Search Results

Search found 23716 results on 949 pages for 'call for papers'.

Page 240/949 | < Previous Page | 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247  | Next Page >

  • Is there a way to set the value of $? in a mock in Ruby?

    - by rleber
    I am testing some scripts that interface with system commands. Their logic depends on the return code of the system commands, i.e. the value of $?. So, as a simplified example, the script might say: def foo(command) output=`#{command}` if $?==0 'succeeded' else 'failed' end end In order to be able to test these methods properly, I would like to be able to stub out the Kernel backquote call, and set $? to an arbitrary value, to see if I get appropriate behavior from the logic in the method after the backquote call. I can't figure out a way to do this. (In case it matters, I'm testing using Test::Unit and Mocha.)

    Read the article

  • Detect if class has overloaded function fails on Comeau compiler

    - by Frank
    Hi Everyone, I'm trying to use SFINAE to detect if a class has an overloaded member function that takes a certain type. The code I have seems to work correctly in Visual Studio and GCC, but does not compile using the Comeau online compiler. Here is the code I'm using: #include <stdio.h> //Comeau doesnt' have boost, so define our own enable_if_c template<bool value> struct enable_if_c { typedef void type; }; template<> struct enable_if_c< false > {}; //Class that has the overloaded member function class TestClass { public: void Func(float value) { printf( "%f\n", value ); } void Func(int value) { printf( "%i\n", value ); } }; //Struct to detect if TestClass has an overloaded member function for type T template<typename T> struct HasFunc { template<typename U, void (TestClass::*)( U )> struct SFINAE {}; template<typename U> static char Test(SFINAE<U, &TestClass::Func>*); template<typename U> static int Test(...); static const bool Has = sizeof(Test<T>(0)) == sizeof(char); }; //Use enable_if_c to only allow the function call if TestClass has a valid overload for T template<typename T> typename enable_if_c<HasFunc<T>::Has>::type CallFunc(TestClass &test, T value) { test.Func( value ); } int main() { float value1 = 0.0f; int value2 = 0; TestClass testClass; CallFunc( testClass, value1 ); //Should call TestClass::Func( float ) CallFunc( testClass, value2 ); //Should call TestClass::Func( int ) } The error message is: no instance of function template "CallFunc" matches the argument list. It seems that HasFunc::Has is false for int and float when it should be true. Is this a bug in the Comeau compiler? Am I doing something that's not standard? And if so, what do I need to do to fix it?

    Read the article

  • Inserting text into a textarea using .load() in jQuery

    - by bateman_ap
    Hi, having a bit of a nightmare, I am trying to use jQuery to insert some text taken from a .load() call into a form field (textfield) after a user logs in (basically prefilling some known details) The code I am using is: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/ajax/login.php", data: dataString, success: function(html) { if (html == 1) { $("#loginPanel").load("/ajax/login-panel.php"); $("#bookName").load("/ajax/getSessionDetails.php #userUsername"); $("#bookEmail").load("/ajax/getSessionDetails.php #userEmail"); $("#bookingLogin").hide("fast"); } else { $("#loginError").html("Sorry, login failed, please try again"); } } }); If I hardcode such as $("#bookName").html("Test Content"); it works OK so it must be a problem with the .load call. I looked around and found some guy suggest something like the following code but I couldn't get it to work: $.get(htmlBannerUrl, function(data){ $('textarea').val(data); });

    Read the article

  • AS3: Performance question calling an event function with null param

    - by adehaas
    Lately I needed to call a listener function without an actual listener like so: foo(null); private function foo(event:Event):void { //do something } So I was wondering if there is a significant difference regarding performance between this and using the following, in which I can prevent the null in calling the function without the listener, but am still able to call it with a listener as well: foo(); private function foo(event:Event = null):void { } I am not sure wether it is just a question of style, or actually bad practice and I should write two similar functions, one with and one without the event param (which seems cumbersome to me). Looking forward to your opinions, thx.

    Read the article

  • Can JPA do batch update | put | write | insert as pm.makePersistentAll() does in GAE/J

    - by Kenyth
    I searched through multiple discussions here. Can someone just give me a quick and direct answer? And if with JPA you can't do a batch update, what if I don't use transaction, and just use the following flow: em = emf.getEntityManager // do some query // make some data modification em.persist(..) // do some query // make some data modification em.persist(..) // do some query // make some data modification em.persist(..) ... em.close() How does this compare to batch update with regard to performance, and compare to a single transaction commit, measured by RPC calls to datastore server, CPU cycles per request, or so. Does every call to em.persist(..) before em.close() trigger a RPC call to the datastore server? Thanks very much for any response!

