review without knowing the people? I'm using this as an example in a larger study on the subject of filtering user content automatically. Does anyone have any ideas how these systems may work and what they take into consideration? Thanks!

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  • Vectorize matrix operation in R

    - by Fernando
    I have a R x C matrix filled to the k-th row and empty below this row. What i need to do is to fill the remaining rows. In order to do this, i have a function that takes 2 entire rows as arguments, do some calculations and output 2 fresh rows (these outputs will fill the matrix). I have a list of all 'pairs' of rows to be processed, but my for loop is not helping performance: # M is the matrix # nrow(M) and k are even, so nLeft is even M = matrix(1:48, ncol = 3) # half to fill k = nrow(M)/2 # simulate empty rows to be filled M[-(1:k), ] = 0 cat('before fill') print(M) # number of empty rows to fill nLeft = nrow(M) - k nextRow = k + 1 # list of rows to process (could be any order of non-empty rows) idxList = matrix(1:k, ncol = 2) for ( i in 1 : (nLeft / 2)) { row1 = M[idxList[i, 1],] row2 = M[idxList[i, 2],] # the two columns in 'results' will become 2 rows in M # fake result, return 2*row1 and 3*row2 results = matrix(c(2*row1, 3*row2), ncol = 2) # fill the matrix M[nextRow, ] = results[, 1] nextRow = nextRow + 1 M[nextRow, ] = results[, 2] nextRow = nextRow + 1 } cat('after fill') print(M) I tried to vectorize this, but failed... appreciate any help on improving this code, thanks!

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  • Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

    - by Alan Storm
    Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

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  • .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

    - by jdk
    Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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  • Any way to define getters for lazy variables in Javascript arrays?

    - by LLer
    I'm trying to add elements to an array that are lazy-evaluated. This means that the value for them will not be calculated or known until they are accessed. This is like a previous question I asked but for objects. What I ended up doing for objects was Object.prototype.lazy = function(var_name, value_function) { this.__defineGetter__(var_name, function() { var saved_value = value_function(); this.__defineGetter__(var_name, function() { return saved_value; }); return saved_value; }); } lazy('exampleField', function() { // the code that returns the value I want }); But I haven't figured out a way to do it for real Arrays. Arrays don't have setters like that. You could push a function to an array, but you'd have to call it as a function for it to return the object you really want. What I'm doing right now is I created an object that I treat as an array. Object.prototype.lazy_push = function(value_function) { if(!this.length) this.length = 0; this.lazy(this.length++, value_function); } So what I want to know is, is there a way to do this while still doing it on an array and not a fake array?

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  • Using new (this) to reuse constructors

    - by Brandon Bodnar
    This came up recently in a class for which I am a teaching assistant. We were teaching the students how to do copy constructors in c++, and the students who were originally taught java asked if you can call one constructor from another. I know the answer to this is no, as they are using the pedantic flag for their code in class, and the old standards do not have support for this. I found on Stackoverflow and other sites a suggestion to fake this using new (this) such as follows class MyClass { private: int * storedValue; public: MyClass(int initialValue = 0) { storedValue = new int(initialValue); } ~ MyClass() { delete storedValue; } MyClass(const MyClass &b) { new (this) MyClass(*(b.storedValue)); } int value() { return *storedValue; } }; This is really simple code, and obviously does not save any code by reusing the constructor, but it is just for example. My question is if this is even standard compliant, and if there are any edge cases that should be considered that would prevent this from being sound code?

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  • How do I show the selected item in an HTML <select> at the top

    - by Michael Meadows
    I have an HTML select that looks something like this (values are fake) <select size="40"> <option value="1">What would you do if I sang out of tune,</option> <option value="2">Would you stand up and walk out on me?</option> ... more <option value="156">Lend me your ears, and I'll sing you a song,</option> <option selected="selected" value="157">I will try not to sing out of key.</option> <option value="158">Oh, I get by with a little help from my friends.</option> ... more <option value="507">I get high with a little help from my friends.</option> <option value="509">Gonna' try with a little from my friends.</option> </select> The problem that I have is that when displaying the list after loading the page and the selected option is in the middle of the very long list, IE scrolls the selected option to the top of the list (which is what I want). Firefox, Chrome, Opera, and Safari show it at the bottom (which I don't want). I have to assume that IE is doing it wrong since everyone else shows it at the bottom. How can I force the browsers to display the selected item at the top of the list. I do not want to put it at the top of the list, I just want it to scroll such that the selected option is at the top. bonus, it would be even better if I can put it fourth from the top, but I can live without that if it's too difficult.

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  • Create 2nd tables and add data

    - by Tyler Matema
    I have this task from school, and I am confuse and lost on how I got to do this. So basically I have to create 2 tables to the database but I have to created from php. I have created the first table, but not the second one for some reason. And then, I have to populate first and second tables with 10 and 20 sample records respectively, populate, does it mean like adding more fake users? if so is it like the code shown below? *I got error on the populating second part as well Thank you so much for the help. <?php $host = "host"; $user = "me"; $pswd = "password"; $dbnm = "db"; $conn = @mysqli_connect($host, $user, $pswd, $dbnm); if (!$conn) die ("<p>Couldn't connect to the server!<p>"); $selectData = @mysqli_select_db ($conn, $dbnm); if(!$selectData) { die ("<p>Database Not Selected</p>"); } //1st table $sql = "CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `friends` ( `friend_id` INT NOT NULL auto_increment, `friend_email` VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, `password` VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, `profile_name` VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL, `date_started` DATE NOT NULL, `num_of_friends` INT unsigned, PRIMARY KEY (`friend_id`) )"; //2nd table $sqlMyfriends = "CREATE TABLE `myfriends` ( `friend_id1` INT NOT NULL, `friend_id2` INT NOT NULL, )"; $query_result1 = @mysqli_query($conn, $sql); $query_result2 = @mysqli_query($conn, $sqlMyfriends); //populating 1st table $sqlSt3="INSERT INTO friends (friend_id, friend_email, password, profile_name, date_started, num_of_friends) VALUES('NULL','[email protected]','123','abc','2012-10-25', 5)"; $queryResult3 = @mysqli_query($dbConnect,$sqlSt3) //populating 2nd table $sqlSt13="INSERT INTO myfriends VALUES(1,2)"; $queryResult13=@mysqli_query($dbConnect,$sqlSt13); mysqli_close($conn); ?>

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