    Read the article

  • Beginner Access VBA SQL INSERT Question

    - by Josh K
    Syntax question: I am using the code below to call a query in Access VBA strSQL = "INSERT INTO tblLoanDetails ([ServerName]) VALUES ('Test') WHERE [ID]=3" Call CurrentDb.Execute(strSQL) And i am getting a runtime error of "3067: Query must contain atleast one table or query." the insert statement string looks like this (Threw the var into a text box): INSERT INTO tblLoanDetails ([ServerName]) VALUES ('Test') WHERE [ID]=3 I also tried adding a semi-colon to the end but with no luck. I also double checked to make sure my table is called tblLoanDetails and my Column names are ServerName, and ID Appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • WCF service code in window application

    - by Mariya
    Hello, I am using C#.net application code. I require to call service for Window Application and i am using below code to open service Host, using (ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost( typeof(class1), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }) ) { } & Then we have clinet Console application to connect to serviceHost. Problem is, When i create service/Client application Using Conslole Application both are working fine. But if i call servide code form Window application to connect to console client it gives Error for Binding Error like("No End Point/Address found to test") Can any one help me to run service from C# window application ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Serialising my JSON output problem in JQuery

    - by davykiash
    Am trying to validate my form using an AJAX call $("#button").click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "<?php echo $this->baseUrl() ?>/expensetypes/async", data: 'fs=' + JSON.stringify($('#myform').serialize(true)), contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json" }); }); On my controller my code is as follows //Map the form from the client-side call $myFormData = Zend_Json::decode($this->getRequest()->getParam("fs") ,Zend_Json::TYPE_ARRAY); $form = new Form_Expensetypes(); $form->isValid($myFormData); However from firebug my output is as follows fs="id=&expense_types_code=AAA&expense_types_desc=CCCC&expense_types_linkemail=XXXX&expense_types_budgetamount=22222&expense_types_budgetperiod=22222" What I expect is something similar to fs{"expense_types_code":"AAA","expense_types_desc":"CCCC","expense_types_linkemail":"XXXX","expense_types_budgetamount":"22222"} How do I achieve this type of serialisation?

    Read the article

  • Understanding configuration for parallel calling in web app (IIS + MS SQL)

    - by mmcteam.com.ua
    We have an ASP.NET MVC application + IIS 7.5 + SQL Server 2008 R2. We have to load a lot of aggregate counters on the each page. We decided to use ajax and call with javascript for each counter or groups of counters and return them as JSON result. We solve the problem that user doesn't wait for page loading, page loads fast. User waits for counters loading while seeing other page content. But we thought that if we make calls from javascript - our queries will be make async, but we notice, that it is not. All our javascipt calls runs immediately, but action that they invoke are in queue. If we use Async Controller ability - all counters calculating simultaneously, but user has to wait for the longest counter calculating before page loads. The question: We want to understand what is happens if we use ajax and call two or more actions simultaneously. And how can we configuring this. (also in each action we make some queries to sql server)

    Read the article

  • HABTM checking for match of latest 3

    - by user333614
    Here's an interesting one for you folks... I have a HABTM (has_and_belongs_to_many) relationship between "Dogs" and "Trips". My goal is to find two result sets: 1) Dogs that have been on at least 1 of the last 3 trips and call that @dogs_current 2) Dogs that have NOT been on any of the last 3 trips and call that @dogs_old I found that I can find what the last 3 trips are by doing this in the Trip model: named_scope :last3, :order => 'date DESC', :limit => 3 But not sure how to use that list get 1 and 2. This hack works, but it seems ugly. There must be a better way! :) @dogs_current = [] @dogs_old = [] @dogs.each do |dog| if (Trip.last3 - dog.trips).size < 3 then @dogs_current << dog else @dogs_old << dog end end Any ideas? Thanks! -Cam

    Read the article

  • Retrieving Gtk::Widget's relative position: get_allocate() doesn't work

    - by a-v
    I need to retrieve the position of a Gtk::Widget relative to its parent, a Gtk::Table. Most sources (e.g. http://library.gnome.org/devel/gtk-faq/stable/x642.html) say that one needs to call Gtk::Widget::get_allocation(). However, the returned Gtk::Allocation object always contains x = -1, y = -1, width = 1, height = 1. I have to note that this happens before the Gtk::Table object is actually exposed and rendered. A call to show_all_children() or check_resize(), which I would expect to recalculate child widget geometry, doesn't help. What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Data validation between SQL replicated tables

    - by Vikram
    Hi All, I am trying to figure out a way to validate the data in my publisher and subscriber in SQL 2005 replication. I thought of using sp_publication_validation, but it needs db_owner permission and we are not allowed to have it in our company. So I did bit more reading and found out about two other SPs that I think work for me. First one is sp_article_validation, which I plan to run on the publisher. For each article that I call this SP, its gonna give the row count and a checksum. With that info, I intend to call sp_table_validation on the subscriber, passing the row count and checksum from the previous SP, there by validating both tables. What do you guys think? Is this a proven way to validate data in replication? There is very little documentation on these SPs. Here is the link: sp_table_validation - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa239370(v=sql.80).aspx sp_article_validation - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177511(v=SQL.90).aspx Thanks for

    Read the article

  • Dictionary as parameter, where the Value-Type is irrelevant

    - by aaginor
    Hi folks, I have a function, that returns the next higher value of a Dictionary-Keys-List compared to a given value. If we have a Key-List of {1, 4, 10, 24} and a given value of 8, the function would return 10. Obviously the type of the Value-Part of the Dictionary doesn't matter for the function, the function-code for a Dictionary<int, int> and Dictionary<int, myClass> would be the same. How has the method-head have to look like, when I want to call the function with any Dictionary, that has int as key-Type and the value-Type is irrelevant? I tried: private int GetClosedKey(Dictionary<int, object> list, int theValue); but it says that there are illegal arguments, when I call it with a Dictionary. I don't want to copy'n'paste the function for each different value-type that my function may be called. Any idea, how to accomplish that? Thanks in advance, Frank

    Read the article

  • Java Map question

    - by user552961
    I have one Map that contains some names and numbers Map<String,Integer> abc = new TreeMap<String,Integer>(); It works fine. I can put some values in it but when I call it in different class it gives me wrong order. For example: I putted abc.put("a",1); abc.put("b",5); abc.put("c",3); some time it returns the order (b,a,c) and some time (a,c,b). What is wrong with it? Is there any step that I am missing when I call this map?

    Read the article

  • Handling missing data

    - by soppotare
    Say I have a simple helpdesk application which logs calls made by users. I would typically have such fields in a table relating to the call e.g. CallID, Description, CustomerID etc. I Would also have a table of customers including CustomerID, Username, Password, FullName etc. Now when a user is deleted from the customers table then the inner join between the calls table and the users table to find out historically which user logged a call would produce no results. How do people usually deal with this? Have seperate customer and useraccount tables Just disable the accounts so the data is still available Record the customers name in the calls table as a seperate field. or any other methods / suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Java REST Interface

    - by Vikram
    I have a PHP web application environment. I am using Slim Framework as REST interface for my application. My application front-end is written using Backbone.js and jQuery. There is a utility (.jar file) which when I use command line makes a remote call (I guess this is a Web Service) which returns me the data. how do I best incorporate this into my webapplication described on top? My application front end will have a Button that should make an AJAX call to the REST Interface and fetch the data as JSON. My approach: PHP-REST interface url is: /api/phprestapi.php exists Add a JAVA-REST interface at url: /api/javarestapi.java (Perhaps) to separate these two Existing Environment: LAMP Stack on Ubuntu How do I achieve this? What is the kind of effort involved? Thanks for your pointers

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX & an ASP.NET web service works locally but not remotely

    - by Alex
    Interesting one here. I have an ASP.NET 1.1 project that contains a web service in it. I'm using jQuery's AJAX functionality to call some services from the client. This is what my code looks like: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'foo.asmx/functionName', data: 'foo1=' + foo1 + '&foo2=' + foo2, dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { //do something with my xml data }, error: function(request, error){ //handle my error } }); This works great when I run the site from my IDE on localhost. However, when I deploy this site to any other server I get a parsererror error from jQuery. It does not appear to even call my service as I dropped in some code to write a log file to disk and it's not making it there. The same exact XML should be returned from both my localhost and the server I deployed to. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Why do you sometimes need to write <typename T> instead of just <T> ?

    - by StackedCrooked
    I was reading the Wikipedia article on SFINAE and encountered following code sample: struct Test { typedef int Type; }; template < typename T > void f( typename T::Type ) {} // definition #1 template < typename T > void f( T ) {} // definition #2 void foo() { f< Test > ( 10 ); //call #1 f< int > ( 10 ); //call #2 without error thanks to SFINAE } Now I've actually written code like this before, and somehow intuitively I knew that I needed to type "typename T" instead of just "T". However, it would be nice to know the actual logic behind it. Anyone care to explain?

    Read the article

  • Comparing an array of users to an array of structs with user object as attribute, and returning matc

    - by keruilin
    I have an array of users who are friends. Let us call this array: friends I then have an array of structs. Each struct has a user object as an attribute (it also has a rank attribute). Here's what the struct class looks like, to add some context: class Leader < Struct.new(:rank, :user); end Let us call this array of structs: all_leaders_plus_rank I want to compare friends and all_leaders_plus_rank, and add the match from all_leaders_plus_rank to a new array of structs called friendly_leaders.

    Read the article

  • doubt in - Function Objects - c++

    - by Eternal Learner
    I have a class class fobj{ public: fobj(int i):id(i) {} void operator()() { std::cout<<"Prints"<<std::endl; } private: int id; }; template<typename T> void func(T type) { type(); } My Doubt is if I invoke func like Method 1: func(fobj(1); the message I wanted to print is printed. I was always thinking I needed to do something like Method 2: fobj Iobj(1); // create an instance of the fobj class func(Iobj); //call func by passing Iobj(which is a function object) How does Method 1 work? I mean what exactly happens? and how is a call made to the operator() in class fobj ?

    Read the article

  • "Inlining" (kind of) functions at runtime in C

    - by fortran
    Hi, I was thinking about a typical problem that is very JIT-able, but hard to approach with raw C. The scenario is setting up a series of function pointers that are going to be "composed" (as in maths function composition) once at runtime and then called lots and lots of times. Doing it the obvious way involves many virtual calls, that are expensive, and if there are enough nested functions to fill the CPU branch prediction table completely, then the performance with drop considerably. In a language like Lisp, I could probably process the code and substitute the "virtual" call by the actual contents of the functions and then call compile to have an optimized version, but that seems very hacky and error prone to do in C, and using C is a requirement for this problem ;-) So, do you know if there's a standard, portable and safe way to achieve this in C? Cheers

    Read the article

  • [C++] Simple inheritance question

    - by xbonez
    I was going over some sample questions for an upcoming test, and this question is totally confusing me. Any help would be appreciated. Consider the following code: class GraduateStudent : public Student { ... }; If the word "public" is omitted, GraduateStudent uses private inheritance, which means which of the following? GraduateStudent objects may not use methods of Student. GraduateStudent does not have access to private objects of Student. No method of GraduateStudent may call a method of Student. Only const methods of GraduateStudent can call methods of Student.

    Read the article

  • func_get_args detect context

    - by Steve
    I have a script where it accepts a varying number of arguments. I want to use func_get_args to perform operations on said arguments. If I have one function like this: function Something() { foreach(func_get_args($this) as $functions) { // Do something } // Return.. } I want to be able to call this function in, for example, another function to add/save entries. The add/save function would have arguments 'title', 'description' etc.. I basically want to know if there is a way to detect the context of a function call. Can I pass something to func_get_args that will let it know that its called in a certain function? So if I do: function Save($title, $desc) { $vars = $this->Something(); } I want $vars to contain $title and $desc after modifying them.

    Read the article

  • C++0x: how to get variadic template parameters without reference?

    - by Sydius
    Given the following contrived (and yes, terrible) example: template<typename... Args> void something(Args... args) { std::tuple<Args...> tuple; // not initializing for sake of example std::get<0>(tuple) = 5; } It works if you call it like so: int x = 10; something<int>(x); However, it does not work if you call it like this: int x = 10; something<int&>(x); Because of the assignment to 5. Assuming that I cannot, for whatever reason, initialize the tuple when it is defined, how might I get this to work when specifying the type as a reference? Specifically, I would like the tuple to be std::tuple<int> even when Args... is int&.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247  | Next Page >